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Dental Biochemistry Exam 1 > Dental Biochemistry > Flashcards

Dental Biochemistry Flashcards

1
Q

there is estimated to be ______ new cases of oral cavity or oropharyngeal cancer for the year 2024

A

58,450

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2
Q

there is estimated to be _______ deaths from oral cavity or oropharyngeal cancer for the year 2024

A

12,230

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3
Q

oral cavity or oropharyngeal cancer occur most often in the ______, _______, ________, _____, floor of the _____, and other parts of the _____

A

tongue, tonsils, oropharynx, gums, mouth, mouth

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4
Q

Almost all cancers in the oral cavity and oropharynx are ________ that start in the squamous cells of the mouth or throat

A

squamous cell carcinomas

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5
Q

the earliest form of squamous cell cancer is called ______ which means the cancer cells are only in the layer of cells called the _______

A

carcinoma in situ, epithelium

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6
Q

infections with certain high risk types of the HPV causes most of the _______ of the oropharynx

A

squamous cell cancers

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7
Q

the two major classes of genes involved in tumorigenesis are ________ and _______

A

oncogenes, tumor-suppressor genes

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8
Q

oncogenes encode proteins that promote aberrant cell proliferation, activity is then _______ in tumor cells, gene amplification, and chromosomal translocation. Also present in genomes of tumor promoting viruses

A

up-regulated

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9
Q

tumor suppressor genes encode proteins that negatively regulate cell proliferation and activity is _______ in tumor cells which include loss of function mutations, gene deletions and promoter methylation

A

down-regulated

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10
Q

cancer is a multi-step process that involves both the _____ of oncogenes and the ______ of tumor suppressor genes

A

activation, inactivation

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11
Q

oncogenes are recurrently mutated at the _______ position, where as tumor suppressor genes are mutated through ______ (missense, nonsense) throughout their lengths

A

same amino acid, protein-truncation alterations mutations

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12
Q

the three main signaling pathways relevant to cancer include cell _____, cell ______, and_______

A

fate, survival, genome maintenance

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13
Q

cell fate can be described as many of the genetic alterations in cancer evade the balance between ______ and ______

A

differentiation, division

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14
Q

cell survival can be described as the cancer cells acquiring a _______ in growth factor receptors or down stream signaling molecules that allows them to proliferate under ______ nutrient concentration

A

mutation, limited

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15
Q

genome maintenance is mutations in DNA repair factors can also act earlier in the transformation process by _______ the acquisition of mutations that function through the process of cell fate and survival

A

accelerating

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16
Q

oncoproteins epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR/ERB1) tyrosine kinase is frequently found _______ in epithelial tissues which is a gene amplification common mechanism

A

over expressed

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17
Q

Ras mutations are caused by classic reoccurring _______ mutations at particular residues in the protein that cause Ras to be constantly switched ‘ON”….G12V is the most common

A

missense

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18
Q

FAT1 tumor suppressors go through _______ that changes their cell fate

A

loss of function mutations

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19
Q

Most cells are in the absence of mitogenic stimulation, they leave the cell cycle into ____, sometimes its _______ (stem cells, hepatocytes etc) and most times its _______ which leads to terminal differentiation….. genetic and epigenetic alterations in the genes that control this process lead to _____

A

G0, reversible, irreversible, cancer

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20
Q

eukaryotic cell cycle progression is triggered by _______

A

cyclin dependent kinases (CDKs)

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21
Q

CDKs phosphorylate other regulatory and structural proteins thereby controlling _______ and activities of ________ and cell cycle factors

A

gene expression, replication enzymes

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22
Q

CDKN2A gene (p16) is induced by signals that promote _________, loss of function mutations promote aberrant cell proliferation

A

cell cycle exit

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23
Q

apoptosis can be described as outer membrane _____, shrinking, condensation of the ______, fragmentation of _________, formation of cytoplasmic vacuoles and the cell fragments generated by apoptosis are taken up and eliminated by ________ and _________

A

blebbing, nucleus, chromosomes, neighboring cells, phagocytes

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24
Q

apoptotic signaling via the extrinsic pathway is mediated by
- ______ receptors (CD95, TNFR1, TRAIL)
- formation of _____ (death-inducing signally complex)
- recruitment of ________ and self cleavage
- activation of effector caspases 3, 6, and 7 — destruction of essential cellular proteins
- can also feed into the intrinsic pathway by cleavage of the BH3 only protein BID

A

death, DISC, pro-caspase 8

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25
Q

the apoptotic signaling vis the intrinsic pathway is marked by ________

A

mitochondrial outer membrane permeabilization (MOMP)

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26
Q

apoptotic signaling and MOMP results in the release of ______ from the mitochondrial inner membrane space which triggers the assembly of a ________ and leads to the release of ___ and ________ which degrades DNA

A

cytochrome C , caspase activating complex, AIF, endonuclease G

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27
Q

the caspase activating complex assembles between ________ and _______ (apoptotic protease activating factor 1) via the caspase recruiting domain of APAF1

A

caspase 9, APAF1

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28
Q

caspase __ activates the effector caspases 3,6 and 7

A

9

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29
Q

loss of function CASP8 mutations will suppress ______ signaling and promote _______

A

apoptosis, cell survival

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30
Q

recombination has two distinct functions in cells which are to _______ double strand damage to chromosomes and _______ genetic information between homologous chromosomes during meiosis in germ line cells

A

repair, shuffling

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31
Q

BRCA2 loss will promote ______ and genomic _______ due to the inability to repair DNA

A

DNA loss , instability

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32
Q

p53 tumor suppressor halts the _______ in response to DNA damage to allow DNA repair

A

cell cycle

33
Q

_______ is the most commonly mutated gene in oral cancer

A

p53

34
Q

the p53 tumor suppressor is a transcription factor that _________ genes that negatively regulate proliferation in response to various _____ signals

A

up regulates, stress

35
Q

the 5 types of treatment for oral and oropharyngeal cancers include ______, _______ therapy, ________ therapy, ___________, and ______

A

surgery, radiation, targeted, immunotherapy, chemotherapy

36
Q

the central dogma refers to the process of going from ______ to _____ to _____

A

DNA, RNA, protein

37
Q

reverse transcriptase converts RNA genome of ______ into ______ which is then used to make new ______ molecules

A

retroviruses, DNA, RNA

38
Q

RNA dependent RNA polymerase copies ______ genome of RNA viruses to new molecules of _____

A

RNA, RNA

39
Q

a nucleoside is composed of a ______ and a ______

A

nitrogenous base, pentose sugar

40
Q

a nucleotide is composed of a _______, ________ and a ________

A

nitrogenous base, pentose sugar, phosphate

41
Q

triphosphates are ______ for DNA or RNA synthesis

A

precursors

42
Q

monophosphates are incorporated into DNA or RNA and _____ is released

A

PPi

43
Q

DNA or RNA is formed when the ___ phosphate of one nucleotide is joined to the ____ hydroxyl of the sugar with the release of PPi

A

5’, 3’

44
Q

RNA is rapidly hydrolyzed under _____ conditions due to the ____ group on the sugar and DNA is stable in _____ conditions

A

alkaline, 2’ OH, alkaline

45
Q

adenine and thymine contain ____ hydrogen bonds

A

two

46
Q

guanine and cytosine contain ______ hydrogen bonds

A

three

47
Q

in DNA the two strands are _____

A

antiparallel

48
Q

DNA replication is _______ and ______

A

semi-conservative, discontinuous

49
Q

DNA must be unwound and both the 5’-3’ and the 3’-5’ strands are copied using a _______ that can only synthesis in the _______

A

DNA polymerase, 5’-3’ direction

50
Q

replisome is the assembly of _______ that replicate ______

A

enzymes, DNA

51
Q

20 to 25 proteins are involved in bacterial ______

A

replisome

52
Q

for replisome three basic enzymatic activities are required which include synthesis of nascent DNA by ______, unwinding of DNA by ______, and priming of the okazaki fragments of the lagging strand by ______

A

DNA polymerase, helicase, DNA primase

53
Q

all DNA polymerases synthesis ______, require a _______, require a _______, require a _______ on the primer, use ______ as energy, and incorporate ______ into DNA

A

5’-3’, template, primer, 3’ OH, dNTPs , dNMPs

54
Q

at the DNA replication fork the leading strand is synthesized _____ while lagging strand is _____

A

continuously, discontinuously

55
Q

DNA synthesized on the lagging strand must be synthesized as short DNA molecules called ______

A

okazaki fragments

56
Q

_______ unwinds the DNA and the ________ straightens out the DNA template and facilitates the activity of _______

A

DNA helicase , single stranded DNA binding protein, DNA polymerase

57
Q

the leading strand is synthesized in a 5’ to 3’ direction by ______ and RNA primers are synthesized on the lagging strand by _______

A

DNA polymerase, DNA primase

58
Q

DNA primase does not require a _____

A

primer

59
Q

RNA primers are elongated by DNA polymerase resulting in ______ pieces

A

okazaki fragment

60
Q

RNA primer is removed by a 5’ to 3’ _______ (RNAse H)

A

exonuclease

61
Q

the nicks between the okazaki fragments are joined together by ______

A

DNA ligase

62
Q

origin of replication is the position at which the DNA helix is first _____

A

opened

63
Q

DNA topoisomerases prevent DNA ______

A

tangeling

64
Q

two replication forks form and proceed in opposite directions forming the _______

A

replication bubble

65
Q

in prokaryotic cells there is only _____ origin of replication and _____ replication forks

A

one, two

66
Q

in eukaryotic cells, replication origins are activated in clusters called ________

A

replication units

67
Q

sanger DNA sequencing involves enzymatic DNA synthesis using base specific chain terminators and radio labeled primers; size DNA products on large _______ that can resolve sizes of products by _____ nucleotide

A

denaturing polyacrylamide gels, one

68
Q

automated DNA sequencing with florescent primers uses the same concept as sanger but the 4 reactions contain the same ______ with a different fluorescent label; then reactions are combined prior to separation and signal is detected by a _____

A

primer, laser

69
Q

PCR analysis is a way of amplifying specfic DNA elements in a ______

A

test tube

70
Q

restriction fragment length polymorphism analysis (RFLP) which is an application of PCR helps identify individuals harboring ______ that have polymorphic restriction sites

A

disease genes

71
Q

variable number tandem repeat analysis (VNTR) is an application of southern blotting that identify individuals based on different size of ______

A

DNA repeats

72
Q

qPCR is for _____ quantification that is machine based PCR that measures the amount of PCR product after each _____

A

DNA, cycle

73
Q

qRT PCR is for _____ quantification where it can be used to measure RNA levels of _______, giving an idea of expression changes in disease or experimental conditions

A

RNA, specific transcripts

74
Q

real time PCR relies on specialized _____ that bind sequences between the PCR _____

A

probes, primers

75
Q

western blotting is used for _____ with incubation with a monoclonal _____ that recognizes a specific protein and washing

A

proteins, antibody

76
Q

immunohistochemistry assesses ______ abundance in cells or tissues including diseased tissue, very little material is needed but you need very highly specific ______ for this analysis

A

protein, monoclonal antibodies

77
Q

RNA-seq applications including gene expression profiling : determining gene activity of _____ in cells under different conditions

A

all genes

78
Q

global analysis at the protein level mass spectrometric based proteomics methods determine relative expression profiles of ______ in and out of cells but will not detect all ______

A

proteins, low abundance proteins

Dental Biochemistry Exam 1 (10 decks)

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