Development Flashcards

1
Q

nature vs. nurture

A

debate about relative contribution of biological processes and experiential
factors of development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

nature

A

biological characteristics we are born with; innate abilities; reflexes; pre- programmed responses that are presented at birth and are adaptive; innate predisposition to learn.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

nurture and two early theorists who believed in this concept

A

influence begins from conception; unborn child can be highly susceptible to environmental factors.
-J. Locke: Tabula Rosa (i.e., “clean slate”).
-J. Watson: mold any child into what he wanted (behaviorism, Little Albert).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

genotype

A

actual genetic material of the person; may not always be observable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

phenotype

A

the way a genotype is expressed through observable characteristics, such as
physical attributes and psychological characteristics (e.g., intelligence); identified through direct observation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

gene environment correlations

A

occurs when an individual selects environments based on genetically influenced traits (not the same as gene-environment interactions, which is when environment alters gene expression).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

passive gene environment correlation

A

parent has the same genes, parent select’s child’s environment (i.e., parents create a home environment influenced by heritable characteristics).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

evocative (Reactive) gene environment correlation

A

individual has genetic trait, expression of trait acts on environment to reinforce itself.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

active gene environment correlation

A

individual has genetic trait, individual seeks out environments to express that trait.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

autosomal disorders

A

caused by genes located on the autosomes (i.e., chromosomes other than sex chromosomes).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

huntingtons disease

A

dominant disorder; causes brain to deteriorate and affects psychological and motor functions; not usually diagnosed until adulthood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

cystic fibrosis

A

recessive disorder: glandular problem that causes excessive mucus production, which affects the lungs, pancreas, liver, kidneys, and intestines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

sickle cell disease

A

recessive disorder; causes blood cell deformities, resulting in the blood being unable to carry enough oxygen to keep tissue healthy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

tay sachs disease

A

recessive disorder common in couples of Jewish and Eastern European heritage; nervous system degenerates and likely to be cognitively impaired and blind by 1-2 years old; few survive past 3 years old.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

phenylketonuria (PKU)

A

recessive gene causes a baby to have problems digesting the amino acid phenylalanine; toxins build up in the baby’s brain and cause cognitive disability; if no foods (e.g., milk) containing the amino acid are ingested, they will not be impaired; early diagnosis critical.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

sex linked disorders

A

caused by genes located on the sex chromosomes (X chromosome); most often linked with recessive genes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

red green color blindness

A

problems distinguishing between red and green when they are adjacent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

hemophilia

A

lack the chemical components that cause blood to clot; bleeding doesn’t stop naturally; almost unknown in girls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

fragile x syndrome

A

X chromosome has a damaged spot; can cause cognitive impairment that becomes progressively worse as the child becomes older.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

aneuploidy disorders

A

variation in number of chromosomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

down syndrome

A

trisomy 21; three copies of chromosome 21; cognitive impairment and distinctive facial features, smaller brains, and other physical abnormalities; increased chance of passing on this disorder for mothers 35+.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

klinefelter syndrome

A

sex chromosome abnormality; commonly XXY pattern; affected males usually appear normal but have underdeveloped testes and low sperm production; many have language and learning disabilities; at puberty, experience male and female changes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

turner syndrome

A

single X chromosome; anatomically female but show stunted growth and are often sterile; without hormone therapy, they do not menstruate or develop breasts at puberty; ¼ have serious heart defects; imbalanced cognitive abilities (poor spatial ability but high verbal ability).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

gestation (prenatal development) and the three stages

A

process that transfers a zygote (single cell created when sperm and ovum unite) into a newborn; 38-40 weeks total; 23 weeks is the least amount for baby to survive, but you are essentially ready at 37 weeks; there are 3 phases of gestation:

1) germinal stage
2) embryonic stage
3) fetal stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

germinal stage of gestation

A

first 2 weeks of germination (conception to implantation); cells specialize into what will become the fetus’ body; rapid cell division.
-Day 5: blastocyst (hallow, fluid filled ball) forms.
-Day 12: implantation—blastocyst attaches to uterine wall.
-Placenta created when some of the blastocyst cells combine with uterine lining; organ that allows oxygen, nutrients, and other substances to transfer between mom and baby.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

embryonic stage of gestation

A

begins at implantation and continues until the end of week 8;
embryo’s organs form during this time (organogenesis); most susceptible to teratogens at this point.
-Neural tube develops.
-Movements increase as electrical activity in brain becomes more organized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

fetal stage of gestation

A

begins at end of week 8 and continues until birth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

teratogens

A

substances that can cause birth defects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

fetal alcohol syndrome

A

facial deformities, small stature, underdeveloped brain; irritable and hyperactive; number one cause of cognitive impairment in US.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

heroin and development

A

increased prematurity; early mortality; problems with respiration and physical development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

cocaine and development

A

low birth weight; increased miscarriage rate; high risk of SIDS; sleep and eating difficulties; developmental delays.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

nicotine and development

A

higher risk of still birth; cognitive deficits; emotional difficulties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

lithium and development

A

increased risk of heart defects (e.g., Ebstein’s anomaly).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

lead and development

A

cognitive impairment; low birth weight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

malnutrition and development

A

increased risk of mental illness in adulthood; brain stunting—reduced brain weight and volume; decreased synaptic formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

spina bifida

A

neural tube defects due to lack of folic acid in diet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

third trimester impacts of malnutrition

A

low birth weight with intellectual disabilities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

HIV and development

A

can be passed from mother to fetus; ATZ therapy can reduce risk; if child contracts disease, then can have developmental delays, small birth weight, failure to thrive; weakens immune system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

gestational diabetes and development

A

high birth weights, jaundice, hypoglycemia, pre-eclampsia, increased likelihood of physical abnormalities; children at risk for diabetes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

rubella and development

A

exposed in first 4-5 weeks, show some abnormality; deafness; cataracts; heart defects; 20% deaths at birth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

stress and development

A

high risk of miscarriage and premature birth; hyperactive; feeding and sleep issues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

maternal age and development

A

-Adolescent: learning and behavior problems.
-Over 35: increased pregnancy risks; greater risk of weighing less than 5.5 lb.; heart malformations; chromosomal disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

psychological problems and development

A

long term and severe depression can lead to slow fetal growth and premature labor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

syphilis and development

A

most harmful during last 26 weeks; eye, ear, and brain deficits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

some changes that happen to the brain in the prenatal stage

A

-Nervous system developed out of the ectoderm in the embryonic period.
-Neural tube closes at top and bottom at 24 days (first part of CNS that develops).
-Anencephaly: develops when the tube fails to close at the top, which results in infant death.
-Spina bifida: when the brain stem doesn’t close at the bottom; can lead to paralysis.
-Neurogenesis: starts at week 5 (forming 200k neurons per minute).
-Neuronal migration: begins in week 6 to form different brain structures; neurons are guided by radial fibers of glial cells to the proper neuroanatomical destination.
-Connectivity begins at the 24th week.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

brain development and infancy

A

major tasks are blooming and pruning
-The brain weighs 25% of what it’s going to weigh as an adult; 75% by age 2.
-Increased myelination (axons are sheathed in a protective layer of lipids and proteins;
facilitates neurotransmission); most completed by age 2, but continues into adolescence (PFC).
-Blooming (synaptogenesis): increase of synaptic connections.
-Pruning: unnecessary and pathways and connections creating during blooming are eliminated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

brain development in adolescence

A

major task is developing executive control.
-Corpus callosum and cerebral cortex thicken; neural pathways become more efficient.
-Emotional centers mature before the executive areas, so the amygdala is done forming but the PFC doesn’t stop until age 25 (can lead to risky behaviors).
-Starting at 17 and continuing into early adulthood, frontal lobe developing more
-increases focus and improves decision making.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

older age and development

A

-Shrinkage: 15% of the volume decreases (dendrite density, grey matter); most change in PFC; slower synaptic speed (increased reaction time).
-Decrease in fluid intelligence; maintenance in crystallized intelligence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

reflexes and motor coordination in infancy

A

reflexes disappear around 6 months due to development of frontal lobes; reflexes include:
-Palmar grasp: place object in palm and baby grasps it to grasp objects.
-Rooting: touch cheek and baby turns to find nipple.
-Sucking: touch roof of mouth and baby sucks to feed.
-Babinski (plantar): touch foot and baby stretches toes to grasp with feet.
-Moro: elicited by startle response; change in elevation and baby stretches out and cries in order to cling to mother.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

month 1 motor skills

A

gross: stepping reflex, lifts head slightly
fine: holds object if placed in hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

months 2-3 motor skills

A

gross: lifts head to 90 degree angle when laying on stomach

fine: begins to swipe at objects in sight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

months 4-6 in motor skills

A

gross: rolls over, sits with support, moves on hands and knees (creeps), holds hear up while in sitting position

fine: reaches for and grasps objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

months 7-9 in motor skills

A

gross: sits without support, crawls

fine: transfers objects from one hand to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

months 10-12 motor skills

A

gross: pulls self up and walks grasping furniture, then walks alone, squats and stoops, plays pat a cake

fine: shows hand preference, grasps spoon across palm, but poor aim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

months 19-24 motor skills

A

gross: stairs, two feet per step, jumps with both feet

fine: use spoon to feed self, stacks 4-10 blocks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

months 13-18 motor skills

A

gross: walks backwards, sideways runs, rolls ball, claps

fine: stacks two blocks, put objects into small container and dumps them out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

old age motor development

A

after age 70, most adults no longer show knee jerk; and by age 90, most reflexes are really slow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Gessell’s maturational view of motor development

A

motor development occurs through an unfolding genetic plan of maturation; purely biological; stepwise development (e.g., sit -> crawl -> walk).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Gibson’s ecological view of motor development

A

development is driven by a complex interaction between
environmental affordances and the motivated humans who perceive them (e.g., different surfaces afford different opportunities for infants to crawl, walk, grasp).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Dynamic model of motor development

A

we are influenced by, and in turn, influence our perceptual-motor world; development is non-linear and movement is not developed in a continuous manner or at a steady state (a small but critical change in one sub-system can cause the whole system to shift, resulting in a new motor behavior).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

natural selection

A

gradual process by which biological traits become either more or less
common in a population as a function of the inherited traits on the differential reproductive successes of organisms interacting with the environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

evolutionary psychology

A

adaptation, reproduction, and survival of the fittest are what are most important in shaping behavior.
-Mate selection based on preserving and optimizing passing on your own genes.
-Reproductive fitness decreases as you age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

fit in evolutionary psychology

A

ability to bear offspring that survive long enough to bear their own offspring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Piaget’s theory

A

disagreed with “blank slate” ideologies; believed that humans actively interact with their world and that these interactions and interpretations of the world change as people mature; we develop schemas about the world based on our experiences.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

according to Piaget, how are the two ways we adapt through the environment

A

assimilation and accommodation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

assimilation (Piaget)

A

when children use existing schemas to deal with new information (i.e., place new information into existing schema).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

accommodation (Piaget)

A

children’s adjustment of their schemas in the face of new information (i.e., existing schema is modified).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what are the four universal stages that humans move through (Piaget)

A

1) sensorimotor
2) pre operational
3) concrete operational
4) formal operational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is the sensorimotor stage (0-2)

A

first stage of development; infants use information from their senses and motor actions to learn about the world.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

object permanence (sensorimotor)

A

(8-12 mo.): recognize that something exists even when out of sight (leads to separation anxiety and stranger anxiety).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

symbolic representation (sensorimotor)

A

use symbols or words to represent objects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

six substages of sensorimotor

A

1) simple reflexes
2) first habits and primary circular reactions
3) secondary circular reactions
4) coordination of secondary circular reactions
5) tertiary circular reactions, novelty and curiosity
6) internalization of schemas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

simple reflexes stage in sensorimotor

A

birth to 1 month

coordination of sensation and action through reflexive behaviors, tied to immediate present, respond to available stimuli

rooting, sucking, grasping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

first habits and primary circular reactions stage (sensorimotor)

A

1 to 4 months

Coordination of sensation and two types of schemes: habits (reflex) and primary circular reactions (reproduction of an event that
initially occurred by chance; simple repetitive actions). Main focus is still on the infant’s body. Coordination b/w looking and listening; reaching and looking; reaching and sucking

Repeating a body sensation first experienced by chance, then repeated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

secondary circular reactions (sensorimotor)

A

4 to 8 months

Infants become more object-oriented, moving beyond self-preoccupation; repeat actions that bring interesting or pleasurable results.

Infant coos to make a person stay near; as
the person starts to leave, the infant coos again.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

coordination of secondary circular reactions (sensorimotor)

A

8 to 12 months

Coordination of vision and touch- hand/eye coordination; coordination of schemes and intentionality. Means-end behavior – ability to keep a goal in mind & devise a plan to achieve it.

Infant manipulates a stick in order to bring an attractive toy within reach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

tertiary circular reactions, novelty and curiosity (sensorimotor)

A

12 to 18 months

Infants become intrigued by the many properties of objects and by the many things they can make happen to objects; they
experiment with new behavior.

A block can be made to fall, spin, hit
another object, and slide across the ground.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

internalization of schemas (sensorimotor)

A

18 to 24 months

Infants develop the ability to use primitive symbols and form enduring mental
representations.

An infant who has never thrown a
temper tantrum before sees a playmate throw one and then throws one himself.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what is the preoperational stage (2-7, Piaget)

A

child begins to represent the world with words and images; words and images reflect increased symbolic thinking and go beyond the connection of sensory information and physical action.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

symbolization (preoperational)

A

go beyond sensorimotor and start to symbolize the world with words, images, and drawings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

egocentrism (preoperational)

A

unable to have empathy or understand others’ viewpoints; looking at things entirely from their point of view (i.e., assuming everyone sees the world like they do).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

magical thinking (preoperational)

A

believe you have control over things you don’t.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

irreversibility (preoperational)

A

unable to realize that an action can be reversed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

centration (preoperational)

A

inability to notice anything beyond a single main detail; thinking of world in terms of one variable at a time.

83
Q

animism (preoperational)

A

inanimate objects have human-like qualities.

84
Q

artificialism (preoperational)

A

natural phenomena are created by humans.

85
Q

what is the concrete operational stage (7-11, Piaget)

A

can think logically about concrete ideas and solve practical problems; construct schemas that enable them to think logically about objects and events in the real world; no abstraction.

86
Q

conservation (concrete operational)

A

able to understand that changing the dimensions of an object don’t change the other dimensions.

87
Q

identity (concrete operational)

A

knowledge that quantities are constant unless matter is added or subtracted.

88
Q

compensation (concrete operational)

A

understanding that all relevant characteristics of the appearance of a given quantity of matter must be taken into account before reaching a conclusion about change.

89
Q

reversibility (concrete operational)

A

capacity to mentally compare the transformed appearance of a given quantity of matter to its original appearance; mentally undo
some kind of physical or mental transformation.

90
Q

inductive logic (concrete operational)

A

type of reasoning in which general principles are inferred from specific experiences.

91
Q

decentration (concrete operational)

A

thinking that takes multiple variables into account.

92
Q

formal operational stage (12+, Piaget)

A

able to reason abstractly; can engage in hypothetical deduction reasoning.

93
Q

adolescent egocentrism (formal operational)

A

preoccupation with self (imaginary audience, personal fable).

94
Q

systematic problem solving (formal operational)

A

process of finding a solution to a problem by testing single factors.

95
Q

general summary of Piaget’s stages

A

sensorimotor: 0-2, connect sensation with physical action

preoperational: 2-7, symbolism

concrete operational: 7-11, mental actions on specific examples

formal operational: 11+, mental actions on abstract examples

96
Q

Vygotsky

A

sociocultural theory; complex forms of thinking have their origins in social interaction rather than in individual exploration; children actively construct new knowledge.

97
Q

zone of proximal development

A

the difference between what a learner can do without help (the actual level of development) and what they can do with help (potential development).

above the zone of proximal development is an area that includes tasks the learned cannot yet complete even with assistance

98
Q

example the importance of peer interaction in learning (Vygotsky)

A

-Learning awakens a variety of internal developmental processes that are able to
operate only when the child is interacting with people in their environment and in
cooperation with peers.

-Interacting with peers as an effective way of developing skills and strategies (suggests that teachers use cooperative learning exercise where less competent children develop with more skillful peers, e.g., reading to an infant).

99
Q

language and learning (Vygotsky)

A

-Child uses language to plan, guide, and monitor behavior.

-Language and thought initially develop independently and then merge.

100
Q

scaffolding (Vygotsky)

A

provide guidance for learning; gain attention, model best strategy, adapt to developmental level.

101
Q

difference between Piaget and Vygotsky

A

Piaget:

Stages of Cognitive Development
Clinical method to understand errors
Individual -> social world
Egocentric speech = self-centered child
Development -> learning
Develop by age

Vygotsky:

Culture and Language of Cognitive Development
No fixed stages
Social world -> individual
Egocentric speech = transition social to inner speech
Learning -> development
Develop by interaction

102
Q

similarities between Piaget and Vygotsky

A

Both Piaget and Vygotsky were constructivist (i.e., cognition the result of “mental construction” and boundaries of cognitive growth are established by social influences.

103
Q

theory of mind

A

develops in early childhood (approx. age 4); understanding that others may have a different perception and experience than us; children begin to develop an awareness of their own mental processes and that of others.

104
Q

metacognition

A

thinking about thinking; development of lying here (approx. age 5).

105
Q

perception across the lifespan

A

declines over time.

106
Q

attention in infancy

A

can fix our attention at birth; sustained attention at 4 mo.; joint attention beginning 6 mo.; 5 minutes at 2 years; 10 minutes at 3 years; 20 minutes for
adolescents.

107
Q

attention in early childhood

A

increase dramatically in Pre-K years; mild childhood starts to use strategies.

108
Q

attention in old age

A

decrease in selective attention, divided attention, and sustained attention.

109
Q

memory in infancy

A

implicit memory at 2 mo.; explicit at 6 mo.

110
Q

memory in early childhood

A

short term memory increased due to rehearsal of info and increased processing speed due to additional brain myelination.

111
Q

memory in old age

A

decrease in episodic and working memory; semantic knowledge and implicit memory preserved.

112
Q

receptive language in infancy

A

infants recognize sounds at birth; phonemes of all different languages but are rewarded for ones with meaning (e.g., mama); motherese speech; child-directed speech (high pitched); know name by 5 mo.

113
Q

expressive language in infancy

A

4 cries (hunger, pain, attention, anger); cooing (vowel sounds) 1-2 months; babbling (repeat sounds) 4-6 mo.; gesturing 8-12 mo.; first words 10-16 mo.; holophrasic (single word + gesture) speech 12-18 mo.; vocab spurt 13-25 mo.; telegraphic speech (simple two-word sentences) 18-24 mo.
-50 words by year 1; 300-400 words by year 2.

114
Q

language in early childhood

A

rapid increase in known words; begin to use prepositions, irregular past tenses, possessives, articles, plural to third person verbs (morphological rules).

14k words by age 5; 40k words by age 11.

115
Q

fast mapping in early childhood

A

ability to categorically link new words to real-word referents.

116
Q

overregulation in early childhood

A

attachment of regular inflections to irregular words such as the substation of “goed” for “went.”

117
Q

phonological awareness in early childhood

A

understanding of the sound patterns of the language they are acquiring (e.g., what is bat without “b”?).

118
Q

temperament

A

innate pattern of responding to people and objects in the environment.

119
Q

Thomas and Chess and temperament

A

developed the 3 temperament styles through a longitudinal study out of NY; 75% of infants fit into three clusters; the remaining infants exhibit combinations of two or three of the main types of temperament.

Also, determined that temperament alone doesn’t determine outcome -> it is goodness of fit between the child and environment.

120
Q

three kinds of temperament

A

easy
difficult
slow to warm up

121
Q

easy temperament

A

40% of people good mood, regular routines, cheerful, easy, calm.

122
Q

difficult temperament

A

10% of people reactive, irregular habits, resistant to change, cry frequently.

123
Q

slow to warm up temperament

A

15% of people

low activity, low intensity of mood, appear nonresponsive to unfamiliar people.

124
Q

Kagan and behavioral inhibition

A

intolerance to uncertainty (i.e., how jumpy you are the environment); tested by reactance to unfamiliar stimuli at 4 mo. -> measured by tenseness, motor activity, and crying; considerably stable through infancy to early childhood.

125
Q

inhibition in Kagan’s model

A

tendency to respond with fear or withdrawal to new people, situations, or objects.

126
Q

negative emotionality in Kagan’s model

A

tendency to respond to frustrating circumstances with anger, fussing, loudness, or irritability.

127
Q

positive emotionality in Kagan’s model

A

tendency to move toward rather than away from new people, situations, or objects.

128
Q

attachment

A

an emotional tie with a specific person that is enduring across time and space and that causes people to seek security and comfort in the relationships with a person; attachment behaviors promote proximity to the caregiver -> increases the likelihood for survival; it is an internal working model/mental representation of self (Am I worthy of care? Will others provide for my care?).

129
Q

stranger anxiety

A

expressions of discomfort (e.g., clinging to mother) in presence of strangers; emerges at 7-8 mo.; depends on temperament, social context, and
characteristics of the stranger.

130
Q

separation anxiety

A

expressions of discomfort (e.g., crying) when separated from an attachment figure; emerges at 8-15 mo.; develops at the same time as object
permanence and is universal across cultures.

131
Q

secure attachment style in Bowlby study

A

(65%): infant readily separates from the parent, seeks proximity when stressed, and uses parent as safe base for exploration; consistent and attuned caregiving.

132
Q

anxious avoidant attachment in Bowlby study

A

(20%): infant avoids contact with the parent and shows no preference for the parent over others; rejecting/neglectful/distancing caregiving; avoidance is how they deal with distance (suppressing emotional displays that may trigger rejection).

133
Q

anxious ambivalent attachment in Bowlby

A

(15%): infant shows little exploratory behavior; is greatly upset when separated by parent and not reassured by their return or comfort; inconsistent/unpredictable caregiving; resistance is infant’s attempt to capture the attention of the caregiver and anger results from frustration of inconsistency.

134
Q

disorganized attachment Bowlby

A

(15%): infant seems confused or apprehensive and shows contradictory behavior (e.g., moving toward the parent while looking away); may have been abused; caregiver uses confusing cues; collapse of any strategy to cope with scary environment.

135
Q

primary emotions

A

(0-6 mo.): surprise, anger, joy, sadness, fear, and disgust.

136
Q

social emotions

A

(6 mo. to 2 yr.): require self-awareness; shame, guilt, pride, jealousy, embarrassment.

137
Q

empathy

A

identify with others and imagine what it must be like to be in their position.

138
Q

development of empathy

A

-First year: global empathy.
-18 mo.: egocentric (e.g., offer mom a blanket when sick).
-2-3 years: for another’s feelings (e.g., getting a friend her favorite toy).
-8-9 years: for another’s life condition (e.g., Johnny at school doesn’t have a winter coat).

139
Q

authoritative parenting

A

high in demandingness and responsiveness

high in nurturance, maturity demands, control, and communication; set standards of mature behavior and expect child to comply; also highly involved, consistent; loving; child is self-reliant, self-controlled, secure, inquisitive; optimal in Western cultures.

140
Q

authoritarian parenting style

A

high in demandingness low in responsiveness
low in nurturance and communication, but high in control and maturity demands (i.e., do what I say because I say so); children tend to become uncooperative, fearful of punishment; optimal in Eastern cultures.

141
Q

indulgent/permissive parenting

A

high in responsiveness low in demandingness

high in nurturance and low in maturity demands, control, and
communication; parent is undemanding, accepting, and child centered; dependent, irresponsible, “spoiled” child.

142
Q

neglectful/uninvolved parenting

A

low in demandingness low in responsiveness

low in nurturance, maturity demands, control, and
communication; parent is indifferent, uninvolved, self-centered; child is

impulsive, moody, lacks long-term goals; can lead to antisocial behavior.

143
Q

Piaget’s theory of moral development

A

moral development based on cognitive development.

144
Q

three stages of Piaget’s moral development

A

premoral
heteromoral
autonomous

145
Q

premoral stage (Piaget)

A

birth to 4 yr.): little concern for rules.

146
Q

heteronormal stage (Piaget)

A

4-7 yr.): developed from parenting interactions; rules are unchangeable and are applied inflexibly; behaviors are judged by the consequences and not the intention (e.g., worse to break 12 cups on accident than 1 cup on purpose); immanent justice (look around worriedly after wrong-doing because they believe punishment is imminent).

147
Q

autonomous stage ({Piaget)

A

by age 10): rules are consistent with your peer group (developed from
peer interaction); rules are agreed upon by people; intent and consequences matter; for punishment, action must be observed.

148
Q

Kohlberg moral development

A

we don’t develop our morals based on cognitive development, but rather our experiences dealing with moral questions and conflict.

149
Q

three levels of moral development (Kohlberg)

A

preconventional

conventional

postconvetional

150
Q

preconventional level (2 stages)

A

External rewards and punishments

Stage 1: Heteronormous self
Preserve self
E.g.,. “I don’t want to get punished”

Stage 2: Individualism, instrumental purpose, and exchange
Self-interest, expected reciprocity
E.g., “I will do the good thing because it will get me something”

151
Q

conventional level (2 stages)

A

External standards (unquestioning)

Stage 3: Mutual interpersonal expectations, relationships, and conformity
Preserve relationships
E.g., “I did it because everyone else is doing it”

Stage 4: Social systems
Preserve social order
E.g., “I did it because everything will break down”

152
Q

postconventional level (2 stages)

A

Explore alternatives, use internal standards

Stage 5: Social contract and individual rights
Preserve individual rights
E.g., “I may not agree but I will die to let you say it,” free speech

Stage 6: Universal ethical principles
Preserve universal rights E.g., climate change

153
Q

self recognition

A

we see ourselves in the mirror at 18 months.

154
Q

self esteem

A

global evaluation of self-worth; peaks in adolescence; lower in females until 70s; negatively related to poor health; moderate correlation with outcomes in school performance.

155
Q

self regulation

A

continued feeling of self-control (i.e., can manage own behavior and delay gratification).

156
Q

identity

A

involves the adoption of sexual orientation, values and ideas, and vocational direction.

157
Q

identity crisis

A

period of identity development during which the adolescent is choosing among meaningful alternatives (i.e., exploring alternatives).

158
Q

identity commitment

A

part of identity development in which adolescents show a personal investment in what they are going to do.

159
Q

diffusion

A

DIFFUSION: no crisis, no commitment identity
confused and uncertain about identity and making no progress towards establishing one; socially isolated,
unmotivated and abuse substances

160
Q

foreclosure

A

FORECLOSURE: no crisis, but commitment identity
precipitously declares identity without exploring options; rigid and authoritarian in attitudes

161
Q

moratorium

A

MORATORIUM: crisis, but no commitment identity
engaged in actively exploring options but have not yet made a commitment; high self-esteem but may have experimented with drugs

162
Q

achievement

A

ACHIEVEMENT: crisis and commitment
successful; explored options and developed coherent sense of identity; socially mature; motivated to achieve

163
Q

person perception

A

refers to the different mental processes that we use to form impressions of other people.

164
Q

friendships in children

A

companionship, stimulation, ego support, social comparison.

165
Q

friendships in adolescence

A

peer pressure; cliques.

166
Q

friendships in early adulthood

A

women share aspects of life; men are competitive.

167
Q

friendships in middle adulthood

A

long-term friendships deepen; grandparenting.

168
Q

friendships in late adulthood

A

choose fewer close friends over new friends.

169
Q

three types of love

A

-Romantic love: passionate love (eros).
-Affectionate love: companionate love.
-Consummate love: passion, intimacy, commitment.

170
Q

stats about marriage

A

60-85% cohabitate before marriage; 33% of first marriages end in divorce before 10 years; 50% end in divorce.

171
Q

stages of families and intergenerational relationships (McGoldrick)

A

launching young adulthood
couple
family with kids
family with adolescents
launching kids, moving on
families later in life

172
Q

explain launching young adulthood stage (McGoldrick)

A

achievement: Single, young adult; separate from family financially and emotionally without cutting off

derailment: Families who don’t let the child achieve independence

173
Q

couple stage (McGoldrick)

A

achievement: Form a new family system
separate from the family of origin

derailment: Enmeshment or distancing; interpersonal difficulty with intimacy and commitment

174
Q

family with kids stage (McGoldrick)

A

achievement: Accepting new members;
caretakers of next generation

derailment: Division of labor; decision making method; balance work and family and obligations and leisure; appropriate boundaries with grandparents

175
Q

family with adolescents stage (McGoldrick)

A

achievement: Increase flexibility of family boundaries to permit child independence and grandparent fragility

derailment: Related to adolescent exploration,
friendships, substance use, sexual activity and school; midlife crisis

176
Q

launching kids moving on stage (McGoldrick)

A

achievement: Adapt to the numerous exits and entries into the family system

derailment: Families hold on to last child or parents become depressed with empty nest;
divorce or adult kids return home

177
Q

families later in life stage (McGoldrick)

A

achievement: Adjustment to aging; accepting shifting generational roles

derailment: Difficult with retirement, financial
insecurity, declining health and illness; dependence on adult kids; loss of loved one

178
Q

death in infancy

A

no cognitive understanding; separation, abandonment, despair, irritability, change in habits; baby needs normal routines, reassurance, and verbal comfort.

179
Q

death in early childhood

A

protounderstanding; death is reversible; magical thinking (e.g., my own actions can reverse death); react with transient emotions; regressive behaviors and repetitive questions; need normal routines, tolerance, and concrete language about death.

180
Q

death in mid to late childhood

A

they have concrete reasoning and understand that death is
irreversible; react with fear, guilt, curiosity, grief, delayed concrete questions, and future acting out behaviors; need their emotions to be identified and validated, they need info provided and do not need adult responsibilities.

181
Q

death in adolescence

A

abstract and philosophical understanding; know that death is irreversible, universal, inevitable; can repress feelings; act out; intellectualize and romanticize death; want to be with their peers; need for you to be available; permission to grieve and impulse control.

182
Q

death in adulthood

A

adult understanding of death; reaction is grief, extreme emotions, questioning belief systems; need to be listened to; ongoing support; practical assistance; need to be monitored for prolonged bereavement.

183
Q

stages of grief

A

1) Denial: shock, refuse to accept.
2) Anger: realization of loss, displacement, resentment.
3) Bargaining: delaying; god, physicians.
4) Depression: acceptance with sense of loss.
5) Acceptance: acceptance with wholeness; peace.

184
Q

stages in Eriksons model

A

infancy
early childhood
play age
school age
adolescence
early adulthood
adulthood
old age

185
Q

infancy stage (Erikson)

A

0-1

TRUST vs. MISTRUST: feeding; hope

186
Q

early childhood stage (Erikson)

A

(1-3): AUTONONMY vs. SHAME and DOUBT; toilet training

187
Q

play age (Erikson)

A

(3-6): INITIATIVE vs. GUILT: exploration and purpose

188
Q

school age (Erikson)

A

(6-12): INDUSTRY vs. INFERIORITY: school and competence

189
Q

adolescence (Erikson)

A

(12-19): IDENTITY vs. ROLE CONFUSION: social, fidelity

190
Q

early adulthood (Erikson)

A

(20-40): INTIMACY vs. ISOLATION: relationships, love

191
Q

adulthood (Erikson)

A

(40-60): GENERATIVITY vs. STAGNATION: work/parenthood; care

192
Q

old age (Erikson)

A

(60+): INTEGRITY vs. DESPAIR: reflection on life, wisdom

193
Q

Bronfrenbrenners model

A

We develop within a complex system of relationships affected by multiple levels of the environment of
which we are at the center.

microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, chronosystem

194
Q

microsystem

A

immediate, face to face interaction (e.g., family, school, peers).

195
Q

mesosystem

A

linkages between two systems; connections between microsystems (e.g.,
parents helping with schoolwork).

196
Q

exosystem

A

social settings that don’t contain the child, but still affect the child (e.g., parent
workplace); indirect influences outside of the microsystem.

197
Q

macrosystem

A

overarching beliefs and values; influence from larger environment (e.g., culture, economy).

198
Q

chronosystem

A

change in systems over time (e.g., birth of sibling, war, changing laws).

199
Q

parenting across cultures

A

East = Authoritarian; Western = Authoritative

200
Q

early childhood in eastern cultures

A

: i.e. Japanese kindergarteners have specific aims (e.g. music) and their preschools have little academic instruction).

201
Q

adolescents in eastern cultures

A

2/3 Asian Indian adolescents are accepted into arranged marriages; in the Philippines girls move to the city to earn money and send back to the family; Middle East: do not interact with the opposite sex; some cultures give peers a stronger role than others.

202
Q

rites of passage

A

ceremony or ritual that marks an individual’s transition from one status to another; avenue through which adolescents gain access to sacred adult practices and knowledge.

203
Q

midlife in some cultures

A

some cultures have no words for young adult or middle-aged it depends on the culture’s view of gender roles and modernity of the culture.

204
Q

late adulthood in some cultures

A

factors associated with whether older adults are accorded a high status include: valuable knowledge; control key family resources; permitted to engage in useful functions.

205
Q

older adults in collectivistic

A

in general, respect for older adults is GREATER in COLLECTIVISITIC cultures who also consider immigration and assimilation/acculturation.

206
Q

gay and lesbian development

A

kids of G and L parents are no more likely to be homosexual than if raised by heterosexual parents; however, the sexual identity of the parent at the time of birth or adoption is imp. when adolescence comes around; more equal distribution of power and labor.