Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Medicine Finals > Dermatology > Flashcards

Dermatology Flashcards

1
Q

How does rosacea present?

A

Flushing of the forehead, nose and cheeks
Telangiectasia
May be papules and pustules

Can progress to rhinophyma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is mild rosacea?

A

Erythema or telangiectasia only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is mild rosacea managed?

A

Lifestyle changes eg avoid sun, wear sunscreen, avoid exercise, avoid alcohol

If erythema only and no telangiectasia - topical Brimonidine gel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is moderate rosacea?

A

Limited papules and pastules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is moderate rosacea managed?

A

Topical metronidazole

Also topical azelaic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is severe rosacea?

A

Extensive papules and pustules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is severe rosacea managed?

A

Oral antibiotics e.g. oxytetracycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How can telangiectasia be managed in rosacea?

A

Laser therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the stepwise approach to managing acne?

A

1) topical treatment e.g. benzoyl peroxide/retinoid/salicylic acid/azelaic acid
2) combination topical treatment
3) topical antibiotic - usually a tetracycline/erythromycin
4) oral antibiotics - usually a tetracycline (e.g. doxycycline) unless pregnant/breastfeeding/under 12
5) oral COCP in women
6) oral isotretinoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What needs to be co-prescribed with an oral antibiotic in acne?

A

A topical benzoyl peroxide/retinoid to reduce chance of antibiotic resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which antibiotic is most commonly used in acne?

A

A tetracycline e.g. doxycycline, oxytetracycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where does eczema most commonly affect?

A

In infants - cheeks

In older children and adults - flexures SYMMETRICAL!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the first line management for eczema?

A

Emollients

Mild eczema/eczema on face - mild topical steroid

Moderate to severe eczema - moderately potent or potent topical steroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is an example of a mild topical steroid?

A

0.1% Hydrocortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are examples of moderate potency topical corticosteroids?

A

Betamethasone 0.025% or Clobetsone 0.05%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are examples of potent topical steroids?

A

Fluticasone 0.05%

Betamethasone 0.1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is an example of a very potent topical steroid?

A

Clobetasol 0.05%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is allergic contact dermatitis?

A

Type IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does psoriasis present?

A

Well defined red scaly patches on the skin
Elevated plaques
Overlaying white/silver scale
Symmetrical distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are nail changes seen in psoriasis?

A

Pitting

Oncholysis (lifting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the stepwise management of psoriasis in primary care?

A

1) topical potent corticosteroid + vitamin D analogue (both once daily)
2) vitamin D analogue twice a day
3) topical potent corticosteroid twice a day or coal tar preparation twice a day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How can psoriasis be managed in secondary care?

A

Ultraviolet B phototherapy

Immunosuppressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the first line immunosuppressant in psoriasis?

A

Methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How is scalp psoriasis managed?

A

Potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How is psoriasis on the face/flexures/genitals managed?

A

Mild to moderate potency corticosteroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are non dermatological causes of pruritus?

A 
Liver disease
Iron deficiency anaemia
Chronic kidney disease 
Polycythaemia
Lymphoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is dermatitis hepatiformis?

A

Itchy vesicular lesions on extensor surfaces - knees, elbows, buttocks

Associated w/ coeliac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which dermatological condition is associated with coeliac disease?

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the treatment for dermatitis herpetiformis?

A

Gluten free diet

Dapsone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which medications exacerbate psoriasis?

A

Beta blockers

Lithium

Antimalarials

NSAIDs

ACE inhibitors

Alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is eczema herpeticum and how does it present?

A

Viral infection that usually presents in children with atopic eczema

Rapidly worsening, painful eczema with clustered blisters.

May be assocated fever and systemic illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which virus causes eczema herpeticum?

A

HSV1/HSV2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How is eczema herpeticum treated?

A

Aciclovir - oral or IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is erythema multiforme?

A

A hypersensitivity reaction usually triggered by infection (usually HSV or Mycoplasma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which infections most commonly trigger erythema multiforme?

A

HSV

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How does erythema multiforme present?

A

Target lesions

Sharply demarcated lesions

Initially on back of hands and feet, then also on torso

Hypersensitivity reaction most commonly caused by HSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How is erythema multiforme treated?

A

No treatment needed - self limiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is erythema nodosum?

A

An inflammatory disorder of the subcutaneous fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How does erythema nodosum present?

A

Bilateral tender erythematous modular lesions usually on the shins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are causes of erythema nodosum?

A

Associated with IBD, TB, sarcoidosis, pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How is erythema nodosum treated?

A

Self-limiting

Can give NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is erythroderma?

A

More than 95% of the skin is involved in a rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are complications of erythroderma?

A

Hypothermia

Dehydration (fluid loss)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How does pityriasis rosea present?

A
  1. Starts with a ‘Herald patch’ on trunk

2. Then scaly patches all over body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How is pityriasis rosea treated?

A

Self limiting - resolves in 6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which rash starts with a herald patch and then goes on to a fir tree rash?

A

Pityriasis rosea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is guttate psoriasis?

A

A rash precipitated by a streptococcal infection (usually 2-4 weeks before)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How does guttate psoriasis present?

A

Scaly tear drop papules on the trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How is guttate psoriasis managed?

A

Usually resolves spontaneously within 2-3 months

Can use topical psoriasis agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is pityriasis versicolour?

A

Cutaneous fungal infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which fungus causes pityriasis versicolour?

A

Melassezia furfur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How does pityriasis versicolour present?

A

Hypopigmentation patches on the skin
Scaly
May be itchy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How is pityriasis versicolour treated?

A

Ketoconazole shampoo

54
Q

What is a pyogenic granuloma?

A

A red/brown spot which rapidly progresses to a raised lesion
May bleed
Often caused by trauma

55
Q

How can a strawberry naevus be treated?

A

Topical timolol (beta blocker)

56
Q

What is pyoderma gangreosum?

A

Rapidly enlarging painful ulcer

57
Q

What is pyoderma gangreosum associated with?

A

IND
RA
SLE
Myeloproliferative disorders

58
Q

How is pyoderma gangrenosum managed?

A

Oral steroids

59
Q

What causes seborrhoeic dermatitis?

A

Melassezia furfur

60
Q

Which areas does seborrhoiec dermatitis affect?

A

Scalp
Auricular folds
Nasolabial folds

61
Q

What conditions is seborrhoeic dermatitis associated with?

A

Parkinson’s

HIV

62
Q

How is seborrhoeic dermatitis on the scalp treated?

A
  1. OTC head and shoulders/t gel

2. Ketoconazole shampoo

63
Q

How is seborrhoeic dermatitis on the face/body managed?

A

Topical Ketoconazole

64
Q

What is actinic keratosis/solar keratosis?

A

Crusty scaly lesions which occur due to sun exposure

65
Q

Which type of skin cancer can actinic keratosis progress to?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

66
Q

How is actinic keratosis managed?

A

Fluorouracil cream or or Imiquimod

67
Q

What is seborrhoeic keratosis?

A

Melanocytic lesion usually in older people

No treatment needed

68
Q

Which sign is seen in alopecia areata?

A

Exclamation mark hair

69
Q

How to distinguish bulbous pemphigoid and pemphigus vulgaris?

A

Bullous pemphigoid = itchy bullae which do not affect the mucosa

Pemphigus vulgaris = non itchy, painful blisters which can affect the mucosa

70
Q

Which condition is associated with bullous pemphigoid?

A

Parkinson’s

71
Q

How are bullous pemphigoid and pemphigus vulgaris treated?

A

Oral steroids

72
Q

What are stevens johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis?

A

Systemic reactions almost always due to drug reactions

73
Q

Which drugs cause SJS/TEN?

A

Never Press Skin As It Can Peel (NIkovsky’s Sign)

NSAIDs
Phenytoin
Sulphonamides
Allopurinol/Anti-epileptics
IV Ig
COCP
Penicillin
74
Q

How does stevens johnson syndrome present?

A

Well demarcated maculopapular rash
Target lesions
Systemic features

75
Q

How does TEN present?

A

Scalded appearance

76
Q

How is TEN treated?

A

Supportive care

IV Immunoglobulins

77
Q

What are the two main causative organisms for cellulitis?

A

Strep pyogenes

Staph aureus

78
Q

What is first line treatment for mild to moderate cellulitis?

A

Flucloxacillin (clarithromycin if penicillin allergic)

79
Q

How is severe cellulitis treated?

A

co-amoxiclav/cefuroxime/Ceftriaxone

80
Q

When should you admit someone with cellulitis?

A

If they are:

Under 1 year

Frail

Significant systemic upset - tachycardia/tachypnoea/hypotension

Sepsis

Necrotising fasciitis

Immunocompromised

Facial cellulitis

81
Q

What is the difference between cellulitis and necrotising fasciitis?

A

Necrotising fasciitis = pain out of keeping with physical features
Necrosis
Purple rash

Most common = Fournier’s gangrene (perineum)

82
Q

What is the main risk factor for necrotising fasciitis?

A

Diabetes

Especially those treated with -gliflozin drugs

83
Q

Which organism causes staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?

A

Staph aureus

84
Q

How is staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome managed?

A

IV flucloxacillin

85
Q

Which conditions cause Acanthosis nigricans?

A 
T2DM
GI cancer
Obesity
PCOS
Acromegaly
Cushing’s
86
Q

What are the four levels of burn and how do they present?

A
  1. Superficial epidermal - red and painful
  2. Superficial dermal - may be blistered
  3. Deep dermal - white
  4. Full thickness - white/necrosis, no pain
87
Q

When do you admit for burns?

A

All deep dermal/full thickness burns

Superficial deems if they are more than 3% TSBA (2% in children)

88
Q

Which patients with burns need IV fluids?

A

Adults - deep dermal/full thickness more than 15%

Children - any burn more than 10%

89
Q

What does antivirals in shingles prevent?

A

Post herpetic neuralgia

90
Q

Which is the most common skin cancer?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

91
Q

How does basal cell carcinoma present ?

A

Pearly, flesh coloured papule
Telangiectasia
May ulcerate

92
Q

What are risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Actinic keratosis
Bowen’s disease
Immunosuppressed
Smoking

93
Q

How does squamous cell carcinoma present?

A

Usually a small module which enlarged then ulcerates

Usually presents as a non healing ulcer

94
Q

How is a squamous cell carcinoma diagnosed?

A

Incisional (punch) biopsy

95
Q

How is squamous cell carcinoma managed?

A

Excisional biopsy

If less than 20mm - 4mm margins
If more than 20mm - 6mm margins

96
Q

How does bowens disease present ?

A

Slow growing Red scaly patches in sun exposed areas

97
Q

How is bowens disease managed?

A

Topical 5-fluorouracil
2 times a day for 4 weeks

Cryotherapy

98
Q

What is the most common type of malignant melanoma?

A

Superficial spreading

99
Q

Which is the most aggressive type of malignant melanoma?

A

Nodular

100
Q

What is the major criteria for malignant melanoma?

A

Change in shape
Change in size
Change in colour

101
Q

Which type of malignant melanoma is most likely to bleed/ooze?

A

Nodular

102
Q

What is the minor criteria for malignant melanoma?

A

Diameter > 7mm
Inflammation
Oozing/bleeding
Altered sensation

103
Q

How is a suspicious malignant melanoma managed?

A

Full thickness excisional biopsy

104
Q

What is the most important prognostic factor for malignant melanoma?

A

Thickness (depth) of lesion (Breslow thickness)

105
Q

What margins are needed for squamous cell carcinoma?

A

If lesion is less than 20mm – 4mm margins

If lesion is more than 20mm – 6mm margins

106
Q

How does Lichen plans present?

A

Itchy, papular rash on palms/soles/genitalia - purple in colour

Wickham’s striae (white line pattern)
Koebner phenomenon (new lesions at the site of trauma)
Oral involvement

107
Q

How is lichen plansus managed?

A

Potent topical corticosteroids

108
Q

How does tinea present?

A

Erythematous, scaly, well demarcated lesion with a pale centre

109
Q

How is ringworm treated?

A

Clotrimazole/miconazole/fluconazole (topical)

110
Q

How is a fungal nail infection treated?

A

If singular nail can use Amorolfine nail lacquer

Otherwise - oral terbinafine

111
Q

How does molloscum contagiousum present?

A

Flesh coloured papule with a central dimple

112
Q

How is molluscum contagiousum managed?

A

No treatment required

113
Q

What is Athlete’s foot and how does it present?

A

Tina infection (tinea pedis)

Scaling/flaking/itchy between toes

114
Q

How is Athlete’s foot treated?

A

Topical antifungal

115
Q

What is the first line for hyperhidrosis?

A

Aluminium chloride

116
Q

Which type of melanoma can affect areas not exposed to the sun?

A

Acral lentiginous melanoma

117
Q

What is Nikolsky’s sign?

A

Seen in SJS/TEN

Skin peels when it is touched

118
Q

Spider naevi vs. telangiectasia?

A

Spider naevi fill from the centre

Telangiectasia fill from the edge

119
Q

What are causes of spider naevi?

A

Liver disease
Pregnancy
COCP

120
Q

Rosacea vs. malar rash in SLE?

A

SLE – spares nose

121
Q

What are the 4 types of psoriasis?

A

Plaque psoriasis
Flexural psoriasis
Guttate psoriasis
Pustular psoriasis

122
Q

Where are keloid scars most common?

A

Sternum

123
Q

In which conditions is the Koebner phenomenon seen in?

A

Koebner phenomenon = new lesions at site of trauma

  • psoriasis
  • vitiligo
  • warts
  • lichen planus
  • lichen sclerosus
  • molluscum contagiosum
124
Q

Which drugs cause gynaecomastia?

A 
Spironolactone
Ketoconazole
Isoniazid
Methyldopa
Verapamil
125
Q

How can you tell the difference between pyogenic granuloma and amelanocytic melanoma?

A

Pyogenic granuloma = Trauma

126
Q

How does scabies present?

A

Widespread pruritus
Linear burrows on sides of fingers/between fngers
Track marks between finger webs

127
Q

How is scabies managed?

A

Permethrin cream

If crusted/difficult to treat = oral ivermectin

128
Q

What can help with itching in scabies?

A

Crotamiton cream

129
Q

When can children with impetigo return to school?

A

48 hours after commencing treatment or once all lesions have crusted

130
Q

What is hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia?

A

Autosomal dominant condition

1) Epistaxis
2) Telangiectasia- esp over mucuous membranes
3) Visceral lesions
4) Family history

131
Q

Which pregnancy rash spares the umbilicus?

A

Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy

132
Q

Which pregnancy rash has fluid filled blisters around the umbilicus?

A

Pemphigoid gestationitis

Medicine Finals (32 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions