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Anatomy: Block 3- Thorax and Abdomen > Development > Flashcards

Development Flashcards

1
Q

What fuses in the midline to create a single heart tube?

A

Endocardial tube

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2
Q

What do endocardial heart tubes begin as? How many endocardial tubes develop?

A

Angioblastic cords; 4

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3
Q

What adult structures are formed by the endocardial heart tubes?

A

The medial two become dorsal aorta; lateral tubes fuse to form the cords that create the primitive heart

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4
Q

What is the venous end that anchors the heart tube caudally?

A

Sinus venosus

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5
Q

What is the flow of blood through the sinus venosus into the primitive heart tube?

A

->primitive atrium–>atrioventricular canal–> primitive ventricle–>bulbus cordis–> truncus arteriosus–>aortic sac–> dorsal aortic arches

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6
Q

What structures arise from the truncus arteriosus?

A

Aorta, pulmonary trunk, aorticopulmonary septum

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7
Q

What forms from the bulbus cordis?

A

Smooth part of the right ventricle (conus arteriosus) and the smooth part of the left ventricle (aortic vestibule)

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8
Q

From the primitive ventricle arise?

A

The muscular portion of both ventricles?

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9
Q

What develops from the primitive atrium?

A

The muscular portion of each atria

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10
Q

From what does the sinus venarum develop?

A

The right horn of the sinus venosus

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11
Q

From what does the sinus venosus receive venous blood?

A

Common cardinal veins, umbilical veins, vitelline veins?

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12
Q

What is formed by the union of the anterior and posterior cardinal veins?

A

Common cardinal veins

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13
Q

What brings unoxygenated blood back from the embryo?

A

Common cardinal veins

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14
Q

Where does the umbilical vein drain?

A

The placenta

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15
Q

What kind of blood is contained in the umbilical veins?

A

Highly oxygenated blood

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16
Q

What area do the vitelline veins drain?

A

The yolk sac

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17
Q

Of what is the pericardial sac a subdivision?

A

The intraembryonic coelom

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18
Q

The formation of which structures divides the single atrioventricular canal into right and left atrioventricular canals?

A

Endocardial cushions

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19
Q

What is the initial septum formed in the development of the interatrial septum?

A

Septum premum

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20
Q

What forms from the several perforations created in the septum premum as it grows?

A

Foramen secundum

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21
Q

What is the second septum to grow, which is immediately to the right of the septum primum?

A

Septum secundum

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22
Q

What forms from the opening of the septum secundum?

A

Foramen ovale

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23
Q

What will give rise to the coronary sinus?

A

The left horn of the sinus venous

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24
Q

From what does the sinus venarum develop?

A

Right horn of the sinus venosus?

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25
Q

What vessels arise from the right horn of the sinus venosus?

A

Oblique vein of left atrium, middle, small, and great cardiac vv.

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26
Q

From the umbilical vein where does blood go?

A

Half through ductus venosus into inferior vena cava and half into the liver and through the liver sinus and then into IVC via heptaic veins

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27
Q

Into what does the Inferior Vena Cava drain?

A

Right attrium

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28
Q

What is the flow of blood from IV through the fetal heart?

A

Into right atrium–>foramen ovale–>left attrium–>left ventricle–>ascending aorta

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29
Q

What is the flow of blood from the superior vena cava through the heart?

A

Right atrium–>right ventricle–>pulmonary trunk–>ductus arteriosus–>descending aorta

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30
Q

What does the proximal part of the umbilical arteries become?

A

Superior vesicle arteries to bladder

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31
Q

What does the distal parts of umbilical arteries become?

A

median umbilical folds

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32
Q

What changes occur in the fetal circulation after birth?

A

Increased pulmonary blood flow, thinning of pulmonary artery walls, closure of foramen ovale, ductus venosus–> ligamentum venosum, ductus arteriosus–> ligamentum arteriosum,

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33
Q

What causes constriction of the ductus arteriosus?

A

Increased oxygenation and secretion of bradykinin by lungs

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34
Q

What four things will occur with tetralogy of Fallot? What is the most obvious sign?

A

Pulmonary stenosis; right ventricular hypertrophy; ventricular septal defect; dextroposition of aorta (overriding aorta)

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35
Q

What is the most common single cause of cyanotic heart disease in newborns?

A

Transposition of Great Arteries

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36
Q

What is the anatomical basis of transposition of great arteries?

A

Improper formation of aorticopulmonary septum

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37
Q

What develops from the first aortic arch?

A

Maxillary artery (contributes to external carotid)

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38
Q

What develops from the 2nd aortic arch?

A

Stapedial aa.

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39
Q

What develops from the 3rd aortic arch?

A

Common carotid aa.

40
Q

What develops from the 4th aortic arch?

A

Left–> (part of) arch of aorta

Right–> Right subclavian a.

41
Q

What develops from the 6th aortic arch?

A

Left proximal–> Left pulmonary a.
Left distal–> ductus arteriosus
Right–> right pulmonary artery

42
Q

What gives rise to the larynx and the trachea?

A

Laryngotracheal diverticulum

43
Q

The larygotracheal diverticulum continues to grow outward to become? What does this structure subdivide into?

A

Lung bud; bronchial buds

44
Q

What separates the laryngotracheal tube into the trachea and esophagus?

A

Tracheoesophageal septum

45
Q

What is esophageal atresia?

A

Esophagus ends in a blind pouch

46
Q

What is a esophageal fistula?

A

Incomplete division of the crainal part of the foregut into the respiratory and esophageal part

47
Q

What are the stages of respiratory development?

A

Pseudoglandular, Canalicular, Terminal sac, Alveolar periods

48
Q

What is the earliest stage of respiratory development at which an infant could be born and breathe?

A

Canalicular period

49
Q

What period takes place after birth?

A

Alveolar periods

50
Q

In what period is the blood-air barrier established?

A

Terminal sac period

51
Q

Respiratory distress syndrome is due to what?

A

Surfactant deficiency

52
Q

The lateral mesoderm splits into what two layers?

A

Somatic and splanchnic mesoderm

53
Q

What is the space between the somatic and splanchnic mesoderm?

A

Intraembryonic coelom

54
Q

From what tissue layer are the parietal layer of serous membranes developed?

A

Somatic mesoderm

55
Q

From what tissue layer are the visceral layer of serous membranes developed?

A

Splanchnic mesoderm

56
Q

What makes up a somatopleure?

A

Superficial ectoderm + somatic mesoderm

57
Q

What makes up a splanchnopleure?

A

Endoderm + splanchnic mesoderm

58
Q

What are the three well-defined coelomic cavities at 4 weeks of development?

A

Pericardial cavity, Pericarioperitoneal canals, Peritoneal cavity

59
Q

What three sets of partitions are present in the body cavity at 4 weeks of development?

A

Septum transversum, pleuro-pericardial membranes, pleuro-peritoneal membranes

60
Q

What four structures contribute to the development of the diaphragm?

A

Septum transversum, pleuroperitoneal membranes, dorsal mesentery of the esophagus, body wall

61
Q

What gives rise to the central tendon of the diaphragm?

A

Septum transversum

62
Q

What gives rise to the left and right crura?

A

Dorsal mesentery of the esophagus

63
Q

What is the developmental cause of congenital diaphragmatic hernias?

A

Defective formation and/or fusion of pleuroperitoneal membranes

64
Q

Where do congenital diaphragmatic hernias typically occur?

A

Posterolateral- Foramen of Bochdalek

65
Q

Where is there continuity between intra and extra-embryonic coelom?

A

Umbilical cord

66
Q

What is derived from the foregut?

A

Everything supplied by celiac a.

67
Q

What is derived from the midgut?

A

Everything supplied by superior mesenteric a.

68
Q

What is derived from the hindgut?

A

Inferior mesenteric a. supplied organs

69
Q

What condition can result from a short esophagus?

A

Hiatal hernia

70
Q

What forms the anterior vagal trunk?

A

Left vagus n.

71
Q

What forms the posterior vagal trunk?

A

Right vagus n.

72
Q

What structures (3) persist from the ventral mesentery?

A

Lesser omentum, Falciform ligament, hepatogastric ligament; hepatoduidenal ligament

73
Q

What structures (10) are derived from the dorsal mesentery

A

Greater omentum, gastrosplenic ligament, gastrophrenic ligament, gastrocolic ligament, lienorenal ligament, mesentery proper, tranverse mesocolon, mesoappendix, phrenicocolic ligament, mesocecum

74
Q

Through what does the lesser peritoneal sac communicate with the greater peritoneal sac

A

Omental foramen/ Foramen of Winslow/Epiploic foramen

75
Q

Within the portal triad, which structure is the most posterior?

A

Hepatic portal vein

76
Q

Within the portal triad, which structure is anterior and to the left?

A

proper hepatic artery

77
Q

What is just posterior to the portal triad?

A

Inferior vena cava

78
Q

From what tissues does the duodenum develop?

A

Caudal foregut and rostral midgut

79
Q

The rotation of the duodenum causes the common bile duct to switch its ______ position to _______ positions?

A

Ventral; posterior

80
Q

In what parts of the duodenum does stenosis more commonly occur?

A

3 & 4

81
Q

In what parts of the duodenum does atresia more commonly occur?

A

2 & 3

82
Q

The liver bud is divided into a cranial and caudal part. What structures do these parts develop into?

A

Cranial- Liver; caudal- gallbladder

83
Q

Which bud of the pancreas rotates 90 degrees?

A

Ventral pancreatic bud

84
Q

What is annular pancreas?

A

One of the ventral pancreatic buds rotates normally but the other does not resulting in the fusion of the buds around the 2nd part of duodenum

85
Q

From what does the main pancreatic duct develop? The accessory duct?

A

The duct of the ventral pancreatic bud and the distal part of the dorsal pancreatic bud; proximal part of dorsal pancreatic duct

86
Q

What are the three stages of movement in the development of the midgut?

A

Herniation, Return, Fixation

87
Q

What is the total degree of rotation accomplished by the gut loop?

A

270 CCW

88
Q

What structure is developed from a swelling on the distal limb at its junction with the proximal limb?

A

Cecum

89
Q

What are the secondary retroperitoneal organs?

A

ascending and descending colon, 2-4 duodenum

90
Q

How many layers makes up the omentum?

A

4

91
Q

What results from incomplete obliteration of vitelline duct?

A

Ileal (Meckel’s) Diverticula

92
Q

What is an omphalocele?

A

When intestinal loop fails to return from the umbilical cord to the abdominal cavity

93
Q

What is Gastroschisis?

A

Gut herniates out (usually superior and to the right of umbilicus) due to failure of the lateral body folds to fuse completely when forming anterior abdominal wall

94
Q

The cloaca receive input from what two things?

A

The hindgut and the allantois

95
Q

The cloaca extends down and makes contact with what structure to form the cloacal membrane?

A

Proctodeum

96
Q

Into what does the urorectal septum divide the cloaca?

A

Urogenital sinus and anorectal canal

97
Q

What is the point of fusion between the urorectal septum and cloacal membrane?

A

Perineal body

Anatomy: Block 3- Thorax and Abdomen (5 decks)

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