Departure (RED BOOK) Flashcards
What is the responsibility of the pilot-in-command (PIC)?
The PIC is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of the aircraft.
Who shares the responsibility of the PIC?
No one else shares in that responsibility, including the aircraft owner, FBO, or ATC.
What are the right-of-way rules for IFR flights?
When weather conditions permit, vigilance must be maintained to see and avoid other aircraft.
What must be reported for equipment malfunction under IFR in controlled airspace?
You must report any loss of VOR, TACAN, ADF, GPS anomalies, loss of ILS capability, air/ground communication impairment, or any equipment loss that may impair safety.
How can your IFR clearance be obtained at airports with an ATC tower?
Clearances may be received from ground control or a specific clearance delivery frequency when available.
What should pilots do for IFR clearances off uncontrolled airports?
Consult the Chart Supplement U.S. for the frequency or telephone number for clearance delivery.
What does ‘cleared as filed’ mean?
ATC issues an abbreviated IFR clearance based on the filed route with little or no revision.
What items are included in an abbreviated IFR clearance?
Clearance Limit, Route, Altitude, Frequency, and Transponder code.
What does ‘clearance void time’ mean?
If a flight has not departed by a specific time, the clearance is void, and the pilot must notify ATC of intentions.
What is the purpose of ‘hold for release’ in an IFR clearance?
It delays an aircraft’s departure for traffic management reasons until a release time is received from ATC.
What are the takeoff minimums for IFR under 14 CFR Part 91?
For Part 91, there are no minimums required.
What are the takeoff minimums for aircraft under 14 CFR Parts 121, 125, 129, or 135?
1 statute mile visibility for two engines or less, and ½ statute mile visibility for more than two engines.
What is considered ‘good operating practice’ for takeoff minimums?
Ensure weather is no less than the lowest published minimums for any approach at departure time.
What strategies can mitigate risk during takeoff in low IMC?
Use personal minimums, assess obstacles, check published takeoff minimums, and consider delaying departure.
What are Departure Procedures (DPs)?
Preplanned IFR procedures that provide obstruction clearance from the terminal area to the enroute structure.
What are the two types of DPs?
Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs) and Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs).
What are ODPs?
Procedures providing obstruction clearance via the least onerous route from the terminal area.
What are SIDs?
ATC procedures printed for pilot/controller use to provide obstruction clearance and transition to enroute structure.
What are the two types of SIDs?
Pilot navigation SIDs and Radar Vector SIDs.
What criteria are used to provide obstruction clearance during departure?
Pilot must cross the runway end at least 35 feet above, climb to 400 feet before turning, and maintain a minimum climb gradient.
What is a diverse vector area (DVA)?
Areas where ATC may provide random radar vectors during an uninterrupted climb from the departure runway.
Where are DPs located?
Listed by airport in the IFR Takeoff Minimums and (Obstacle) Departure Procedures section of the TPPs.
What does ‘Climb via SID’ mean?
Requires compliance with the procedure’s lateral path, speed, and altitude restrictions along the cleared route.
How to determine if takeoff minimums are non-standard?
Look for a ‘triangle T’ symbol on the instrument procedure chart.
What information should be considered for terrain and obstacle clearance?
Type of terrain, availability of ODP, visual obstacle avoidance, and actions for engine loss.
Are pilots required to follow an ODP if published?
No, compliance with an ODP is the pilot’s choice unless specifically cleared by ATC.
What significance does a climb gradient over 200 feet per nautical mile have?
It may indicate the need for a SID or a specific departure route if obstacles are present.
How is rate-of-climb in fpnm found on ODPs calculated?
It is based on groundspeed; to convert to fpm, use the formula: Ground speed divided by 60 minutes times climb gradient.
What is the recommended climb rate procedure when issued a climb to an assigned altitude?
Initiate climb promptly, then climb at a rate of 500 to 1,500 fpm until the assigned altitude is reached.
What do RNAV 1 and RNP 1 procedures require?
Maintain a total system error of not more than 1 NM for 95 percent of the total flight time.
What is the Visual Climb Over Airport (VCOA) procedure?
A departure option for IFR aircraft to visually conduct climbing turns over the airport to the published altitude.
What happens if ATC vectors you off an ODP?
The ODP is canceled, and the pilot is responsible for terrain and obstacle clearance.
What are VCOA procedures developed for?
VCOA procedures are developed to avoid obstacles greater than 3 statute miles from the departure end of the runway as an alternative to complying with climb gradients greater than 200 feet per nautical mile.
Where are VCOA textual procedures published?
VCOA textual procedures are published in the ‘Takeoff Minimums and (Obstacle) Departure Procedures’ section of the Terminal Procedures Publications and/or appear as an option on a Graphic ODP.
What happens if ATC vectors you off of an ODP?
If ATC vectors you off of an ODP, the ODP is canceled, and ATC assumes responsibility for terrain and obstacle clearance.
What are the methods for checking the accuracy of VOR equipment?
- VOR test signal (VOT) check: ±4°; 2. Radio repair station test signal: ±4°; 3. VOR ground checkpoint at departure airport: ±4°; 4. VOR airborne checkpoint: ±6°; 5. Airborne over prominent landmark along centerline of established VOR airway (more than 20 NM from VOR): ±6°; 6. Dual VOR system check: maximum permissible variation is 4°.
What records must be kept concerning VOR checks?
Each person making a VOR check shall enter the date, place and bearing error, and sign the aircraft log or other reliable record.
Where can a pilot find the location of airborne checkpoints, ground checkpoints and VOT testing stations?
Locations of airborne checkpoints, ground checkpoints, and VOTs are published in the Chart Supplement U.S.
What procedure is used when checking VOR receiver accuracy with a VOT?
Tune in the VOT frequency of 108.0 MHz. With CDI centered, the OBS should read 0 degrees with TO/FROM indication showing FROM or the OBS should read 180 degrees with the TO/FROM indication showing TO.
Where is Mode C transponder and ADS-B Out equipment required?
In Class A, Class B, or Class C airspace areas; above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of Class B or Class C airspace up to 10,000 feet MSL; Class E airspace at and above 10,000 feet MSL within the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL; within 30 miles of a Class B airspace primary airport, below 10,000 feet MSL; for ADS-B Out: Class E airspace at and above 3,000 feet MSL over the Gulf of Mexico; all aircraft flying into, within or across the contiguous United States ADIZ.
What are the transponder codes?
1200 — VFR; 7700 — Emergency; 7600 — Communications Emergency; 7500 — Hijacking in progress.
What should a pilot do in the event of a two-way communications failure?
Adjust the transponder to reply on Mode A/3, Code 7600. The ADS-B message element and transponder code will alert ATC that the aircraft is experiencing emergency conditions.
Does an incorrect altimeter setting affect Mode C/S transponder and ADS-B Out altitude information?
An incorrect altimeter setting has no effect on the transmitted altitude information, but it will cause the aircraft to fly at a true altitude different from the assigned altitude.
What is TIS-B and FIS-B for aircraft equipped with ADS-B In?
TIS-B (Traffic Information Services–Broadcast) provides ADS-B In-equipped aircraft with traffic information. FIS-B (Flight Information Service–Broadcast) provides aviation weather and aeronautical information for advisory-only use.
Where can a pilot find information concerning facilities available for a particular airport?
The Chart Supplement U.S. contains data on airports, seaplane bases, heliports, NAVAIDs, communications data, weather data sources, airspace, special notices, and operational procedures.
What do the acronyms ALSF-1, SSALF, MALSR, REIL, MIRL, and PAPI stand for?
ALSF-1—Approach Light System with Sequenced Flashing Lights; SSALF—Simplified Short Approach Light System with Sequenced Flashing Lights; MALSR—Medium Intensity Approach Light System with Runway Alignment Indicator Lights; REIL—Runway End Identifier Lights; MIRL—Medium Intensity Runway Lighting; PAPI—Precision Approach Path Indicator System.
What color are runway edge lights?
Runway edge lights are white, except on instrument runways where yellow replaces white on the last 2,000 feet or half the runway length.
What colors are standard airport rotating beacons?
Lighted Land Airport—White/Green; Lighted Water Airport—White/Yellow; Military Airport—2 White/Green.
What does the operation of a rotating beacon at an airport within Class D airspace during daylight hours indicate?
It often indicates that the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.
Where would information concerning runway lengths, widths, and weight bearing capacities be found?
The Chart Supplement U.S. has this information.
What are runway touchdown zone markings?
Touchdown zone markings identify the touchdown zone for landing operations and are coded to provide distance information in 500-foot increments.
What is the purpose of runway aiming point markings?
Runway aiming point markings serve as a visual aiming point for a landing aircraft.
How far down a runway does the touchdown zone extend?
The touchdown zone is the first 3,000 feet of the runway beginning at the threshold.
How can you identify an ILS critical area?
Holding position markings for ILS critical areas consist of two yellow solid lines, spaced two feet apart, connected by pairs of solid lines, spaced ten feet apart.
What does the acronym ‘RWSL’ stand for?
Runway Status Lights system—a fully automated system that provides runway status information to pilots and surface vehicle operators.
Describe runway hold short markings and signs.
Runway holding position markings consist of four yellow lines—two solid and two dashed. The solid lines are always on the side where the aircraft is to hold.
What information should pre-flight planning for taxi operations include?
Review airport signage, markings, lighting, airport diagram, planned taxi route, latest airfield NOTAMs, and conduct a pre-taxi briefing.
What is an airport surface ‘hot spot’?
A ‘hot spot’ is a runway safety-related problem area on an airport that presents increased risk during surface operations.
When issued taxi instructions to an assigned takeoff runway, are you automatically authorized to cross any runway that intersects your taxi route?
No; aircraft must receive a runway crossing clearance for each runway that their taxi route crosses.
How can a pilot maintain situational awareness during taxi operations?
Ensure a current airport diagram is available, monitor ATC instructions, focus outside the cockpit, and visually check for conflicting traffic.
What responsibilities does a pilot have concerning readback of ATC clearances and instructions?
A pilot must accurately read back ATC clearances and instructions to ensure understanding and compliance.
(AIM 4-4-7)
Is an ATC clearance an authorization for a pilot to deviate from any rule, regulation or minimum altitude?
No, an ATC clearance does not authorize a pilot to deviate from any rules, regulations, or minimum altitudes.
(AIM 4-4-1)
What significance does a ‘release’ time have for an IFR flight?
A ‘release’ time indicates when an IFR flight is authorized to depart and enter controlled airspace.
(AIM 5-2-7)
What minimum rate-of-climb in feet per minute is required if cleared for a SID with a minimum climb gradient of 600 feet per NM at a ground speed of 90 knots?
The minimum rate-of-climb required is 900 feet per minute.
(FAA-H-8083-15)
What is the difference between a VFR Over-The-Top clearance and a VFR-On-Top clearance?
A VFR Over-The-Top clearance allows a pilot to fly above a cloud layer, while a VFR-On-Top clearance allows a pilot to fly on top of the clouds at an altitude of their choosing.
(FAA-H-8083-15)
If an ODP is published for your airport, are you required to fly it?
You are not required to fly an ODP, but ATC can assign it to you.
(AIM 5-2-9)
Are you required to accept an intersection takeoff if ATC amends your clearance during taxi?
Yes, you are required to accept the intersection takeoff if assigned by ATC.
(AIM 4-3-10)
Is ATC responsible for providing you vectors around weather if you are concerned about it while airborne?
ATC is not responsible for providing vectors around weather if they have not issued any guidance.
(AIM 7-1-14, 5-5-1)
