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ACP Board Basics 3 > Dermatology > Flashcards

Dermatology Flashcards

0
Q

Infectious agent associated with pityriasis rosea

A

Herpesvirus 6 or 7

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1
Q

Sexually transmitted infection that can mimic pityriasis rosea

A

Secondary syphilis

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2
Q

Herpes zoster infection involving the first division of the trigeminal nerve, which may include the tip of the nose

A

Zoster ophthalmicus

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4
Q

Vesicles in the ears, diminished taste on the anterior two thirds of the tongue, and ipsilateral facial paralysis

A

Ramsay Hunt syndrome

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5
Q

Treatment for herpes zoster should be given within this number of hours since lesion onset

A

72 hours

antivirals are used for zoster ophthalmicus even if more than 72 hours have elapsed

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6
Q

Treatment for herpes zoster

A

Valacyclovir or famciclovir for 7 days; gabapentin or amitriptyline for neuropathic pain

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7
Q

Skin finding that defines chronic eczema

A

Lichenification (exaggeration of skin markings, with skin thickening, scaling, and abnormal pigmentation)

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8
Q

Treatment for recalcitrant atopic eczema

A

Topical tacrolimus

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9
Q

Emollient that works by increasing water-holding capacity of the skin

A

Urea

Other emollients: petrolatum traps water in the skin; aqueous cream introduces water into the skin

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10
Q

Diagnosis: “acne,” with onset after age 18 years, erythematous lesions involving the central face with telangiectasias, pustules, and papules without comedones

A

Rosacea

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11
Q

Diagnosis: painful, recurrent, chronic, sterile abscesses; sinus tract formation; and scarring of the axillary, inguinal, perianal, and inframammary intertriginous areas

A

Hidradenitis suppurativa

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12
Q

Hallmark of acne

A

Comedones

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13
Q

Treatment for rosacea

A

Metronidazole gel, low-dose oral tetracycline, or erythromycin

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14
Q

Guttate psoriasis often develops after infection with this organism

A

Beta-hemolytic streptococcus

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15
Q

Indications for phototherapy in plaque or guttate psoriasis (3)

A

(1) Involvement of more than 5% of BSA, (2) inadequate response to topical medications, (3) intolerance to systemic therapy

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16
Q

Biologic that improves skin and joint symptoms in psoriasis

A

Etanercept

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17
Q

Erosion of normal-appearing skin by application of sliding pressure

A

Nikolsky sign

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18
Q

Ability to laterally extend bullae by applying gentle pressure

A

Asboe-Hansen sign

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19
Q

Erosion of normal-appearing skin by application of sliding pressure; seen in pemphigus vulgaris

A

Nikolsky sign

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20
Q

Ability to laterally extend bullae by applying gentle pressure; seen in pemphigus vulgaris

A

Asboe-Hansen sign

21
Q

Deposits seen on skin biopsy of patients with pemphigus vulgaris

A

IgA (intercellular deposits at the epidermal surfaces)

22
Q

Malignancies (2) commonly associated with paraneoplastic pemphigus

A

Lymphoma and chronic lymphocytic leukemia

23
Q

Deposits seen on skin biopsy and immunofluorescence of patients with bullous pemphigoid

A

IgG (linear deposits at the basement membrane)

24
Q

Condition associated with dermatitis herpetiformis

A

Celiac disease

25
Q

Diagnosis: vesicles and bullae in sun-exposed areas following minor trauma; urine fluoresces dark orange with Wood lamp

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda

26
Q

Infection commonly associated with porphyria cutanea tarda

A

Hepatitis C

27
Q

Lesions characterized by elevated, flesh-colored or red papules with adherent, whitish scale or “rough spots”; precursor to squamous cell carcinoma

A

Actinic keratosis

28
Q

Preferred treatment for most single lesions of actinic keratosis

A

Liquid nitrogen or curettage

29
Q

A form of anaplastic in situ cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma that presents as circumscribed erythematous or pigmented patches with a keratotic surface

A

Bowen disease

30
Q

A form of rapidly growing cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma that may undergo terminal differentiation and involutes spontaneously within months

A

Keratoacanthoma

31
Q

Most common risk factor for basal cell carcinoma

A

Excessive sun exposure

32
Q

Most common risk factor for basal cell carcinoma

A

Excessive sun exposure

33
Q

Most common form of melanoma

A

Lentigo maligna
(followed by superficial spreading)
* HPIM and Goldman’s - superficial spreading is the most common form (70%)

34
Q

Most common form of melanoma

A

Lentigo maligna
(followed by superficial spreading)
* HPIM, Goldman’s and UpToDate - superficial spreading is the most common form (70%)

35
Q

Most common form of melanoma

A

Lentigo maligna
(followed by superficial spreading)
* HPIM, Goldman’s and UpToDate - superficial spreading is the most common form (70%)

36
Q

Most common form of melanoma

A

Lentigo maligna
(followed by superficial spreading)
* HPIM, Goldman’s and UpToDate - superficial spreading is the most common form (70%)

37
Q

Sentinel lymph node biopsy is indicated for melanomas of this thickness

A

> 1 mm thick

38
Q

Adjuvant therapy for lymph-node positive melanoma

A

Interferon

39
Q

Adjuvant therapy for lymph-node positive melanoma

A

Interferon

40
Q

Most common inciting factor for erythema multiforme

A

Recurrent HSV infection

41
Q

Systemic disease that should be considered in patients with severe or recalcitrant seborrheic dermatitis or abrupt onset of severe psoriasis

A

HIV infection

42
Q

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, erythema nodosum, and lower extremity arthralgia

A

Löfgren syndrome

43
Q

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, erythema nodosum, and lower extremity arthralgia

A

Löfgren syndrome

* HPIM - erythema nodosum, hilar adenopathy on CXR, and uveitis

44
Q

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, erythema nodosum, and lower extremity arthralgia

A

Löfgren syndrome

* HPIM - erythema nodosum, hilar adenopathy on CXR, and uveitis

45
Q

Malignancy associated with acanthosis nigricans

A

Gastric cancer

46
Q

Diagnosis: pinch purpura, macroglossia, and waxy skin

A

Amyloidosis

47
Q

Malignancy associated with necrolytic migratory erythema

A

Glucagonoma

48
Q

Malignancy associated with keratoderma of the palms and soles

A

Squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus

ACP Board Basics 3 (10 decks)

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