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Definitions Flashcards

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1
Q

Define ASDA

A

Length of the take-off run available plus length of any stopway

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2
Q

Define accident

A

an occurrence associated with operation of an aircraft and takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and such time as all such persons have disembarked and the engine or any propellers or rotors come to rest, being an occurrence in which—
(1) a person is fatally or seriously injured as a result of— (i) being in the aircraft; or
(ii) direct contact with any part of the aircraft, including any part that has become detached from the aircraft; or
(iii) direct exposure to jet blast—
except when the injuries are self-inflicted or inflicted by other persons, or when the injuries are to stowaways hiding outside the areas normally available to passengers and crew; or
(2) the aircraft sustains damage or structural failure that—
(i) adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft; and
(ii) would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component—
except engine failure or damage that is limited to the engine, its cowlings, or accessories, or damage limited to propellers, wing tips, antennas, tyres, brakes, fairings, small dents, or puncture holes in the aircraft skin; or

(3) the aircraft is missing or is completely inaccessible:

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3
Q

Define ACT

A

CAA 1990

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4
Q

Define adequate aerodrome

A

An aerodrome where the applicable requirements for the aerodrome and runway prescribed in rule 121.71are met for the particular aeroplane being operated except that, if the aerodrome is designated as an en-route alternate, the rescue and fire fighting equipment must be at least CAT 4 and be available, with at least 30 minutes prior notification, at the ETA of the plane.

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5
Q

Define aerodrome control service

A

Means an ATC service provided for the controls of aerodrome traffic

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6
Q

Define aerodrome operational area

A

The movement area at an aerodrome and its associated strips and safety areas and any ground installations or facility provided at an aerodrome for the safety of aircraft ops

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7
Q

Define Aeronautical info circular

A

Notice containing info that -

Does not qualify for the origination of a NOTAM or for inclusion in the AIPNZ; and relates to flight safety, air navigation, technical, administrative or legislative matters:

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8
Q

Define aircraft category

A

Any one of the following classes of aircraft: plane, balloon, glider, hang glider, helicopter or microlight

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9
Q

Define ATO

A

Carriage of pax or goods for hire or reward except CTO, adventure aviation, helicopter external load operation under part 133, agricultural aircraft ops, trial flight

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10
Q

Define air operation

A

An ATO CTO or adventure aviation

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11
Q

Define airworthiness certificate

A

NZ aircraft - an airworthiness certificate issued by the director under part 21, subpart H

Foreign - airworthiness certificate issued by the competent authority of the state of registry

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12
Q

Define airworthiness directive

A

A mandatory airworthiness requirement that specifics modifications, inspections, conditions, or limitations to be applied to an aircraft or aeronautical product to continued safe operating conditions

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13
Q

Define airworthy condition

A

The condition of an aircraft, including its components, fuel and other materials and substances essential to the manafacture and operation of the aircraft, that complies with all the requirements prescribed by the CAR relating to design, manufacture, maintenance, mods, repair and safety.

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14
Q

Define alerting service

A

ATS provided to notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and to assist such organisations as required.

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15
Q

Define alternate aerodrome

A

An aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed when it becomes either impossible or inadvisable to proceed to or land at the aerodrome of intended landing.

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16
Q

Define altitude

A

The vertical distance of a level, a point, or an object considered as a point measured from mean sea level.

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17
Q

Define approach control

A

An air traffic control service for arriving or departing controlled flights

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18
Q

Define area control

A

Air traffic control service provided for controlled flights in controlled airspace

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19
Q

Define area navigation

A

Means a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path within the coverage of ground or space-based navigation systems or within the limits of the capability of self-contained navigation systems or a combo

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20
Q

Define ATC clearance

A

Authorisation for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an ATC unit

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21
Q

Define ATC instruction

A

A directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action

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22
Q

Define augmented crew

A

The crew on an aeroplane when its comprised of more then the minimum crew required by the aeroplane certification

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23
Q

Define cat II precision approach procedure

A

A precision instrument approach and landing with a DH lower then 200 feet, but not lower then 100ft, and a RVR not less than 300m

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24
Q

define Category III precision approach procedure

A

Three types:

CAT 3A: precision instrument approach and landing with a DH lower then 100 feet or no decision height and a RVR not less than 175m

CAT 3B: precision instrument approach an d landing with a DH lower then 50feet or no DH less than 175m but not less then 50m

CAT 3C: precision instrument approach and landing with no DH and no RVR limitations

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25
Q

Define ceiling

A

The height above ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 20,000 feet covering more then half the sky.

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26
Q

Define certificated organisation

A

An organisation issued with a certificate under rules made under the actg

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27
Q

Define class 3.1A flammable

A

Liquid with flash point of below 20ºC and an IBP of a maximum of 35ºC and includes petrol based products

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28
Q

Define Class 3.1C flammable

A

Liquid w flashpoint at or above 23ºC but at or below 60ºC and includes kerosene based products

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29
Q

Define 3.1D flammable liquid

A

Flashpoint of above 60ºC but at or below 93ºC and includes diesel products

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30
Q

Define Class B cargo or baggage compartment (3)

A

A cargo or baggage compartment in which

  • theres sufficient access in flight to enable a crew member to effectively reach any part of the compartment with the contents of a hand fire extinguisher
  • when access provisions are being used, no hazardous quantity of smoke, flames or extinguishing agent, will enter any compartment occupied by the crew or passengers
  • seperate approved smoke detector or fire detector system to give warning at the pilot or flight engineer station
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31
Q

Define clearance limit

A

The point to which an aircraft is granted an ATC clearance

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32
Q

Define clearway

A

A defined rectangular area on the ground or water on the departure end of the runway under the control of the aerodrome operator or with the agreement of the authority controlling the clearway selected as a suitable area over which an aeroplane may make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height.

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33
Q

Define command practice

A

The performance by a co-pilot of the duties and functions of a PIC during a flight under the supervision of a PIC designated for the purpose by the operator.

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34
Q

Define CTO

A

Carriage of pax or good for hire or reward where each pax is performing or undergoing training to perform a tsk or duty or pax or goods are carried to or from a remote aerodrome.

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35
Q

Defined contaminated runway

A

More then 25% of runway surface area within the required length and width is covered by surface water, slush, loose snow more then 3mm in depth or ice on any part of the runway surface.

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36
Q

Define contaminated runway

A

Runway with more than 25% of the runway surface area within the required length and width being covered by surface water, slush, or loose snow more then 3mm in depth or ice on any part of the runway surface.

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37
Q

Define controlled airspace

A

Means an airspace of defined dimensions within which ATC service is provided to IFR flights and VFR flights in accordance with airspace classification.

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38
Q

Define controlled flight

A

Any flight thats subject to an ATC clearance

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39
Q

Define co-pilot

A

A licensed pilot serving in any piloting capacity other than as PIC but doesn’t include a pilot receiving flight instruction from a pilot on board the aircraft

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40
Q

Define crew member

A

A person carried by an aircraft whos:

Assigned by the operator as a flight crew member or attendant to perform a duty associated with the operation of the flight or to perform a duty associated with the ops of the aircraft during flight time

Or

Carried for the sole purpose of undergoing or giving instruction in the control and navigation of the aircraft or undergoing instruction as flight engineer or attendant or authorised by the director to exercise a function associated with the operation of aircraft during flight time.

41
Q

Define flight examiner

A

A person who holds a flight examiner rating issued in accordance with part 61

42
Q

Define dangerous goods

A

Articles or substances capable of posing risk to health, safety, property or the environment and are listed in or classified in accordance with the ICAOS technical instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air or

Have properties that would result in the articles or substances being classified as dangerous goods under the ICAO’s technical instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air.

43
Q

Define day

A

Between mct and ect

44
Q

Define DA

A

Altitude referenced to mean sea level, in the precision approach at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required Vistula reference to continue the approach hasn’t been established.

45
Q

Define decision height

A

Specified height reference to runway threshold in the precision approach at which a missed approach must be initiated if required visual reference to continue the approach hasn’t been established.

46
Q

Define disabled passenger

A

Any pax whose physical medical or mental condition requires individual attention not normally extended to pax during an ATO.

47
Q

Define dual flight time

A

Flight time which a person is receiving flight instruction from an appropriately licensed and rated pilot on board a dual control aircraft

48
Q

Define escorted passenger

A

Any passenger requiring the personal attendance of an appointed escort during an ATO.

49
Q

Define extended diversion time operations

A

A flight by multi-engine turbine powered aeroplane where the flight time (calculate at a one engine inoperative cruise speed in still air and ISA) from a point on the route to an adequate aerodrome is greater then the threshold time for the aeroplane.

50
Q

Define final reserve fuel

A

The minimum quantity of fuel required to provide a margin to secure the safe completion of a flight in the event of any unplanned manoeuvring in the vicinity of the destination or alternate or a suitable aerodrome.

As the case may be, and in ordinary circumstances remains on board until completion of the landing

51
Q

Define fit and proper person

A

A person who satisfies the fit and proper person test specified in the act

52
Q

Define flight attendant

A

An appropriately trained person assigned by the operator to be responsible to the PIC for passenger safety on an aircraft

53
Q

Define flight crew member

A

An appropriately qualified person assigned by the operator for duty in an aircraft during flight time as a pilot or flight engineer

54
Q

Define flight level

A

Surface of constant atmospheric pressure expressed in terms of hundreds of feet that is related to a specific datum 1013.2 hPa and is seperate from other such surfaces by specific pressure intervals.

55
Q

Define flight manual

A

A manual associated with the certificate of airworthiness, containing limitations within which the aircraft may be considered airworthy, and instructions and info necessary to the flight crew members for the safer operation of the aircraft.

56
Q

Define flight plan

A

Specified info thats required under the rules to be provided to an ATS unit or to a flight following service regarding an intended flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft.

57
Q

Define flight time

A

For an aircraft other than a balloon, the total time from the moment an aircraft first moves for the purpose of flight until the moment it comes to rest at the end of the flight including any associated push back, taxiing and subsequent holding time.

58
Q

Define height

A

The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from a specified datum and includes the vertical dimension of an object

59
Q

Define IFR flight

A

A flight conducted in accordance with the instrument flight rules

60
Q

Define incident

A

Means any occurrence, other than an accident thats associated with the operation of an aircraft and affects or could affect the safety of operation

61
Q

Define instrument approach procedure

A

Series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to flight instruments with specified protection form obstacles from the initial approach fix, or where applicable from the beginning of a defined arrival route to a point from which a landing can be completed and thereafter, if a landing isn’t completed, to a position at which holding or en-route obstacle clearance criteria apply.

62
Q

Define instrument flight

A

Time during which an aircraft is piloted solely by reference to instruments and without external reference points

63
Q

Define instrument meteorological conditions

A

Means conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling less than the minima specific for visual meteorological conditions

64
Q

Define instrument time

A

Includes instrument flight time and time during which a pilot is practising simulated instrument flight on an approved mechanical device

65
Q

Define landing distance available

A

The length of the runway thats declared by the aerodrome operator as available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane

66
Q

Define Mach number

A

The ratio of true airspeed to the speed of sound

67
Q

Define MDA

A

Specified altitude reference to mean sea level in a non-precession approach or circling approach below which descent may not be made without visual reference.

68
Q

Define MDH

A

Specified height, referenced to the runway threshold, in a non precision approach or circling approach below which descent may not be made without visual reference

69
Q

Define night

A

Between ect and mct

70
Q

Define MSA and MSA

A
71
Q

Define NOTAM

A

Notice distributed by means of telecoms containing info concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility, service, procedure or hazard.

The timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight ops.

72
Q

Define passenger

A

In relation to an aircraft, means any person carried by the aircraft other the a crew member

73
Q

Describe PIC

A

Relation to any aircraft meaning the pilot responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft

74
Q

Define precision approach procedure

A

An instrument approach procedure utilising azimuth and glide path information

75
Q

Define pressure altitude

A

An atmospheric pressure, expressed in terms of altitude, which corresponds to that pressure in the standard atmosphere

76
Q

Define procedure altitude, rated coverage (AIP GEN)

A
77
Q

Define rating

A

An authorisation entered on or associated with a license, certificate or logbook and forming part of it, stating special conditions, privileges or limitations relating to the license or certificate.

78
Q

Define regular air transport passenger service

A

A service offered by an operator consisting of four or more ATO for the carriage of pax between two or more aerodromes within any consecutive 28 day period

79
Q

Define reporting point

A

A specified geographical location in relation to which the position of an aircraft can be reported

80
Q

Define RNP performance

A

A statement of the navigation performance accuracy necessary for operation within defined area of airspace

81
Q

define runway end safety area

A
82
Q

Define RVR

A

The range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the centre line of a runway can see the runway surface marking or the lights delineating the runway or identifying its centreline

83
Q

define SARTIME

A

The time nominated by a pilot for the initiation of alerting action

84
Q

Define serious incidents

A

An incident involving circumstances indicating that an accident nearly occured

85
Q

Define segment COA and SEIFR pax ops

A
86
Q

Define TODA

A
87
Q

Define TORA

A

The length of the runway declared by the aerodrome operator as available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane taking off

88
Q

Define take-off weight

A

The weight of the aeroplane at the commencement of the takeoff run and includes everything and everyone carried in or on the aeroplane at the commencement of the take-off run

89
Q

Define technical instructions

A

means ICAO Document 9284 Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air approved and published by decision of the Council of the International Civil Aviation Organisation under Annex 18 of the Convention:

90
Q

Define threshold, transition altitude, transition layer, transition level

A
91
Q

Define turbo fan

A

Turbojet core engine that uses a proportion of the residual gas flow energy to drive a compressor ducting gas flow around the core engine as additional propulsion

92
Q

Define turbojet

A

A gas turbine engine that uses the residual gas flow energy directly as propulsion

93
Q

Define turboprop

A

A gas turbine engine that uses residual gas flow energy to drive a propellor

94
Q

Define type

A

Relation to licensing of aviation personnel means all aircraft of the same basic design, including all mods thereto except those mods which result in a significant change in handling or flight characteristics

95
Q

Define unlawful interference

A

An act or attempt act endangering a pax, crew member, ground personnel, aircraft or facility

96
Q

Define VFR flight

A

A flight conducted in accordance with visual flight rules

97
Q

Define visibility

A

The ability as determined by atmospheric conditions and expressed in units of measurement, to see and identify prominent unlighted objects by day and prominent lighted objects by night

98
Q

Define visual meteorological conditions

A

Expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud and ceiling equal to or better then specified minima

99
Q

Define ZFT sim (3)

A

Synthetic flight trainer which meets standard of level 5 as described in NZ Civil aviation publication CAP dated 1 march 1986 or

Meets standard of level D/phrase III

Meets an equivalent standard acceptable to the director

atpl law (7 decks)

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