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Clin Med II > Derm General > Flashcards

Derm General Flashcards

1
Q

What is the bacteria involved in acne?

A

Propionibacterium acnes

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2
Q

What are open comodones?

A

blackheads

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3
Q

What are closed comodones?

A

whiteheads

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4
Q

What is the most mild form of acne?

A

comodonal

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5
Q

What is the worst type of acne?

A

nosulocystic

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6
Q

What are the 3 phases of the hair growth cycle?

A

anagen-growth
catagen-transitional
telogen-resting

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7
Q

How many hairs are normally lost in a day?

A

100

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8
Q

What is alopecia totalis?

A

complete loss of scalp hair

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9
Q

What is alopecia universalis?

A

loss of scalp and body hair

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10
Q

What does pityriasis mean?

A

small scaley patch

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11
Q

MRSA RF

A 
Penetrating Trauma
IVDA
Abscess/Purulent Drainage
History of MRSA
Proximity to Others with MRSA   Antibiotic Use
Hospitalization
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12
Q

Describe the epidermis

A

outermost layer; water barrier, mechanical and UV protection, and immune surveillance

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13
Q

Describe the dermis

A

middle layer; provides mechanical protection and immune function.

  1. Papillary dermis
  2. Reticular dermis
  3. Adnexal structures
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14
Q

Describe the subcutis (hypodermis)

A

bottom layer; mechanical protection

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15
Q

What is the MC site of tumors?

A

skin

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16
Q

Define macule

A

flat, smaller than 2 cm (e.g., freckle)

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17
Q

Define patch

A

similar to macule but larger (e.g.,

childhood rash caused by measles)

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18
Q

Define papule

A

slightly elevated, smaller than 1 cm

e.g., eczema caused by allergy

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19
Q

Define nodule

A

similar to papule but greater than 1

cm (e.g., nevus)

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20
Q

Define tumor

A

nodule greater than 5 cm (e.g.,

melanoma)

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21
Q

Define vesicle

A

fluid-filled elevation of epidermis, smaller than 1 cm (e.g., herpesvirus lesion on the lip)

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22
Q

Define bulla

A

vesicle measuring more than 1 cm (e.g., burns)

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23
Q

Define pustule

A

vesicle filled with pus (e.g., impetigo)

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24
Q

Define ulcer

A

defect of epidermis (e.g., syphilitic chancre)

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25
Q

Define crust

A

skin defect covered with coagulated plasma (“scab”; e.g., healing wound)

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26
Q

Define scales

A

keratin layers covering skin as flakes or sheets; can be scraped away (e.g., seborrheic keratosis, psoriasis)

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27
Q

Define squames

A

large scales (e.g., as in ichthyosis)

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28
Q

Define excoriation

A

superficial skin defect caused by

scratching

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29
Q

Define fissure

A

sharp-edged defect extending

deeper into dermis (e.g., athlete’s foot)

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30
Q

Define Hyperkeratosis

A

Thickening of stratum corneum by abnormal keratin

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31
Q

Define Parakeratosis

A

Retention of nuclei in stratum corneum. Normal in mucous membranes

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32
Q

Define Hypergranulosis

A

Hyperplasia of stratum granulosum, usually caused by intense rubbing

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33
Q

Define acanthosis

A

Diffuse epidermal hyperplasia

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34
Q

Define papillomatosis

A

Hyperplasia and enlargement of contiguous dermal papillae

leading to surface elevation

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35
Q

Define dyskeratosis

A

abnormal keratinization occurring prematurely in cells below stratum granulosum

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36
Q

Define acantholysis

A

Loss of intercellular connections causing loss of cohesion between keratinocytes

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37
Q

Define spongiosis

A

Epidermal intercellular edema

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38
Q

Define orthokeratosis

A

thickened keratin without nucleus

39
Q

Define first degree burn

A

Erythema, swelling; transitory, reversible

40
Q

Define second degree burn

A

Blisters involving epidermis; hair follicles, adnexa

in dermis spared

41
Q

Define third degree burn

A

Full-thickness burns; massive necrosis of

epidermis and parts of dermis, subcutis; cannot heal spontaneously

42
Q

Define acne vulgaris

A

Infiltration and destruction of follicular epithelium by neutrophilic exudate

43
Q

Define freckle

A

flat macule; responds to sunlight

44
Q

Define lentigo

A

macule or papule; pigmented but

does not respond to sun

45
Q

Define nevus

A

congenital or acquired
pigmentation in form of macule or papule or
even nodule

46
Q

What is Breslow’s method?

A

measure from the granular layer of the epidermis to the deepest part oft he tumor

47
Q

what is the most important prognostic factor of survival in MM?

A

tumor thickness
1mm low risk
>1mm higher risk

48
Q

Define onychogryphosis

A

hypertrophic nail , related to trauma

49
Q

Define koilonychia

A

thin and spoon nail, seen in iron deficiency anemia

50
Q

Define onochomycosis

A

thicken, discolor, disfigure, and split nail, related to fungal infection.

51
Q

Define paronychia

A

soft tissue infection, pus formation around a fingernail

52
Q

How many eggs does an adult female head louse lay per day?

A

7-10/day

can lay 300 in a lifetime

53
Q

Describe immediate drug induced skin reaction

A

occur less than 1 hour of the last administered dose.

Type I hypersensitivities: Urticaria (within 1 hr), angioedema (leaky blood vessels), anaphylaxis

54
Q

Describe delayed drug induced skin reaction

A

IgE mast cell mediated occurring after one hour, but usually more than 6 hrs and occasionally weeks to months after the start of administration

55
Q

What are examples of delayed drug induced skin reactions

A

Exanthematous eruptions
Fixed drug eruption
Systemic reactions (DIHS, SJS, TEN)

56
Q

What drugs cause mast cell activation?

A

vancomycin

narcotics

57
Q

What is the exception to the limited value of allergy testing for cutaneous reactions?

A

penicillin-want to skin test to evaluate type I, IgE mediated penicillin allergy

58
Q

What is the most important data in determining if a rash is medication-related?

A

timing

59
Q

Fitzpatrick I

A

White; very fair; red or blonde hair; blue eyes; freckles

Always burns, never tans

60
Q

Fitzpatrick II

A

White; fair; red or blonde hair; blue, hazel, or green eyes

Usually burns, tans with difficulty

61
Q

Fitzpatrick III

A

Cream white; fair with any eye or hair color; very common

Sometimes mild burn, gradually tans

62
Q

Fitzpatrick IV

A

Brown; typically Mediterranean skin

Rarely burns, tans with ease

63
Q

Fitzpatrick V

A

Dark brown; Middle-Eastern skin types

Very rarely burns, tans very easily

64
Q

Fitzpatrick VI

A

Black

Never burns, tans very easily

65
Q

How does narrow band UVB work?

A

focused wavelengths of 311-312 destroy immune cells that are attacking melanocytes
stimulates cytokine/GF release

66
Q

How does PUVA work?

A

plant based chemical makes susceptible to UV radiation and uses UVA (less effective than UVB)

67
Q

Etiology of folliculitis

A

Staph aureus

Gram ⊖
Pseudomonas aeruginosa (hot tub folliculitis)
Klebsiella, enterobacrer, Proteus

68
Q

Etiology of paryonchia

A

S. aureus

69
Q

Etiology of Impetigo

A

Staphlococcus aureus

Group A β-hemolytic Strep

70
Q

Etiology of erysipleas

A

GAS

Staph aureus, Haemophilus

71
Q

Cellulitis general etiology

A

Adults & Children-GAS, Staph aureus, MRSA

72
Q

Facial & periorbital

A

H. influenzae

73
Q

cellulitis etiology 2° dog & cat bites

A

Pasturella multocida

74
Q

cellulitis etiology IVDA

A

S. aureus

75
Q

Crepiant cellulitis etiology

A

Clostridia

76
Q

Penetrating trauma, immunicomp cellulitis etiology

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

77
Q

Phthirus pubis

A

crab lice

78
Q

Pediculus humanus capitis

A

Head Lice

79
Q

Pediculus humanus corporiss

A

body lice

80
Q

Sarcoptes scabiei

A

Scabies

81
Q

Cimex lectulrius

A

Bed bugs

82
Q

Lo xosceles reclusa

A

Brown Recluse Spider

83
Q

MC etiology of Tinea corporis?

A

T. rubrum

84
Q

What should you tell a pateint with rosacea to avoid?

A

Spicy food, alcohol, extreme temperatures, caffeine

85
Q

Etiology of Tinea versicolor

A

Malassezia yeast

86
Q

What is the MC cutaneous drug eruption?

A

Exanthematous

87
Q

What is ⊕Nikolsky’s sign

A

epidermis sheds off with lateral pressure

88
Q

What drugs can cause SJS/TENS?

A 
Sulfa  abx (Bactrim)
Allopurinol
Tetracyclines
Anticonvulsants (carbamazepine, lamotrigine, phenobarbital, phenytoin)
NSAIDS
Nevirapine
Thiacetazone
89
Q

What drugs can cause fixed drug eruption?

A 
Phenolpphthalen
Tetracyclines
Metronidazole
Sulfonamides
Barbiturates
NSAIDs
Salicyates
Yellow food coloring
90
Q

Etiology of necrotizing fascitis

A

Clostridium

91
Q

Etiology of Fournier Gangrene

A

E.coli

Bacteroides

92
Q

Etiology of purpura fulminans

A

Neisseria menigitis

93
Q

If there are >6 cafè au lait spots what do you need to do?

A

special considerations → check for tuberous sclerosis, neurofibramatosis, albright syndrome, fanconi anemia **

Clin Med II (19 decks)

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