Deck 3

Question 1

What is a User Story?

Answer 1

It is one or more sentences in the everyday or business language of the end user or user of a system that captures what a user does or needs to do as part of his or her job function. It is commonly used in Agile-based software development projects to capture requirements.

Question 2

Define Minimum Viable Product (MVP).

Answer 2

It is that version of a new product which allows a team to collect the maximum amount of validated learning about customers with the least effort.

Question 3

What is Data Date?

Answer 3

It is the “as of” date or the date on which reporting is done. It is also known as As-of-Date or Status Date.

Question 4

What is Target Cost?

Answer 4

It is the “goal” set for the total cost of the project which the seller should aim to keep within. It does not include seller’s profit.

Question 5

What is Accountability?

Answer 5

It is the acceptance of success or failure.

Question 6

What is Cost Variance (CV)?

Answer 6

It is the amount of budget deficit or surplus at a given point in time, and is expressed as the difference between earned value (EV) and actual cost (AC).

Question 7

What is Overall Project Risk?

Answer 7

It is the effect of uncertainty on the project as a whole, arising from all sources of uncertainty including individual risks, representing the exposure of stakeholders to the implications of variations in project outcome, both positive and negative.

Question 8

What is Co-creation?

Answer 8

It is the process of including stakeholders, who are most affected by the work or outcomes of the project, in the team as partners.

Question 9

What is Return on Investment (ROI)?

Answer 9

It is the ratio of the profit (or loss) to the amount invested in the project.

Question 10

What is Cost of Non-Conformance?

Answer 10

It is the term to describe the failure costs (such as costs associated with rework, scrap, loss of business, and warranty) on the project.

Question 11

What is Cost of Conformance?

Answer 11

It is the term to describe the total prevention and appraisal costs (such as costs associated with quality planning, quality control, and quality assurance activities) on the project.

Question 12

What is the purpose of a Change Log?

Answer 12

It is used for communicating changes and their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk to the impacted stakeholders.

Question 13

What is the purpose of a Weighting System in procurement management?

Answer 13

It is used for evaluating seller proposals. An evaluation committee assigns a “score” to each seller based on the source selection criteria and the evaluation criteria defined for the procurement. Sellers are ranked according to their score.

Question 14

What is a Rough Order of Magnitude (ROM) estimate used for?

Answer 14

It is used for financial planning during project initiation.

Question 15

What is the purpose of a Cumulative Flow Diagram (CFD)?

Answer 15

It is used to represent the state of work across time. It shows the stakeholders the product features complete, in progress, and remaining, as well as any changes in total scope. It is a powerful tool for tracking and forecasting the delivery of value.

Question 16

What are the challenges in using codified knowledge?

Answer 16

It lacks context, and isn’t easy to understand and apply.

Question 17

What does the term Laissez-faire mean?

Answer 17

It literally means “let do”, but broadly implies “let it be”, or “leave it alone”. In the context of project management, it is one of the leadership styles.

Question 18

What is the main benefit of actively engaging stakeholders?

Answer 18

It reduces the risk of project failure.

Question 19

How does a prequalified seller list help the procurement process?

Answer 19

It reduces the time required to conduct procurements and reduces the uncertainty (or risk) associated with the process.

Question 20

What is meant by the phrase “Caves and Common” in agile?

Answer 20

It refers to the creation of two zones in the office area - common and social areas (called common) to amplify osmotic communication and quiet areas or private spaces (called caves) where individuals can work without being interrupted.

Question 21

What is the Learning Curve Theory, and how is it relevant to project management?

Answer 21

It says that the time required to perform a task decreases as the task is repeated, and the amount of improvement decreases as more units are produced. In project management, this theory is used for schedule and cost estimation.

Question 22

What are the characteristics of a good XP Metaphor?

Answer 22

It should be simple and non-technical, enabling the stakeholders to understand the overarching approach being taken to provide a capability or solve a problem.

Question 23

How should you treat an event that has 100% chance of occurrence during the course of a project?

Answer 23

It should be treated as “an issue”.

Question 24

Give an example of Parametric estimating.

Answer 24

It takes 8 hours to carpet a 1,000 sq. ft. apartment. Therefore it should take about 80 hours to carpet a 10,000 sq. ft. office space.

Question 25

What does Variance at Completion (VAC) tell about a project?

Answer 25

It tells how much over or under budget the project is expected to be at the end.

Question 26

What does Estimate to Complete (ETC) tell about a project?

Answer 26

It tells how much the remaining work on the project is expected to cost.

Question 27

What is Simulation?

Answer 27

It translates the uncertainties in activity duration or cost into their potential impact on overall project objectives such as total project duration or cost. Project simulations use computer models and estimates of risk, usually expressed as a probability distribution of possible costs or durations at a detailed work level, and are typically performed using Monte Carlo technique.

Question 28

Iterative vs Incremental Life Cycles

Answer 28

Iterative - deliver the product as a whole and add features later. Incremental - deliver the product in pieces, but each piece is fully featured.

Question 29

In which type of development life cycle(s) is delivery divided into subsets of the overall product?

Answer 29

Iterative and Incremental

Question 30

What is a Life Cycle?

Answer 30

It’s a general term for Project Life Cycle.

Question 31

What is Privity of Contract?

Answer 31

It’s a legal term for the relationship between the parties involved in a contract. For example, in a project involving sub-contracts, there is no privity of contract between the prime buyer and the sub-contractors.

Question 32

Who controls the project budget in a Balanced Matrix organization?

Answer 32

It’s a mixed responsibility between the Functional Manager and the Project Manager.

Question 33

JAD

Answer 33

Joint Application Development (or Design)

Question 34

What is Halo Effect?

Answer 34

Judging a person to be good or bad in a particular area, depending upon his/her performance in another area. For example, if Miriam is a good designer, she would make a good project manager too (which may not necessarily be the case).

Question 35

What is Expert Judgment?

Answer 35

Judgment provided based upon expertise in an application area, knowledge area, discipline, industry, etc. as appropriate for the activity being performed. Such expertise may be provided by any group or person with specialized education, knowledge, skill, experience, or training.

Question 36

JIT

Answer 36

Just in Time

Question 37

KPI

Answer 37

Key Performance Indicator

Question 38

What is Explicit Knowledge?

Answer 38

Knowledge that can be codified using symbols such as words, numbers, and pictures. In simple terms, knowledge that can be documented is known as explicit knowledge.

Question 39

Known Unknowns vs Unknown Unknowns

Answer 39

Known Unknowns are things we know that we don’t know, whereas Unknown Unknowns are things we don’t even know that we don’t know. From risk management perspective, former are risks that are identified during risk management and mitigated using Contingency reserves. Latter are risks that are not even identified during risk management, and managed using Management Reserves.

Question 40

What are known unknowns?

Answer 40

Known unknowns are things we know that we don’t know. These are the risks that are identified in risk management, but have no suitable response strategy. In other words, these are the residual risks on the project. Known unknowns are managed by using Contingency Reserves.

Question 41

What are the commonly used resource categories?

Answer 41

Labor, material, equipment, and supplies.

Question 42

In this leadership style, the project manager turns things over to the team members, and only monitors the work at a high level.

Answer 42

Laissez-faire

Question 43

What kind of leadership style is appropriate when the team members are highly skilled and motivated to do the job?

Answer 43

Laissez-faire

Question 44

LF

Answer 44

Late Finish Date

Question 45

LS

Answer 45

Late Start Date

Question 46

What is Project Initiation?

Answer 46

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project.

Question 47

Lead vs Lag

Answer 47

Lead is the acceleration of a successor activity, whereas Lag is the delay of a successor activity.

Question 48

What is Leadership?

Answer 48

Leadership is the ability to lead a team and inspire them to do their jobs well.

Question 49

What is Lean?

Answer 49

Lean (or Lean thinking) is used to describe the system known as the <b>Toyota Way</b> developed by Toyota. Lean is a broad system that applies to the entire <i>enterprise</i>, including product development, production, sales, service and HR.

Question 50

What is the main purpose of a retrospective?

Answer 50

Learn what went well, what did not go well, and what could be done differently to improve the product.

Question 51

Which forms of power of a Project Manager are most effective in getting compliance from team members?

Answer 51

Legitimate Power and Reward Power

Question 52

LOE

Answer 52

Level Of Effort

Question 53

What are Functional Managers also referred to as?

Answer 53

Line Managers

Question 54

What are Quality Checklists?

Answer 54

Lists of components to inspect, or steps to perform. They are used to “check” whether deliverables conform to quality standards. Quality Checklists are defined during the Plan Quality Management process, and used in the Control Quality process.

Question 55

What is a time-scaled schedule network diagram format also referred to as?

Answer 55

Logic Bar Chart

Question 56

How much authority do project managers have in a Balanced Matrix organization?

Answer 56

Low to moderate

Question 57

What is another name for a Fixed Price contract?

Answer 57

Lump Sum

Question 58

What is the fundamental principle of Lean?

Answer 58

Making improvements by reducing waste (extra inventory, unnecessary waiting, and even untapped creativity).

Question 59

Communication Methods are used as tools in Planning and Executing processes. Name the Executing process(es) which use Communication Methods as tools.

Answer 59

Manage Communications

Question 60

Project Communications are an output of which process?

Answer 60

Manage Communications

Question 61

What is/are the Project Communications Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group?

Answer 61

Manage Communications

Question 62

Which process puts the performance reports in the hands of the stakeholders?

Answer 62

Manage Communications

Question 63

Which project management process develops ad hoc reports, project presentations, blogs, and other types of communication about the project?

Answer 63

Manage Communications

Question 64

Manage Communications vs Monitor Communications

Answer 64

Manage Communications is the process of creating, collecting, distributing, storing, retrieving, and disposition of project information i.e. implementing the Communications Management Plan. Monitor Communications is about monitoring and controlling communications i.e. evaluating the effectiveness of the Communications Management Plan and adjusting it.

Question 65

In which process is the Lessons Learned Register first created?

Answer 65

Manage Project Knowledge

Question 66

Name the process of using existing knowledge and creating new knowledge to achieve the project’s objectives and contribute to organizational learning.

Answer 66

Manage Project Knowledge

Question 67

Name the process that uses the Information Management technique.

Answer 67

Manage Project Knowledge

Question 68

If you are checking whether quality standards are being followed, which process are you in?

Answer 68

Manage Quality

Question 69

What is/are the Project Quality Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group?

Answer 69

Manage Quality

Question 70

Which project management process uses the Process Analysis technique?

Answer 70

Manage Quality

Question 71

Which project management processes use Cause-and-Effect Diagrams?

Answer 71

Manage Quality and Control Quality Note: Cause-and-Effect Diagrams are a Data Representation technique.

Question 72

Manage Quality vs Control Quality

Answer 72

Manage Quality checks whether quality standards are being followed, whereas Control Quality checks whether quality standards are being met. Audits and root cause analysis are examples of Manage Quality. Peer reviews and testing are examples of Control Quality. In Manage Quality think about “process”, and in Control Quality think about “deliverables”.

Question 73

In which process are Ground Rules laid out for the project team members?

Answer 73

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

Question 74

What is/are the Project Stakeholder Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group?

Answer 74

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

Question 75

Manage Stakeholder Engagement vs Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

Answer 75

Manage Stakeholder Engagement is about communicating and working with stakeholders i.e. implementing the strategies defined in the Stakeholder Engagement Plan. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement is about monitoring the relationship with stakeholders i.e. evaluating the effectiveness of the Stakeholder Engagement Plan and adjusting the strategies and plans for engaging stakeholders.

Question 76

In which process are the Performance appraisals of project team members conducted?

Answer 76

Manage Team

Question 77

Manage Team vs Develop Team

Answer 77

Manage Team process is about managing the performance of individual team members, whereas Develop Team is about the performance of the “team” as a unit.

Question 78

Management vs Leadership

Answer 78

Management is more closely associated with directing another person to get from one point to another using a known set of expected behaviors. In contrast, leadership involves working with others through discussion or debate in order to guide them from one point to another.

Question 79

Managers ____________ status quo, whereas leaders ____________ status quo.

Answer 79

Managers <u>accept</u> status quo, whereas leaders <u>challenge</u> status quo.

Question 80

Is negotiating in good faith an aspirational standard or a mandatory standard?

Answer 80

Mandatory

Question 81

Is proactively disclosing all real and potential conflicts of interest to the stakeholders an aspirational standard or a mandatory standard?

Answer 81

Mandatory

Question 82

Is reporting unethical or illegal conduct an aspirational or mandatory standard?

Answer 82

Mandatory

Question 83

Is upholding the policies, rules, regulations and laws that govern our work an aspirational or mandatory standard?

Answer 83

Mandatory

Question 84

Mandatory Dependency vs Discretionary Dependency

Answer 84

Mandatory dependencies are those that are contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work. Example, foundation needs to be laid before the building can be constructed. Discretionary dependencies are established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area. Example, construction work should wait until the rainy season is over.

Question 85

By discriminating with others based on their religion, gender, caste, creed, race, nationality, age, etc., which standard do we violate?

Answer 85

Mandatory Standard for Fairness

Question 86

Exhibiting nepotism in professional matters is a violation of which standard?

Answer 86

Mandatory Standard for Fairness

Question 87

Stating misleading or false information is a violation of which standard?

Answer 87

Mandatory Standard for Honesty

Question 88

By exercising our power of expertise or position to manipulate others, which standard do we violate?

Answer 88

Mandatory Standard for Respect

Question 89

Which standards describe firm requirements that we as project management professionals must adhere to?

Answer 89

Mandatory Standards

Question 90

What are Change Control Tools?

Answer 90

Manual or automated tools to assist with change and/or configuration management. At a minimum, the tools should support the activities of the Change Control Board (CCB).

Question 91

MSA

Answer 91

Master Services Agreement

Question 92

What is the Acquired Needs Theory also known as?

Answer 92

McClelland’s Theory of Needs

Question 93

What is the range of Control Limits for repetitive processes?

Answer 93

Mean ± 3 sigma

Question 94

MOA

Answer 94

Memoranda of Agreement

Question 95

MOU

Answer 95

Memorandum of Understanding

Question 96

What is the formula for Median?

Answer 96

Middle value (for odd number of values) OR Mean of the two middle values (for even number of values)

Question 97

What are the inputs from Project Schedule Management processes into the Plan Procurement Management process?

Answer 97

Milestone List (this list of major milestones show when the sellers are required to deliver their results)

Question 98

What do zero duration events on the schedule network represent?

Answer 98

Milestones

Question 99

MMF

Answer 99

Minimum Marketable Feature

Question 100

MVP

Answer 100

Minimum Viable Product

Question 101

Minimum Viable Product (MVP) vs Minimum Marketable Feature (MMF)

Answer 101

Minimum Viable Product (MVP) is a version of a product that has just enough features to be usable by early customers who can then provide feedback for future product development. Minimum Marketable Feature (MMF) is a small, self-contained feature that can be developed quickly and delivers significant value to the user. MMF is about delivering value to customers, whereas MVP is about learning more about the ultimate product. An MVP can contain zero, one or more MMFs.

Question 102

What is the formula for Mode?

Answer 102

Mode is the most frequently occurring value in a data set. To get the Mode of a data set, count the frequency of each item, and pick the one with the maximum frequency.

Question 103

What series of numbers are used in the Planning Poker?

Answer 103

Modified version of Fibonacci series (1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 20, 40, 100)

Question 104

In which process are Work Performance Reports generated?

Answer 104

Monitor and Control Project Work

Question 105

Which process takes Work Performance Information as input and produces Work Performance Reports as output?

Answer 105

Monitor and Control Project Work

Question 106

Name the Project Communications Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.

Answer 106

Monitor Communications

Question 107

If you are reassessing project risks, which process are you in?

Answer 107

Monitor Risks

Question 108

Name the Project Risk Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.

Answer 108

Monitor Risks

Question 109

Status Meetings are particularly useful in which process?

Answer 109

Monitor Risks

Question 110

What is/are the Project Stakeholder Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

Answer 110

Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

Question 111

Which Project Management Process Group does the Validate Scope process belong to?

Answer 111

Monitoring and Controlling

Question 112

If the customer wants to know the likelihood of completing the project by a given date, which technique would help you determine this information?

Answer 112

Monte Carlo technique

Question 113

If the customer wants to know the likelihood of completing the project under $1 million, which technique would help you determine this information?

Answer 113

Monte Carlo technique

Question 114

Which technique can be used to simulate various outcomes of What-If Scenario Analysis?

Answer 114

Monte Carlo technique

Question 115

Which technique is commonly used for simulating the combined effects of project risks on project outcomes?

Answer 115

Monte Carlo technique

Question 116

Name a commonly used technique for prioritizing the stories on a product backlog.

Answer 116

MoSCoW <b>M</b>ust have - the requirement is core and must be satisfied for success <b>S</b>hould have - the requirement should be satisfied for success <b>C</b>ould have - the requirement is desirable but not necessary for success <b>W</b>on’t have - the requirement will not be implemented

Question 117

If you are using selection criteria to rate or score potential team members, which technique are you using?

Answer 117

Multicriteria Decision Analysis

Question 118

MBTI

Answer 118

Myers Briggs Type Indicator

Question 119

What is the term to describe a network path with low amount of float?

Answer 119

Near-Critical Path

Question 120

What is the formula for Negative Float?

Answer 120

Negative Float LS - ES or Negative Float LF - EF where LF is Late Finish, EF is Early Finish, LS is Late Start and ES is Early Start. Either formula can be used.

Question 121

NPV

Answer 121

Net Present Value

Question 122

Which method uses “time value of money” to appraise long-term projects?

Answer 122

Net Present Value (NPV)

Question 123

NPS

Answer 123

Net Promoter Score

Question 124

Do all Configuration Items need to go through formal change control?

Answer 124

No

Question 125

Is the Point of Total Assumption (PTA) always between the Target Price and the Ceiling Price?

Answer 125

No

Question 126

Are the aspirational and mandatory standards mutually exclusive?

Answer 126

No. It means a particular breach may violate both the standards.

Question 127

What are the number of potential communication channels for a team with ‘n’ stakeholders?

Answer 127

No. of communication channels n * (n - 1) / 2 where ‘n’ is the number of stakeholders in the project.

Question 128

If the product scope is achieved, is the project complete?

Answer 128

No. The project is only complete after formal closure activities are complete.

Question 129

Paying fee to government officials in a foreign country is a common practice to get permits to do business in that country. Should you pay such fees?

Answer 129

No. Usually such fees to government officials are considered bribe and are against the law.

Question 130

Which requirement gathering technique enhances Brainstorming with a voting process to rank the most useful ideas for further brainstorming?

Answer 130

Nominal Group Technique

Question 131

NDA

Answer 131

Non Disclosure Agreement

Question 132

What types of risks are put on the watch list?

Answer 132

Non-critical or low-priority risks

Question 133

What are Non-Functional Requirements?

Answer 133

Non-functional requirements (NFRs) are the quality characteristics of the deliverables, and serve as constraints or restrictions on the design of the solution. Examples include requirements related to security, legal, regulations, compliance, reliability, performance, availability, maintainability, scalability, and usability.

Question 134

At what stage of the team development do team members begin to work together and trust each other?

Answer 134

Norming

Question 135

Should each project management process be applied on every project?

Answer 135

Not necessarily. The appropriate project management processes, inputs, tools, techniques, outputs, and life cycle phases should be selected to manage a project. This selection activity is known as tailoring project management to the project.

Question 136

What is the difference between NPV and ROI?

Answer 136

NPV measures the cash flow of an investment, whereas, ROI measures the efficiency of an investment. NPV is expressed in currency value, whereas ROI is a ratio or percentage.

Question 137

This technique, also known as “job shadowing”, provides a direct way of viewing individuals in their environment and how they perform their jobs and carry out processes. It is particularly helpful for detailed processes when users or customers have difficulty or are reluctant to articulate their requirements. What is this technique called?

Answer 137

Observation/Conversation

Question 138

This technique, also known as “job shadowing”, provides a direct way of viewing individuals in their environment and how they perform their jobs and carry out processes. It is particularly helpful for detailed processes when users or customers have difficulty or are reluctant to articulate their requirements. What is this technique called?

Answer 138

Observation/Conversation

Question 139

Define Acquisition.

Answer 139

Obtaining human and material resources necessary to perform project activities.

Question 140

On what basis are contingency reserves established?

Answer 140

On the basis of quantitative risk analysis and the organization’s risk thresholds

Question 141

What type of scheduling is used in Kanban?

Answer 141

On-demand scheduling

Question 142

What is Autocratic Decision Making?

Answer 142

One individual makes the decision for the group.

Question 143

One of the fundamental tenets of modern quality management states that quality is planned, designed, and ____________-in, and not ____________-in.

Answer 143

One of the fundamental tenets of modern quality management states that quality is planned, designed, and <u>built</u>-in, and not <u>inspected</u>-in.

Question 144

What are Operations?

Answer 144

Ongoing activities that produce repetitive outputs (e.g. manufacturing, accounting, etc.).

Question 145

What is the difference between operations and projects?

Answer 145

Operations are ongoing and produce repetitive outputs. Projects are temporary, produce unique outputs, and have a definite end.

Question 146

What is another name for Positive Risk?

Answer 146

Opportunity

Question 147

What is Risk Categorization?

Answer 147

Organization by sources of risk (e.g., using the RBS), the area of the project affected (e.g., using the WBS), or other useful category (e.g., project phase) to determine the areas of the project most exposed to the effects of uncertainty.

Question 148

OBS

Answer 148

Organizational Breakdown Structure

Question 149

How does Organizational Governance impact projects within the organization?

Answer 149

Organizational Governance may impose constraints on the project.

Question 150

Are project closure requirements considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset for the project?

Answer 150

Organizational Process Asset

Question 151

Are project management plan templates considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset for the project?

Answer 151

Organizational Process Asset

Question 152

Are the human resource policies of an organization considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset for the project?

Answer 152

Organizational Process Asset

Question 153

Is lessons learned knowledge base an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset?

Answer 153

Organizational Process Asset

Question 154

Is Project Plan template an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset?

Answer 154

Organizational Process Asset

Question 155

Are change control procedures part of Enterprise Environmental Factors or an Organizational Process Assets?

Answer 155

Organizational Process Assets

Question 156

OPA

Answer 156

Organizational Process Assets

Question 157

When can Organizational Process Assets be added or updated?

Answer 157

Organizational Process Assets can be added or updated throughout the project.

Question 158

OPM

Answer 158

Organizational Project Management

Question 159

What does Journey to Abilene mean?

Answer 159

Organizations frequently take actions in contradiction to the problem they are trying to solve, and as a result, compound their problem rather than solve it.

Question 160

Define Information.

Answer 160

Organized or structured data, processed for a specific purpose to make it meaningful, valuable, and useful in specific contexts.

Question 161

What is the definition of Fairness, in the context of ethics and professional conduct?

Answer 161

Our duty to make decisions and act impartially and objectively.

Question 162

What is the definition of Respect, in the context of ethics and professional conduct?

Answer 162

Our duty to show a high regard for ourselves, others, and the resources entrusted to us.

Question 163

What is the definition of Responsibility, in the context of ethics and professional conduct?

Answer 163

Our duty to take ownership for the decisions we make or fail to make, the actions we take or fail to take, and the consequences that result.

Question 164

What is the definition of Honesty, in the context of ethics and professional conduct?

Answer 164

Our duty to understand the truth and act in a truthful manner both in our communications and in our conduct.

Question 165

Give an example of Finish-to-start (FS) dependency.

Answer 165

Oven must be heated (predecessor) before cake can be baked in it (successor).

Question 166

Padding vs Buffer (or Reserve)

Answer 166

Padding is the amount of unreasonable extra time added to the estimate, just to feel confident with the estimate. Buffer is the extra time added to the estimate to account for uncertainty or risk. Buffer is clearly identified in schedule documentation whereas padding is hidden.

Question 167

Which XP practice is based on the idea that two heads are better than one?

Answer 167

Pair Programming

Question 168

PBP

Answer 168

Payback Period

Question 169

What is the term for the period of time required to recover the investment made in a project?

Answer 169

Payback Period

Question 170

According to McClelland’s theory, what kinds of people make effective leaders?

Answer 170

People whose need for power is socially-oriented (institutional power).

Question 171

Change Requests are an input to this process and Approved Change Requests are an output. Which process is this?

Answer 171

Perform Integrated Change Control

Question 172

The process of reviewing all change requests, approving changes and managing changes to deliverables, organizational process assets, project documents, and the project management plan, and communicating the decisions, is known as?

Answer 172

Perform Integrated Change Control

Question 173

Which process is used to control changes to all aspects of the approved project plan?

Answer 173

Perform Integrated Change Control

Question 174

In which process is a risk owner assigned to each risk?

Answer 174

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Question 175

In which process would you create a risk Probability and Impact Matrix?

Answer 175

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Question 176

Which process is a rapid and cost-effective way of prioritizing project risks?

Answer 176

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Question 177

Which process uses the Risk Data Quality Assessment technique?

Answer 177

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Question 178

Which risk management process usually follows the Identify Risks process?

Answer 178

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Question 179

In which process is Decision Tree Analysis used?

Answer 179

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question 180

In which process would you use an Influence Diagram?

Answer 180

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question 181

Which process uses Influence Diagrams?

Answer 181

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question 182

Which process uses the Expected Monetary Value (EMV) Analysis technique?

Answer 182

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question 183

In a CPAF contract, which is the most important constraint?

Answer 183

Performance

Question 184

In a CPFF contract, which is the most important constraint?

Answer 184

Performance

Question 185

In a T&M contract, which is the least important constraint?

Answer 185

Performance

Question 186

In an FFP contract, which is the most important constraint?

Answer 186

Performance

Question 187

PMB

Answer 187

Performance Measurement Baseline

Question 188

What information is usually distributed to stakeholders when the project is under execution?

Answer 188

Performance reports, deliverable status, schedule progress, cost incurred, presentations, and other information required by stakeholders.

Question 189

According to Thamhain and Wilemon, which type of conflict is usually at the bottom of the intensity list during the project?

Answer 189

Personality

Question 190

PERT assumes that activity duration estimates follow ____________ distribution.

Answer 190

PERT assumes that activity duration estimates follow <u>beta</u> distribution.

Question 191

PERT assumes that project duration estimates follow ____________ distribution.

Answer 191

PERT assumes that project duration estimates follow <u>normal</u> distribution.

Question 192

What is the fundamental difference between PERT and CPM?

Answer 192

PERT estimates the activity durations based on probability, whereas CPM assumes that the activity durations are fixed.

Question 193

What are Kill Points?

Answer 193

Phase-end reviews in which the key stakeholders (such as management, sponsor or customer) decide whether it’s worth continuing the project. There may be several reasons for killing or terminating a project. For example, if the project performance is below par, or the need for the project no longer exists, the project may be terminated.

Question 194

What is the first level of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?

Answer 194

Physiological

Question 195

Which levels of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs are the Hygiene Factors in the Herzberg’s theory?

Answer 195

Physiological, Safety and Social

Question 196

Which levels of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs must be achieved before achieving self-esteem?

Answer 196

Physiological, Safety and Social

Question 197

Communication Models and Communication Methods are used in which process?

Answer 197

Plan Communications Management

Question 198

What is/are the Project Communications Management process(es) under the Planning Process Group?

Answer 198

Plan Communications Management

Question 199

PDCA

Answer 199

Plan Do Check Act

Question 200

In which process are make-or-buy decisions made?

Answer 200

Plan Procurement Management

Question 201

In which process are Source Selection Criteria established?

Answer 201

Plan Procurement Management

Question 202

What is/are the Project Procurement Management process(es) under the Planning Process Group?

Answer 202

Plan Procurement Management

Question 203

Name the quality management process which takes the Stakeholder Register as an input.

Answer 203

Plan Quality Management

Question 204

Quality Metrics are developed in which process?

Answer 204

Plan Quality Management

Question 205

What is/are the Project Quality Management process(es) under the Planning Process Group?

Answer 205

Plan Quality Management

Question 206

Which process is used to compare the cost of quality activities with the expected benefits?

Answer 206

Plan Quality Management

Question 207

If you are creating a Responsibility Assignment Matrix, which process are you in?

Answer 207

Plan Resource Management

Question 208

In which process is the Team Charter developed?

Answer 208

Plan Resource Management

Question 209

Which planning process precedes the Estimate Activity Resources process?

Answer 209

Plan Resource Management

Question 210

Which risk management process usually follows the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

Answer 210

Plan Risk Responses

Question 211

Which process produces the Requirements Management Plan?

Answer 211

Plan Scope Management

Question 212

Which process produces the Scope Management Plan?

Answer 212

Plan Scope Management

Question 213

What is/are the Project Stakeholder Management process(es) under the Planning Process Group?

Answer 213

Plan Stakeholder Engagement

Question 214

Which process takes Project Management Plan and Stakeholder Register as inputs and formulates a strategy to manage stakeholders?

Answer 214

Plan Stakeholder Engagement

Question 215

What are the essential characteristics of the planned risk responses? (ACRATO)

Answer 215

Planned risk responses should be: - Appropriate to the significance of the risk - Cost-effective - Realistic - Agreed upon by all parties involved - Timely - Owned by a responsible person

Question 216

PV

Answer 216

Planned Value / Present Value

Question 217

Planned Value vs Earned Value

Answer 217

Planned Value is the estimated (monetary) value of the work “planned” to be done, whereas Earned Value is the estimated (monetary) value of the work “actually” done.

Question 218

Planning Package vs Control Account

Answer 218

Planning Package is a logical group of work within a Control Account that is identified and budgeted in early planning, but is not yet sub-divided into Work Packages. Control Account is a management control point in the WBS where Earned Value measurements take place. The Planning Package is below the Control Account, but above the Work Packages in the WBS.

Question 219

Planning Package vs Work Package

Answer 219

Planning Package is a logical group of work within a Control Account that is identified and budgeted in early planning, but is not yet sub-divided into Work Packages. Work Package is a unit of work at the lowest level of each branch of the WBS. The Planning Package is below the Control Account, but above the Work Packages in the WBS.

Question 220

If a project team is estimating their backlog items in story points using the series 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 20, etc. what technique are they using?

Answer 220

Planning Poker

Question 221

What is the term to describe a consensus-based estimation technique commonly used in agile projects?

Answer 221

Planning Poker

Question 222

What are Organizational Process Assets?

Answer 222

Plans, processes, policies, procedures, and knowledge bases that are specific to and used by the performing organization.

Question 223

Whom does the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct apply to?

Answer 223

PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct applies to: - All PMI members - PMI credential holders - PMI credential applicants - PMI volunteers

Question 224

What are the different ways in which a PMO supports project managers?

Answer 224

PMO develops a common project management methodology, best practices and standards; monitors compliance to standards, policies and procedures across projects; manages interdependencies, coordinates communication, and manages shared resources among projects; provides mentoring and coaching to project managers.

Question 225

PTA

Answer 225

Point of Total Assumption

Question 226

What is the point at which a Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF) contract becomes a Firm Fixed Price (FFP) contract?

Answer 226

Point of Total Assumption (PTA)

Question 227

PESTLE

Answer 227

Political, Economic, Social, Technological, Legal, Environmental

Question 228

What does the Herzberg’s theory say about Hygiene Factors?

Answer 228

Poor hygiene factors may demotivate people, but improving the hygiene factors is not likely to motivate people.

Question 229

Which power is associated with Management?

Answer 229

Positional Power

Question 230

What is the difference between Power and Authority?

Answer 230

Power is the ability to get things done, whereas Authority is the formal power derived from one’s position in the organization.

Question 231

PDM

Answer 231

Precedence Diagramming Method

Question 232

Precision vs Accuracy

Answer 232

Precision means that values have very little scatter (very close to each other). Accuracy means that values are very close to the true value. Precise values may not be accurate and vice versa. E.g., if your office starts at 8 am and you reach at 8:30 am sharp every day, you are precise, but not accurate. Whereas, if you reach between 7:45-8:15 am every day, you are more accurate, but less precise.

Question 233

In which type of development life cycle are key stakeholders involved at specific milestones only?

Answer 233

Predictive

Question 234

What are Discretionary dependencies also referred to as?

Answer 234

Preferred Logic, Preferential Logic, or Soft Logic

Question 235

What is Net Present Value (NPV)?

Answer 235

Present value of future cash inflows minus present value of future cash outflows.

Question 236

What are Stop Light charts commonly used for?

Answer 236

Presenting status of project work.

Question 237

Prevention is preferred over __________.

Answer 237

Prevention is preferred over <u>Inspection</u>.

Question 238

Prevention keeps errors out of the _______.

Answer 238

Prevention keeps errors out of the <u>process</u>.

Question 239

Prevention vs Inspection

Answer 239

Prevention keeps errors out of the process, whereas Inspection keeps errors out of the hands of the customer.

Question 240

What is generally the best conflict resolution technique?

Answer 240

Problem Solve

Question 241

What is the other name for Collaborate (technique for conflict resolution)?

Answer 241

Problem Solve

Question 242

Which tool is used to assure the success of process improvement on a project?

Answer 242

Process Analysis

Question 243

What is the main purpose of conducting Procurement Audits?

Answer 243

Procurement Audits are conducted to capture “lessons learned” for the entire procurement.

Question 244

Procurement Statement of Work (SOW) vs Terms of Reference (TOR)

Answer 244

Procurement SOW is a description of the procurement item in sufficient detail to allow prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the products, services, or results. It includes specifications, quantity desired, quality levels, performance data, period of performance, work location, etc. Terms of Reference (TOR) is similar to SOW, but used when contracting for services.

Question 245

What information is usually included in an Agreement?

Answer 245

Procurement SOW, roles and responsibilities, schedule, pricing, payment terms, acceptance criteria, reporting requirements, warranty, penalties, incentives, change control process, dispute resolution mechanisms, etc.

Question 246

Which document describes the types of contracts to be used on the project?

Answer 246

Procurement Strategy

Question 247

Why is the Risk Register an input to Plan Procurement Management?

Answer 247

Procurements are a risk mitigation tool. Many of the procurement decisions are made based on the risks that exist on the project.

Question 248

Product Quality vs Project Quality

Answer 248

Product Quality focuses on the quality of the “product” of the project. It is measured in terms of the degree to which the product conforms to customer’s requirements. Whereas, Project Quality focuses on the quality of “project management processes”. It is measured in terms of the degree to which the project meets its objectives (scope, time, cost, customer satisfaction, etc.).

Question 249

Product Scope vs Project Scope

Answer 249

Product Scope refers to requirements that specifically relate to the “product” of the Project. Project Scope is all the “work” that goes in to producing the project deliverables (products, services or results).

Question 250

Give three examples of Variability Risk.

Answer 250

Productivity may be above or below target, the number of errors found during testing may be higher or lower than expected, or unseasonal weather conditions may occur during the construction phase.

Question 251

What is generally the last phase of a product life cycle?

Answer 251

Product’s retirement

Question 252

How does Portfolio Management different from Program and Project Management in terms of focus?

Answer 252

Program and Project Management focus on doing programs and projects the “right” way, whereas, Portfolio Management focuses on doing the “right” programs and projects.

Question 253

PERT

Answer 253

Program Evaluation and Review Technique

Question 254

Project A and Project B have an expected duration of 48 days each. Their standard deviation is 4 days and 8 days respectively. What can you tell about the two projects?

Answer 254

Project B has more risk than Project A. More standard deviation indicates more uncertainty or risk.

Question 255

What is the input to Monitor Stakeholder Engagement, from Manage Communications?

Answer 255

Project Communications

Question 256

What are Closed Procurements?

Answer 256

Project contracts or other procurement agreements that have been formally acknowledged by the proper authorizing agent as being finalized and signed off.

Question 257

What are the components of Project Cost Baseline?

Answer 257

Project Cost Baseline Project (Work Package) Cost Estimates + Contingency Reserves

Question 258

Project Cost Baseline vs Project Cost Budget

Answer 258

Project Cost Baseline Project Cost Estimates + Contingency Reserves Project Cost Budget Project Cost Baseline + Management Reserves

Question 259

What are the components of Project Cost Budget?

Answer 259

Project Cost Budget Project Cost Baseline + Management Reserves

Question 260

Why is Life Cycle Costing important in Project Cost Management?

Answer 260

Project Cost Management should look at the cost throughout the entire life of the product, service or result, and not just the project cost. For example, reducing the number of design reviews can reduce the project cost at the expense of increasing the customer’s operating costs.

Question 261

What are Test and Evaluation Documents?

Answer 261

Project documents that describe the activities used to determine if the product meets the quality objectives stated in the quality management plan.

Question 262

Who provides funding to the project?

Answer 262

Project Initiator or Sponsor

Question 263

Which Project Management Knowledge Area involves managing the interdependencies among all the Project Management Knowledge Areas?

Answer 263

Project Integration Management

Question 264

Which Project Management Knowledge Area spans across all 5 Process Groups (Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing)?

Answer 264

Project Integration Management

Question 265

Which Project Management Knowledge Area spans across all Project Management Process Groups (Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing)?

Answer 265

Project Integration Management

Question 266

PMBOK®

Answer 266

Project Management Body Of Knowledge

Question 267

PMIS

Answer 267

Project Management Information System

Question 268

PMI®

Answer 268

Project Management Institute

Question 269

Project Management is to projects, what ___________ is to operations.

Answer 269

Project Management is to projects, what <u>Business Process Management</u> is to operations.

Question 270

PMO

Answer 270

Project Management Office

Question 271

What is the common input to all Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing processes?

Answer 271

Project Management Plan (or one of its subsidiary management plans)

Question 272

Why is Project Management Plan an input to the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

Answer 272

Project Management Plan provides information on the project baselines, which are used to measure project performance, and take corrective and preventive actions if required.

Question 273

Who is responsible to ensure that all procurements meet the specific needs of the project while adhering to organizational procurement policies?

Answer 273

Project Management Team

Question 274

Who is responsible for ensuring that Risk Audits are performed at an appropriate frequency on a project?

Answer 274

Project Manager

Question 275

PM

Answer 275

Project Manager / Project Management

Question 276

PMCD

Answer 276

Project Manager Competency Development (Framework)

Question 277

What are the terms to describe a project manager’s role in an agile project?

Answer 277

Project manager, ScrumMaster, project team lead, agile coach, team coach, or team facilitator

Question 278

Project managers need to employ both __________ and management in order to be successful.

Answer 278

Project managers need to employ both <u>leadership</u> and management in order to be successful.

Question 279

Project Requirements vs Product Requirements

Answer 279

Project requirements are related to the work that goes into producing the deliverables of the project. For example, the project should be completed by Dec 31, 2014. Whereas, Product requirements are concerned with the actual product or deliverable of the project. For example, the building structure should be able to withstand earthquakes of magnitude up to 7.5 on Richter scale.

Question 280

Project Schedule vs Schedule Baseline

Answer 280

Project Schedule is the “actual” schedule progress of the project whereas Schedule Baseline is the “planned and approved” version of the project schedule. Schedule variance is measured by comparing the (actual) Project Schedule with the Schedule Baseline.

Question 281

If you want to get a list of items explicitly excluded from the project, which document would you refer to?

Answer 281

Project Scope Statement

Question 282

If you want to get a list of project’s deliverables, which document would you refer to?

Answer 282

Project Scope Statement

Question 283

If you want to know a project’s acceptance criteria, which document would you refer to?

Answer 283

Project Scope Statement

Question 284

Why is the Cost Baseline an S-shaped curve (S-curve)?

Answer 284

Project spending is less at the beginning of the project as the work is ramping up, grows steadily in the middle as the work is executed and then slows down again at the end as the work is completed.

Question 285

Which Project Management Knowledge Area spans across Initiating, Planning, Executing, and Monitoring and Controlling Process Groups?

Answer 285

Project Stakeholder Management

Question 286

Among three projects with low, medium and high opportunity costs, which project is most attractive?

Answer 286

Project with the lowest opportunity cost is the most attractive.

Question 287

Define Portfolio.

Answer 287

Projects, programs, subsidiary portfolios, and operations managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives.

Question 288

Progressive Elaboration vs Prototyping

Answer 288

Prototyping is a form of Progressive Elaboration.

Question 289

What is the formula for Point of Total Assumption (PTA)?

Answer 289

PTA ((Ceiling Price - Target Price) / Buyer’s Share Ratio) + Target Cost

Question 290

Which form of power of a Project Manager is the worst choice in most situations?

Answer 290

Punitive (or Coercive) Power

Question 291

Which form of power of a Project Manager is unlikely to buy commitment from team members?

Answer 291

Punitive (or Coercive) Power

Question 292

Penalty Power of a Project Manager is also known as?

Answer 292

Punitive or Coercive Power

Question 293

What is a schedule network diagram without a time-scale, commonly referred to as?

Answer 293

Pure Logic Diagram

Question 294

What is the formula for Present Value (PV)?

Answer 294

PV FV / (1 + r) ^ n where FV is the future value, r is the interest rate and n is the number of time periods

Question 295

Which type of risk analysis (qualitative or quantitative) is more important on most projects?

Answer 295

Qualitative

Question 296

Which process is performed first - Qualitative risk analysis or Quantitative risk analysis?

Answer 296

Qualitative risk analysis

Question 297

Which type of risk analysis is required on all projects?

Answer 297

Qualitative risk analysis

Question 298

Qualitative Risk Analysis vs Quantitative Risk Analysis

Answer 298

Qualitative risk analysis is the process of short-listing top priority risks on the project. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the impact of top priority risks, identified through the qualitative risk analysis process, on the project objectives. Qualitative analysis is faster and more cost-effective than quantitative analysis. Former must be done on all projects, but latter is optional.

Question 299

QA

Answer 299

Quality Assurance

Question 300

Who usually performs Manage Quality activities such as failure analysis, design of experiments, and quality improvement on the project?

Answer 300

Quality Assurance department

Question 301

Quality Assurance is ______________ (proactive or reactive), whereas Quality Control is ______________ (proactive or reactive).

Answer 301

Quality Assurance is <u>proactive</u>, whereas Quality Control is <u>reactive</u>.

Question 302

Manage Quality vs Quality Assurance

Answer 302

Quality Assurance is about using project processes effectively. Manage Quality includes all the quality assurance activities, and is also concerned with the product design aspects and process improvements. In other words, Quality Assurance is a subset of Manage Quality.

Question 303

Quality Audit vs Inspection

Answer 303

Quality Audit is a structured review of the project to determine whether it’s complying with policies, processes and procedures. Inspection is the process to check whether deliverables conform to standards. Audit is a QA function, whereas Inspection is a QC function. Audit is not just about finding problems, but also good practices of the project. Inspection is mostly for finding problems.

Question 304

Which technique is used to confirm the implementation of Approved Change Requests?

Answer 304

Quality Audits

Question 305

QC

Answer 305

Quality Control

Question 306

What are the outputs from Control Quality that go as inputs to Manage Quality?

Answer 306

Quality Control Measurements

Question 307

What is the term to describe documented results of quality control activities in the format specified during quality planning?

Answer 307

Quality Control Measurements

Question 308

QFD

Answer 308

Quality Function Deployment

Question 309

Quality vs Grade

Answer 309

Quality is the degree to which a deliverable meets the requirements. Grade is a category assigned to a product or a service that has the same functional use but different technical characteristics. For example, a software application may be of good quality (no defects, good performance, etc.), but low grade (limited features). Low grade may not be a problem, but low quality is almost always a problem.

Question 310

Which quality related plan is included in the Project Management Plan?

Answer 310

Quality Management Plan

Question 311

What is the formula for activity duration estimate range?

Answer 311

Range E ± σ where E is the estimated activity duration, and σ is the activity standard deviation.

Question 312

A Project Manager is able to get work done from a team member ahead of schedule because they are Tennis buddies. This is an example of which form of power of the project manager?

Answer 312

Referent Power

Question 313

What should we do if we determine that we have a potential conflict of interest?

Answer 313

Refrain from decision-making until we have made a full disclosure to the stakeholders and received their consensus to proceed.

Question 314

What should be done to a project if its NPV is less than zero?

Answer 314

Reject the project

Question 315

Which power is associated with Leadership?

Answer 315

Relational Power

Question 316

Which is one of the last things done as part of the project closure?

Answer 316

Release of the project team

Question 317

Define Fee.

Answer 317

Represents profit as a component of compensation to a seller.

Question 318

RFI

Answer 318

Request For Information

Question 319

RFP

Answer 319

Request For Proposal

Question 320

Which type of proposal request is most costly for the seller to respond to?

Answer 320

Request for Proposal (RFP)

Question 321

RFQ

Answer 321

Request For Quotation

Question 322

Requirements vs Product Scope

Answer 322

Requirements are “what” the customer needs. Requirements can be of many types. For example, product related requirements, performance requirements, quality requirements, project management requirements, etc. Whereas, Product Scope refers to requirements that specifically relate to the “product” of the project.

Question 323

Which project document is the key source of information for identifying project stakeholders?

Answer 323

Requirements documentation

Question 324

What are Regulations?

Answer 324

Requirements imposed by a governmental body.

Question 325

Why is Requirements Documentation an input to Plan Procurement Management?

Answer 325

Requirements on products, services or results to be delivered by the project need to be reviewed when making procurement decisions. Requirements can also have implications on the contract terms and conditions. For example, one of the requirements for a US Defense contract could be that all the personnel employed by the contractor must be US citizens.

Question 326

What are Project Funding Requirements?

Answer 326

Requirements that specify when funds need to be pumped into the project. They are derived from the cost baseline. Usually, funds are supplied in lump sum at specific times during the project.

Question 327

How is Reserve Analysis used in managing risks?

Answer 327

Reserve Analysis compares the amount of the contingency reserves remaining to the amount of risk remaining at any time in the project in order to determine if the remaining reserve is adequate. It is a technique used in the Monitor Risks process.

Question 328

Which Enterprise Environmental Factors may be used in Estimate Activity Resources?

Answer 328

Resource availability and skills

Question 329

RBS

Answer 329

Resource Breakdown Structure / Risk Breakdown Structure

Question 330

Which tool illustrates the number of hours a person, a department, or an entire project team is needed each week (or month) over the course of the project?

Answer 330

Resource Histogram

Question 331

What do you do when resources are loaded beyond the maximum number of hours available?

Answer 331

Resource Leveling

Question 332

Resource leveling is performed ___________ (before or after) analyzing the schedule with CPM.

Answer 332

Resource leveling is performed <u>after</u> analyzing the schedule with CPM.

Question 333

Resource Leveling vs Resource Smoothing

Answer 333

Resource Leveling is performed to balance the demand and supply of resources. Resource Smoothing is performed to achieve a more uniform resource utilization over a period of time. Resource Leveling may change the critical path, but Resource Smoothing does not.

Question 334

Resource leveling usually causes a(n) ___________ (increase or decrease) in the original critical path.

Answer 334

Resource leveling usually causes an <u>increase</u> in the original critical path.

Question 335

Resource Loading vs Resource Leveling

Answer 335

Resource Loading is to allocate work to project resources. Resource Leveling is the technique to produce a resource-limited schedule. For example, if the project requires 3 resources in May, 10 in June and 2 in July, but a maximum of only 4 resources are available, then resource leveling may be used to stretch out the project to work with 4 resources (May - 3; June - 4; July - 4; Aug - 4).

Question 336

What are the various reasons for performing Resource Leveling?

Answer 336

Resources are limited, over-allocated, or only available during certain times.

Question 337

Acting in an abusive manner violates which core value?

Answer 337

Respect

Question 338

By conducting ourselves in a professional manner, which core value do we exhibit?

Answer 338

Respect

Question 339

Infringing on the property rights of others is a violation of which core value?

Answer 339

Respect

Question 340

When we inform ourselves of norms and customs of others, which core value do we exhibit?

Answer 340

Respect

Question 341

When we listen to others’ viewpoint and try to understand them, which core value do we exhibit?

Answer 341

Respect

Question 342

Which XP value does the management reflect when they empower the team to have authority over their work?

Answer 342

Respect

Question 343

What are the key elements of Leadership?

Answer 343

Respect and Trust

Question 344

What are Contingent Response Strategies?

Answer 344

Response plans which may be used in the event that a specific trigger occurs.

Question 345

Accepting only those assignments that we are skilled or qualified to do demonstrates which core value?

Answer 345

Responsibility

Question 346

Fulfilling our commitment demonstrates which core value?

Answer 346

Responsibility

Question 347

RAM

Answer 347

Responsibility Assignment Matrix

Question 348

What is the fundamental difference between Accountability and Responsibility when it comes to delegation?

Answer 348

Responsibility can be delegated, but Accountability cannot be.

Question 349

Responsibility vs Accountability

Answer 349

Responsibility is the “obligation” to do something. Whereas, Accountability is the acceptance of success and failure. Responsibility can be delegated to some extent, but Accountability cannot.

Question 350

Responsibility vs Role

Answer 350

Responsibility is the duty to take ownership of one’s actions and the consequences of those actions. Role is a function that a person is assigned to perform. Example, project manager’s “role” is to manage the project and achieve its objectives, and it’s the project manager’s “responsibility” to ensure project success.

Question 351

RACI

Answer 351

Responsible, Accountable, Consult, And Inform

Question 352

What is the term to describe a lessons learned review meeting held at the end of an iteration in agile projects?

Answer 352

Retrospective

Question 353

ROI

Answer 353

Return on Investment

Question 354

(Gain from an investment - Cost of the Investment) / Cost of the Investment is the formula for?

Answer 354

Return on Investment (ROI)

Question 355

What is the purpose of knowledge management?

Answer 355

Reusing existing knowledge and creating new knowledge.

Question 356

What do we do with the risks on the watch list?

Answer 356

Review them periodically in the Monitor Risks process.

Question 357

What is important in order to make rewards effective?

Answer 357

Rewards will be effective only if they satisfy a need that is valued by that individual.

Question 358

Give examples of Internal Failure Costs.

Answer 358

Rework and Scrap

Question 359

Which technique examines the effectiveness of risk responses?

Answer 359

Risk Audits

Question 360

Risk Audits vs Risk Reviews

Answer 360

Risk Audits are used to assess the effectiveness of the risk management process. Risk Reviews are meetings to examine and document the effectiveness of risk responses.

Question 361

What is the benefit of categorizing risks during risk analysis?

Answer 361

Risk categorization can lead to development of more effective risk responses by focusing attention and effort on the areas of highest risk exposure.

Question 362

What are Prompt Lists used for?

Answer 362

Risk identification

Question 363

Which item should always be on the agenda at project status meetings?

Answer 363

Risk management

Question 364

Which document defines the frequency of Risk Audits on a project?

Answer 364

Risk Management Plan

Question 365

Why is Risk Register an input to Estimate Costs?

Answer 365

Risk mitigation costs need to be considered while estimating project costs.

Question 366

RPN

Answer 366

Risk Priority Number

Question 367

What is the output from Risk Management that goes as an input to Estimate Costs process?

Answer 367

Risk Register

Question 368

Which document lists the risk owners?

Answer 368

Risk Register

Question 369

What are the main outputs of the Identify Risks process?

Answer 369

Risk Register and Risk Report

Question 370

Risk Register vs Risk Report

Answer 370

Risk Register is a document that captures details of individual project risks. Risk Report is a document that summarizes information on individual project risks and the level of overall project risk.

Question 371

What is the output of Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

Answer 371

Risk Report updates

Question 372

What are the components of a Risk Management Plan?

Answer 372

Risk strategy; Methodology; Roles and responsibilities; Funding; Timing; Risk categories; Stakeholder risk appetite; Definitions of risk probability and impact; Probability and impact matrix; Reporting formats; and Tracking

Question 373

Risk Tolerance vs Risk Threshold

Answer 373

Risk Tolerances are the areas of risk that are either acceptable or unacceptable. For example, “we’ll not accept any risk to employees’ safety”. Risk Threshold is the point at which a risk moves from being acceptable to unacceptable. For example, “if the price of raw materials increases beyond 10%, we must employ the contingency plans for this risk”.

Question 374

What is the term to describe a risk symptom or warning sign?

Answer 374

Risk Trigger or Trigger Condition

Question 375

Apart from probability and impact, what are the other important factors in determining risk rating?

Answer 375

Risk urgency, proximity and dormancy

Question 376

When are risks identified on a project?

Answer 376

Risks can be identified anytime in the project life cycle.

Question 377

RTY

Answer 377

Rolled Throughput Yield

Question 378

What is Cost Aggregation?

Answer 378

Rolling up the cost estimates of individual work packages in the WBS into cost estimates for Control Accounts, and then further rolling up the estimates for Control Accounts into the cost estimates for the entire project.

Question 379

Progressive Elaboration vs Rolling Wave Planning

Answer 379

Rolling Wave Planning is a form of Progressive Elaboration.

Question 380

RCA

Answer 380

Root Cause Analysis

Question 381

ROM

Answer 381

Rough Order of Magnitude

Question 382

What is the formula for Risk Priority Number (RPN)?

Answer 382

RPN S x O x D where S is Severity or Impact, O is Occurrence or Probability, and D is Detection.

Question 383

What is the formula for Rolled Throughput Yield (RTY)?

Answer 383

RTY TPY of Process 1 * TPY of Process 2 * … * TPY of Process N where TPY is Throughput Yield

Question 384

Which model classifies project stakeholders by their power, urgency and legitimacy?

Answer 384

Salience Model

Question 385

Which stakeholder mapping model is useful for large complex communities of stakeholders?

Answer 385

Salience model

Question 386

SAFe^®

Answer 386

Scaled Agile Framework

Question 387

Which tool is used to determine correlation between two variables?

Answer 387

Scatter Diagram

Question 388

According to the research done by Thamhain and Wilemon, what is usually the top source of conflict across every phase of the project life cycle?

Answer 388

Schedule

Question 389

What does Schedule Performance Index (SPI) indicate?

Answer 389

Schedule efficiency of the project

Question 390

Which technique generates the project schedule model?

Answer 390

Schedule Network Analysis

Question 391

SPI

Answer 391

Schedule Performance Index

Question 392

What is the formula for schedule performance index using Earned Schedule (ES) method?

Answer 392

Schedule performance index using ES method is ES/AT, where ES is the Earned Schedule and AT is the Actual Time.

Question 393

What is a common name for Contingency Reserve?

Answer 393

Schedule Reserve

Question 394

SV

Answer 394

Schedule Variance

Question 395

What is the formula for schedule variance using Earned Schedule (ES) method?

Answer 395

Schedule variance using ES method is ES - AT, where ES is the Earned Schedule and AT is the Actual Time.

Question 396

What are Retrospective Reviews?

Answer 396

Scheduled reviews to record lessons learned.

Question 397

Schedule Model vs Project Schedule

Answer 397

Scheduling tool populated with project schedule data (e.g. activities, resources, duration estimates, etc.) is known as a Schedule Model. Assigning calendar dates to the Schedule Model results in the Project Schedule. In simple terms, Project Schedule Schedule Model + Calendar Dates.

Question 398

Is Scope Baseline considered a component of the Project Management Plan, or a project document?

Answer 398

Scope Baseline is a component of the Project Management Plan.

Question 399

Scope Creep vs Gold Plating

Answer 399

Scope Creep is adding features and functionality (project scope) without addressing the effects on time, costs, and resources, or without customer approval. Whereas, Gold Plating is giving customer extras like extra functionality, high quality, better performance than what is part of the project requirements. Gold Plating need not be only in terms of Scope.

Question 400

Validate Scope vs Control Quality

Answer 400

Scope validation differs from quality control in that scope validation is primarily concerned with acceptance of the deliverables, while quality control is primarily concerned with correctness of the deliverables and meeting the quality requirements specified for the deliverables. Quality control is generally performed before scope validation but the two can be performed in parallel as well.

Question 401

What is typically the shape of EV data curve of a project when plotted against time?

Answer 401

S-curve

Question 402

Who has the cost risk in a Fixed Price contract?

Answer 402

Seller

Question 403

Who is more concerned about the Point of Total Assumption (PTA) - buyer or seller - and why?

Answer 403

Seller, because cost overruns above PTA are not shared by the buyer.

Question 404

What is Target Fee?

Answer 404

Seller’s Fee or Profit.

Question 405

Which technique helps to determine the risks which have the most potential impact on the project?

Answer 405

Sensitivity Analysis

Question 406

What style of leadership is associated with Agile projects?

Answer 406

Servant leader

Question 407

What is servant leadership?

Answer 407

Servant leadership is the practice of leading through service to the team, by focusing on understanding and addressing the needs and development of team members in order to enable the highest possible team performance.

Question 408

SLA

Answer 408

Service Level Agreement

Question 409

What is the Rule of Seven?

Answer 409

Seven consecutive data points fall on the same side of the mean (either above or below the mean) on a control chart.

Question 410

Name a popular agile adoption pattern for teams new to agile.

Answer 410

Shu Ha Ri model

Question 411

Define Impediments.

Answer 411

Situations, conditions, and actions that slow down or hinder progress.

Question 412

What are the commonly used resource types?

Answer 412

Skill Level, Grade Level, and Required Certifications

Question 413

What are Interpersonal and Team Skills?

Answer 413

Skills used to effectively lead and interact with team members and other stakeholders. They are also known as Soft Skills.

Question 414

What are Interpersonal Skills?

Answer 414

Skills used to establish and maintain relationships with other people.

Question 415

What is another name for float?

Answer 415

Slack

Question 416

Project objectives must be?

Answer 416

SMART (Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic or Relevant, and Tangible or Time bound)

Question 417

What is another name for Interpersonal and Team Skills?

Answer 417

Soft Skills

Question 418

Who usually authorizes a project?

Answer 418

Someone external to the project such as a sponsor, a PMO representative, or a portfolio governing body representative.

Question 419

Who is a Functional Manager?

Answer 419

Someone with management authority over an organizational unit (such as manufacturing, finance, IT, etc.) within a functional organization. The manager of any group that actually makes a product or performs a service. Sometimes called a Line Manager.

Question 420

What is a Tool?

Answer 420

Something tangible (e.g. scheduling software, simulation program, template, etc.) that is used to perform an activity to produce a deliverable.

Question 421

What does Fait Accompli mean?

Answer 421

Something that cannot be changed or negotiated. For example, we cannot negotiate on government regulations.

Question 422

What is an Objective?

Answer 422

Something toward which work is to be directed, a strategic position to be attained, a purpose to be achieved, a result to be obtained, a product to be produced, or a service to be performed.

Question 423

Statement of Work (SOW) vs Project Scope Statement

Answer 423

SOW is the description of products, services or results to be supplied. Project Scope Statement is the description of project scope i.e. all the “work” that must be done to produce the products, services or results.

Question 424

What is meant by Communication Technology?

Answer 424

Specific tools, systems, computer programs, etc., used to transfer information among project stakeholders.

Question 425

What is the acronym to describe the characteristics of effective goals?

Answer 425

Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, and Timely (SMART)

Question 426

What is the range of Specification Limits for repetitive processes?

Answer 426

Specification Limits are not calculated based on the control charts, but are set by the customers.

Question 427

Specification Limits vs Control Limits

Answer 427

Specification Limits are set by the customers, whereas Control Limits are set by the project manager and appropriate stakeholders based on the organization’s quality standards. Control Limits are usually stricter than and within the Specification Limits.

Question 428

What is the formula for Schedule Performance Indicator (SPI)?

Answer 428

SPI EV / PV

Question 429

What is an agile team’s iteration known as in Scrum framework?

Answer 429

Sprint

Question 430

In which meeting does an agile team finalize the scope of a sprint or an iteration?

Answer 430

Sprint or Iteration Planning Meeting

Question 431

In which meeting does an agile team finalizes the scope of a sprint or an iteration?

Answer 431

Sprint or Iteration Planning Meeting

Question 432

Stakeholder ___________ should be identified and managed as a project objective.

Answer 432

Stakeholder <u>satisfaction</u> should be identified and managed as a project objective.

Question 433

Which technique identifies the interests, expectations, and influence of the stakeholders and relates them to the purpose of the project?

Answer 433

Stakeholder Analysis

Question 434

In which document or plan are the stakeholder management strategies documented?

Answer 434

Stakeholder Engagement Plan

Question 435

When should stakeholders be identified in the project?

Answer 435

Stakeholder identification and engagement should commence as soon as possible after the project charter has been approved, the project manager has been assigned, and the team begins to form.

Question 436

When is stakeholder identification performed on the project?

Answer 436

Stakeholder identification is a continuous process throughout the entire project life cycle.

Question 437

Which factors are greatest at the start of the project and decrease over the life of the project?

Answer 437

Stakeholder influences, risk, and uncertainty

Question 438

Why is Stakeholder Register an input to the Identify Risks process?

Answer 438

Stakeholder Register provides information on key stakeholders, whose input should be solicited for identifying project risks. It also details those stakeholders who can act as risk owners.

Question 439

What is a common way of representing the gap between the current and desired engagement levels of stakeholders?

Answer 439

Stakeholders Engagement Assessment Matrix

Question 440

Which statistical measure can be used to calculate the probability of completing a project by a given date or in a given time?

Answer 440

Standard Deviation

Question 441

What does the standard deviation of a project indicate about the project?

Answer 441

Standard deviation is a measure of the uncertainty or risk involved in the project.

Question 442

What are Criteria?

Answer 442

Standards, rules, or tests used as a basis for decision making, or for evaluating a product, service, result, or process.

Question 443

SF

Answer 443

Start-to-Finish

Question 444

SS

Answer 444

Start-to-Start

Question 445

SOW

Answer 445

Statement Of Work

Question 446

When is Statistical Sampling used?

Answer 446

Statistical Sampling is used when: - Not many defects are expected - Testing entire population would take too long - Testing is destructive - Testing is costly

Question 447

Give some examples of Work Performance Information.

Answer 447

Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, earned value measurements (SV, CV, SPI, CPI, etc.) and forecasted estimates to complete.

Question 448

Which stage of team development has the most potential for conflict, but is also necessary for the growth of the team?

Answer 448

Storming

Question 449

What is a commonly used measure for estimating user stories?

Answer 449

Story points

Question 450

What is commonly used unit of work estimation in agile projects?

Answer 450

Story points

Question 451

What drives the management of project portfolios?

Answer 451

Strategic plan of the organization

Question 452

SWOT

Answer 452

Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, And Threats

Question 453

What is needed for JIT manufacturing to be successful?

Answer 453

Strict adherence of quality standards by the suppliers.

Question 454

What is the term to describe the tendency where people start to apply themselves only at the last possible moment before the deadline?

Answer 454

Student Syndrome

Question 455

SME

Answer 455

Subject Matter Expert

Question 456

How is the success of a portfolio measured?

Answer 456

Success of a portfolio is measured in terms of the aggregate investment performance and benefit realization of the portfolio.

Question 457

How is a project’s success measured?

Answer 457

Success of a project is measured by product and project quality, timeliness, budget compliance, and degree of customer satisfaction.

Question 458

SYD

Answer 458

Sum of the Years Digit (a depreciation calculation method)

Question 459

What is the project planning term for grouping of subtasks or activities across multiple interdependent work packages, between milestones or a given time period?

Answer 459

Summary Activity

Question 460

The sum that has already been spent on a project and cannot be recovered is known as?

Answer 460

Sunk Cost

Question 461

What are the traits of top 2% project managers?

Answer 461

Superior relationship and communication skills while displaying a positive attitude.

Question 462

SIPOC

Answer 462

Supplier Input Process Output Customer

Question 463

What constitutes a Majority?

Answer 463

Support from more than 50 percent of the members of the group.

Question 464

What is Basis of Estimates?

Answer 464

Supporting documentation outlining the details used in establishing project estimates such as assumptions, constraints, level of detail, ranges, and confidence levels.

Question 465

What is the formula for Schedule Variance (SV)?

Answer 465

SV EV - PV

Question 466

Which performance indicators are used to analyze schedule variance?

Answer 466

SV and SPI; Total Float and Early Finish Variances

Question 467

What are Communication Methods?

Answer 467

Systematic procedures, techniques, or processes used to transfer information among project stakeholders.

Question 468

What is the advantage of Tacit Knowledge over Explicit Knowledge?

Answer 468

Tacit Knowledge has context built in, and is easier to understand and apply compared to Explicit Knowledge.

Question 469

What is passive risk acceptance?

Answer 469

Take no action, except to document the risk and let the project team deal with the risk as it occurs, and periodically review the threat to ensure that it does not change significantly.

Question 470

What are Checksheets?

Answer 470

Tally sheets that can be used as checklists when gathering data.

Question 471

What is the formula for Target Cost on a contract?

Answer 471

Target Cost Target Price - Target Fee

Question 472

What is the formula for Target Price on a contract?

Answer 472

Target Price Target Cost + Target Fee

Question 473

What is the formula for To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI) based on Budget At Completion (BAC)?

Answer 473

TCPI (BAC - EV) / (BAC - AC)

Question 474

What is the formula for To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI) based on Estimate At Completion (EAC)?

Answer 474

TCPI (BAC - EV) / (EAC - AC)

Question 475

Which plan describes when and how project human resource requirements will be met?

Answer 475

Team Management Plan

Question 476

What is Pre-Assignment?

Answer 476

Team members selected in advance are considered pre-assigned. Sometimes, pre-assigned resources are listed in the project charter itself.

Question 477

What is the main output of the Develop Team process?

Answer 477

Team Performance Assessments

Question 478

Team Performance Assessments vs Project Performance Appraisals

Answer 478

Team Performance Assessments are the assessments of the entire team’s performance. They are measured in terms such as on-time, on-budget, etc. Project Performance Appraisals are the appraisals of individual project team members’ performance.

Question 479

What is the best time for project managers to do team recognition?

Answer 479

Team recognition should be done throughout the life cycle of the project rather than waiting until the project is completed.

Question 480

What is a Technical Performance Analysis?

Answer 480

Technical performance analysis compares technical accomplishments against the targets during project execution. Technical performance measures such as system response time, data retrieval time, height, weight, number of errors per thousand transactions, etc. are used for the comparison.

Question 481

TECOP

Answer 481

Technical, Environmental, Commercial, Operational, Political

Question 482

What is Risk Data Quality Assessment?

Answer 482

Technique to evaluate the degree to which the data about risks is useful for risk management.

Question 483

What is Mind Mapping?

Answer 483

Technique used to consolidate ideas created through individual brainstorming sessions into a single map to reflect commonality and differences in understanding and to generate new ideas.

Question 484

What are Data Gathering Techniques?

Answer 484

Techniques used to collect data and information from a variety of sources.

Question 485

What are Data Analysis Techniques?

Answer 485

Techniques used to organize, assess, and evaluate data and information.

Question 486

What are Decision-Making Techniques?

Answer 486

Techniques used to select a course of action from different alternatives.

Question 487

TOR

Answer 487

Terms of Reference

Question 488

What is Actual Cost (AC)?

Answer 488

The “actual” cost incurred for the work accomplished. It is also referred to as the actual cost of work performed (ACWP).

Question 489

The _____________ is the longest path to complete the project.

Answer 489

The <u>Critical Path</u> is the longest path to complete the project.

Question 490

What are the 3 forms of waste in Lean?

Answer 490

The 3 forms of waste in Lean are: - Variability (mura) - Overburden (muri) - Non-value adding actions (muda)

Question 491

What are the six layers of the Agile Planning Onion?

Answer 491

The 6 layers of the Agile Planning Onion are Strategic, Portfolio, Product, Release, Iteration, and Daily.

Question 492

What are Facilitation?

Answer 492

The ability to effectively guide a group event to a successful decision, solution, or conclusion.

Question 493

Define Emotional Intelligence.

Answer 493

The ability to identify, assess, and manage the personal emotions of oneself and other people, as well as the collective emotions of groups of people.

Question 494

What are Management Skills?

Answer 494

The ability to plan, organize, direct, and control individuals or groups of people to achieve specific goals.

Question 495

What is Project Reporting?

Answer 495

The act of collecting and distributing project information.

Question 496

What is a Project Management System?

Answer 496

The aggregation of the processes, tools, techniques, methodologies, resources, and procedures to manage a project.

Question 497

What are the agile coaching styles that align with the Shu Ha Ri model?

Answer 497

The Agile coaching styles that align with the Shu-Ha-Ri model are: - Shu - Teaching - Ha - Coaching - Ri - Advising

Question 498

What is Free Float?

Answer 498

The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any successor activity or violating a schedule constraint.

Question 499

What is Total Float?

Answer 499

The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project or violating a schedule constraint.

Question 500

What is Negative Float?

Answer 500

The amount of time by which the early date (start or finish) of an activity exceeds its late date.