Deck 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Approximately what percentage of communication is non-verbal?

A

55%

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2
Q

In a normal distribution, what percentage of data values fall within 1 σ (standard deviation) of the mean?

A

68.27%

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3
Q

Approximately what percentage of project manager’s time is spent communicating?

A

90%

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4
Q

In a normal distribution, what percentage of data values fall within 2 σ (standard deviation) of the mean?

A

95.45%

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5
Q

In a normal distribution, what percentage of data values fall within 3 σ (standard deviation) of the mean?

A

99.73%

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6
Q

In a normal distribution, what percentage of data values fall within 6 σ (standard deviation) of the mean?

A

99.99%

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7
Q

Give at least 3 examples of Risk Triggers.

A
  • A milestone is missed
  • A key resource leaves the company
  • A competitor goes bankrupt
  • A 10% drop in the price of a raw material
  • Crude oil price touches $100 per barrel
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8
Q

Project Charter is an input to which processes (name any 4)?

A
  • Develop Project Management Plan
  • Plan Scope Management
  • Collect Requirements
  • Define Scope
  • Plan Schedule Management
  • Plan Cost Management
  • Plan Risk Management
  • Identify Stakeholders
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9
Q

Give at least three examples of noise in communication.

A
  • Distance
  • Physical noise
  • Any language that the receiver doesn’t understand
  • Unfamiliar technology
  • Lack of knowledge or interest
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10
Q

What are the three main types of Fixed Price contracts?

A
  • Firm Fixed Price (FFP)
  • Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)
  • Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA)
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11
Q

What are the three primary types of contracts?

A
  • Fixed Price (FP)
  • Cost Reimbursable (CR)
  • Time and Material (T&M)
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12
Q

What information about the project stakeholders does the Stakeholder Register typically contain?

A
  • Identification info (name, position, location, role, contact info)
  • Assessment info (requirements, expectations, influence, interest)
  • Stakeholder classification (internal/external, supporter/neutral/resistor)
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13
Q

What are the different aspects of Emotional Intelligence?

A
  • Inbound (e.g., self-management and self-awareness)

- Outbound (e.g., relationship management)

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14
Q

Give at least 3 examples of Quality Metrics.

A
  • On-time performance
  • Number of production issues per month
  • Defects per 1,000 lines of code
  • System Availability
  • Rework Index
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15
Q

Which Enterprise Environmental Factors are likely to be updated as part of the Manage Team process?

A
  • Organization’s performance appraisal database

- Employee skills database

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16
Q

What is difference between the role of a project manager and a PMO?

A
  • PM focuses on project objectives; PMO on major program scope changes
  • PM controls assigned project resources; PMO optimizes use of resources across projects
  • PM manages the project constraints (scope, schedule, cost, quality); PMO manages methodologies, standards, overall risks, and interdependencies among projects.
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17
Q

Give two examples of informal verbal communication.

A
  • Praising the team’s effort in a team meeting

- A conversation between two team members

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18
Q

What does the Project Charter contain? (8 Items PSHOSPRN)

A
  • Project Purpose, Project title, description and objectives
  • Success Criteria and Exit Criteria
  • High level requirements
  • Overall project risks
  • Summary milestone schedule & summary budget
  • Project manager’s name and authority level
  • Resources pre-assigned
  • Name and signature of the sponsor
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19
Q

List a few advantages of using Prototypes for requirement gathering.

A
  • Provides a “proof of concept” to attract funding
  • Gives visibility of the final product to the customers
  • Encourages active participation from the users
  • Cost effective (reduces development cost)
  • Reduces risk associated with the project
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20
Q

What is required to develop a WBS? (5 SPREO)

A
  • Scope Management Plan
  • Project Scope Statement
  • Requirements Documentation
  • Enterprise Environmental Factors (such as industry-specific WBS standards)
  • Organizational Process Assets (such as procedures, policies, WBS template, project files and lessons learned from previous projects, etc.)
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21
Q

________ is a probabilistic method, whereas ________ is deterministic. (Options: PERT / CPM)

A

<u>PERT</u> is a probabilistic method, whereas <u>CPM</u> is deterministic.

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22
Q

_________________ aligns projects, programs, or operations to the organizational strategy.

A

<u>Portfolio Management</u> aligns projects, programs, or operations to the organizational strategy.

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23
Q

______________ is a statistical method that determines the extent to which a relationship exists between two variables.

A

<u>Regression Analysis</u> is a statistical method that determines the extent to which a relationship exists between two variables.

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24
Q

What is the buyer/seller share ratio beyond the Point of Total Assumption (PTA)?

A

0:100 (because cost overruns above PTA are not shared by the buyer)

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25
Q

What are the three needs in McClelland’s Theory of Needs? (AFP)

A

1) Achievement
2) Affiliation
3) Power

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26
Q

What is/are the Project Resource Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group? (3)

A

1) Acquire Resources
2) Develop Team
3) Manage Team

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27
Q

How do Agile projects ensure quality? (4)

A

1) Frequent reviews throughout the project
2) Customer engagement with the team
3) Recurring retrospectives to check effectiveness of the quality processes
4) Incremental delivery

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28
Q

Whom do project managers have to negotiate with to get competent staff for the project?

A

1) Functional managers
2) Other project management teams in the organization
3) External organizations, vendors, contractors, etc.

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29
Q

What do basis of estimates typically include? (4)

A

1) How the estimate was developed
2) Assumptions and constraints
3) Range of estimates (e.g. $10,000 ± 10%)
4) Confidence level of the estimate

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30
Q

Root Cause Analysis is usually performed in which processes? (6 MMCIPM)

A

1) Monitor and Control Project Work
2) Manage Quality
3) Control Quality
4) Identify Risks
5) Plan Stakeholder Engagement
6) Manage Stakeholder Engagement

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31
Q

In which process(es) would you use Contract Management Systems? (2)

A

1) Plan Procurement Management

2) Conduct Procurements

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32
Q

Name all the Project Procurement Management processes (3).

A

1) Plan Procurement Management
2) Conduct Procurements
3) Control Procurements

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33
Q

What are the different ways in which a PMO supports project managers? (4)

A

1) PMO develops a common project management methodology, best practices and standards;
2) monitors compliance to standards, policies and procedures across projects;
3) manages interdependencies, coordinates communication, and manages shared resources among projects;
4) provides mentoring and coaching to project managers.

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34
Q

What are the main inputs of the Control Schedule process? (8 - SMP, SB, SB, PS, WPD, PC, RC, OPA)

A

1) Schedule Management Plan
2) Schedule Baseline
3) Scope Baseline
4) Project Schedule
5) Work Performance Data
6) Project Calendars
7) Resource Calendars
8) Organizational Process Assets

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35
Q

What are the main competing project constraints? (6)

A

1) Scope
2) Schedule
3) Cost
4) Quality
5) Resources
6) Risk

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36
Q

What are the components of the business value of a project? (5)

A

1) Shareholder value
2) Customer value
3) Employee knowledge
4) Channel partner value
5) Social value

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37
Q

What are the two parts of successful communication?

A
  1. Develop an appropriate communication strategy.

2. Carrying out the activities necessary to implement the communication strategy.

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38
Q

Name the four tools and techniques used in the Manage Project Knowledge process. EKII

A
  1. Expert judgment
  2. Knowledge management
  3. Information management
  4. Interpersonal and team skills
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39
Q

Arrange the following activities in the order in which they are performed in the Closing Process Group: Release the team; Close contract(s); Document lessons learned; Get formal acceptance from the customer.

A
  1. Get formal acceptance from the customer
  2. Close contract(s)
  3. Document lessons learned
  4. Release the team
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40
Q

What are the five Project Management Process Groups?

A
  1. Initiating
  2. Planning
  3. Executing
  4. Monitoring and Controlling
  5. Closing
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41
Q

What are the steps involved in resolving a conflict? (5 IDDAI)

A
  1. Investigate the conflict
  2. Decipher the source and stage of conflict
  3. Determine the root cause
  4. Analyze the context
  5. Implement and track solution
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42
Q

What is the correct order of tasks in the Closing Process Group? (7 - OTPDCAM)

A
  1. Obtain final acceptance of deliverables
  2. Transfer the ownership of deliverables to assigned stakeholders
  3. Perform administrative closure
  4. Distribute final project report
  5. Collate lessons learned
  6. Archive project documents
  7. Measure customer satisfaction
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43
Q

Which Enterprise Environmental Factors are used as inputs to the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process? (4 - OPSE)

A
  1. Organizational culture, political climate, and governance framework;
  2. Personnel administration policies;
  3. Stakeholder risk appetites;
  4. Established communication channels.
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44
Q

What are the two categories of Organizational Process Assets?

A
  1. Processes, policies, and procedures

2. Organizational knowledge bases

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45
Q

What is the range of preliminary estimates?

A

-15% to +30%

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46
Q

What is the range for Rough Order of Magnitude (ROM) estimates?

A

-25% to +75%

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47
Q

Mention 3 advantanges of timeboxing?

A
  • Increased focus on completing work
  • Limits scope creep and gold plating
  • Simplifies scheduling
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48
Q

What is the total number of project management processes defined in the PMBOK® Guide, 6th Edition?

A

49 processes, across 5 Process Groups and 10 Knowledge Areas

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49
Q

If a project is being done under a contract, who owns the “float”?

A

50% is owned by the buyer, and 50% by the seller

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50
Q

What is the 80/20 principle?

A

80% of the problems are due to 20% of the causes.

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51
Q

What is Pareto’s Law popularly known as?

A

80/20 principle

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52
Q

A backlog in a change-driven project is equivalent to _______________ in a plan-driven project.

A

A backlog in a change-driven project is equivalent to <u>Project Scope</u> in a plan-driven project.

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53
Q

What is a risk-adjusted backlog?

A

A backlog that contains activities relating to managing risk in addition to the usual features associated with delivering value.

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54
Q

What is a Resource Histogram?

A

A bar chart showing the amount of time that a resource is scheduled to work on a project over a given period of time.

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55
Q

What is a Histogram?

A

A bar chart used to plot the frequency of occurrence of a particular problem or situation. It can show the number of defects per deliverable, a ranking of the cause of defects, the number of times each process is noncompliant, or other representations of project or product defects in graphical form.

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56
Q

What is Material Breach?

A

A breach serious enough to destroy the value of the contract and give a basis for an action for breach of contract.

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57
Q

What is a Reserve?

A

A buffer in the Project Management Plan to account for cost and/or schedule risk.

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58
Q

Burndown Chart vs Burnup Chart

A

A Burndown Chart tracks how much work remains on your project and whether the deadline will be met. A Burnup Chart tracks how much work is done. It shows more information than a Burndown Chart because it also has a line showing how much work is in the project as whole and allows progress to be tracked independently of scope changes.

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59
Q

What are Affinity Diagrams?

A

A business tool used for organizing a large number of ideas into logical groups for review and analysis.

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60
Q

What is a Project Calendar?

A

A calendar of working and non-working days for a project. It typically defines holidays, weekends, and shift hours.

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61
Q

What is a Resource Calendar?

A

A calendar of working and nonworking days of a particular resource.

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62
Q

What is Grade?

A

A category assigned to a product or a service that has the same functional use but different technical characteristics.

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63
Q

What is a Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF) Contract?

A

A category of contract that involves payments to the seller for all legitimate actual costs incurred for completed work, plus an award fee representing seller profit.

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64
Q

What is an Application Area?

A

A category of projects that have common elements not present in all projects. It is usually defined in terms of either the product (i.e., by similar technologies or production methods) or the type of customer (i.e., internal versus external, government versus commercial) or industry sector (i.e., utilities, automotive, aerospace, information technologies, etc.). Application areas can overlap.

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65
Q

What is an Approved Change Request?

A

A change request that has been processed through the integrated change control process and approved.

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66
Q

What is an Iteration Burndown Chart?

A

A chart that tracks the work that remains to be completed in the iteration backlog.

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67
Q

What is a Configuration Management System?

A

A collection of procedures used to track project artifacts and monitor and control changes to these artifacts. It is a subsystem of the overall project management system.

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68
Q

Define System.

A

A collection of various components that together can produce results not obtainable by the individual components alone.

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69
Q

What is a RACI Chart?

A

A common type of responsibility assignment matrix that uses responsible, accountable, consult, and inform (RACI) statuses to define the involvement of stakeholders in project activities.

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70
Q

What is a Probability and Impact Matrix?

A

A common way to categorize risks as low, moderate, or high by combining the two dimensions of a risk: its probability of occurrence and its impact on objectives, if it occurs.

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71
Q

What is a Cost Management Plan?

A

A component of a project or program management plan that describes how costs will be planned, structured, and controlled.

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72
Q

What is a Requirements Management Plan?

A

A component of the Project Management Plan that describes how project and product requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed throughout the project.

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73
Q

What is a Resource Management Plan?

A

A component of the project management plan that describes how project resources are acquired, allocated, monitored, and controlled.

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74
Q

What is a Configuration Management Plan?

A

A component of the project management plan that describes how to identify and account for project artifacts under configuration control, and how to record and report changes to them.

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75
Q

What is a Change Management Plan?

A

A component of the project management plan that establishes the change control board, documents the extent of its authority, and describes how the change control system will be implemented.

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76
Q

What is a Stakeholder Engagement Plan?

A

A component of the project management plan that identifies the strategies and actions required to promote productive involvement of stakeholders in project or program decision making and execution.

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77
Q

What is a Procurement Management Plan?

A

A component of the project or program management plan that describes how a project team will acquire goods and services from outside of the performing organization.

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78
Q

What is a Quality Management Plan?

A

A component of the project or program management plan that describes how applicable policies, procedures, and guidelines will be implemented to achieve the quality objectives.

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79
Q

What is a Scope Management Plan?

A

A component of the project or program management plan that describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated.

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80
Q

What is a Schedule Management Plan?

A

A component of the project or program management plan that establishes the criteria and the activities for developing, monitoring, and controlling the schedule.

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81
Q

What is a Risk Management Plan?

A

A component of the project, program, or portfolio management plan that describes how risk management activities will be structured and performed.

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82
Q

What is a Communications Management Plan?

A

A component of the project, program, or portfolio management plan that describes how, when, and by whom information about the project will be administered and disseminated.

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83
Q

What is a Team Management Plan?

A

A component of the resource management plan that describes when and how project team members will be acquired and how long they will be needed.

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84
Q

Define Requirement.

A

A condition or capability that is required to be present in a product, service, or result to satisfy a business need.

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85
Q

What is a Quality Requirement?

A

A condition or capability that will be used to assess conformance by validating the acceptability of an attribute for the quality of a result.

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86
Q

What is the Smooth technique for conflict resolution?

A

A conflict resolution technique that emphasizes agreements rather than differences. It does not solve a problem, but merely brushes it under the carpet. It is also known as Accommodate technique.

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87
Q

What is the Compromise technique for conflict resolution?

A

A conflict resolution technique that involves finding a “common ground” that brings some degree of satisfaction to all the parties involved in the conflict. It results in a lose-lose situation.

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88
Q

What is the Collaborate technique for conflict resolution?

A

A conflict resolution technique that involves incorporating multiple viewpoints in order to come to a consensus.

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89
Q

What is the Withdraw technique for conflict resolution?

A

A conflict resolution technique that involves retreating away from or avoiding a conflict. It does not solve the problem and just “postpones” it. It usually isn’t the best technique for conflict resolution. It is also known as Avoid technique.

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90
Q

What is Problem Solve technique for conflict resolution?

A

A conflict resolution technique that involves solving the root cause of the conflict so that the conflict is permanently resolved. It leads to a win-win situation.

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91
Q

What is the Force technique for conflict resolution?

A

A conflict resolution technique that pushes one particular viewpoint at the expense of others. It generates a win-lose situation.

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92
Q

What is a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

A

A contract between a service provider (either internal or external) and the end user that defines the level of service expected from the service provider.

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93
Q

What is a Rough Order of Magnitude (ROM) estimate?

A

A cost estimate based on high level requirements and expert judgment.

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94
Q

What is Forward Pass?

A

A Critical Path Method (CPM) technique for calculating the early start and early finish dates by working forward from the project’s start date, in the network diagram.

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95
Q

What is Backward Pass?

A

A Critical Path Method (CPM) technique to calculate the late finish dates and late start dates by working backwards through the schedule model from the project end date.

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96
Q

Define Issue.

A

A current condition or situation that may have an impact on the project objectives.

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97
Q

What is a Decision Tree?

A

A decision support tool that uses a tree-like graph or model of decisions and their possible consequences.

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98
Q

What is a Cause and Effect Diagram?

A

A decomposition technique that helps trace an undesirable effect back to its root cause. It is also known as Fishbone Diagram or Ishikawa Diagram.

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99
Q

What is a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?

A

A deliverable-oriented hierarchical breakdown of all the work that needs to be done in order to achieve the project objectives.

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100
Q

What is a Logical Relationship?

A

A dependency between two activities, or between an activity and a milestone. The four possible types are: Finish-to-Start; Finish-to-Finish; Start-to-Start; and Start-to-Finish.

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101
Q

What is a Successor Activity?

A

A dependent activity that logically comes after another activity in a schedule. In other words, it’s the “to” activity of a logical relationship in a schedule network.

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102
Q

What is Double Declining Balance depreciation?

A

A depreciation method in which the depreciation rate is 200% (or double) that of the rate calculated with the Straight-Line depreciation.

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103
Q

What is Straight-line depreciation?

A

A depreciation method that assumes the same amount of depreciation for each year of a product’s life.

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104
Q

What are Quality Metrics?

A

A description of a project or product attribute and how to measure it.

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105
Q

What is Requirements Documentation?

A

A description of how individual requirements meet the business need for the project.

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106
Q

What is a Procurement Statement of Work?

A

A description of the procurement item in sufficient detail to allow prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the products, services, or results. It includes specifications, quantity desired, quality levels, performance data, period of performance, work location, and other requirements.

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107
Q

Define Vision.

A

A desired end state, often described as a set of desired objectives and outcomes.

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108
Q

What is a Definitive Estimate?

A

A detailed estimate developed from well defined information. It is in the range of -5% to +10%.

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109
Q

What is a Flowchart?

A

A diagrammatic representation of the inputs, process actions, and outputs of one or more processes within a system.

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110
Q

What is Organizational Learning?

A

A discipline concerned with the way individuals, groups, and organizations develop knowledge.

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111
Q

What is Negotiation?

A

A discussion aimed at reaching an agreement.

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112
Q

What is an Activity?

A

A distinct, scheduled portion of work performed during the course of a project.

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113
Q

Define Standard.

A

A document established by an authority, custom, or general consent as a model or example.

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114
Q

What is a Project Charter?

A

A document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the project. It outlines the project objectives, identifies the main stakeholders, and defines the authority of the project manager.

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115
Q

What is a Benefits Realization Plan?

A

A document outlining the activities necessary for achieving the planned benefits. It identifies a timeline and the tools and resources necessary to ensure the benefits are fully realized over time.

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116
Q

What is a Stakeholder Register?

A

A document that contains the name and contact information of all the stakeholders, their assessment (major requirements, expectations, influence), and their classification (internal/external and supporter/neutral/resistor).

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117
Q

What is a Project Organization Chart?

A

A document that graphically depicts the project team members and their interrelationships for a specific project.

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118
Q

What is a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) Dictionary?

A

A document that provides additional details on each element of the WBS, such as a unique ID for each element, description of the work to be done, deliverables, assumptions, milestones, etc.

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119
Q

What is a Team Charter?

A

A document that records the team values, agreements, and operating guidelines, as well as establishes clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members.

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120
Q

What is a Change Log?

A

A document used for recording all the changes that occur during a project and their current status. It also includes the dates when changes were made and the corresponding impact to schedule, cost and risk.

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121
Q

What is an Issue Log?

A

A document used for recording and monitoring the resolution of issues.

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122
Q

What is a Log?

A

A document used to record and track selected items (like changes, issues, etc.) during the execution of a process or an activity. Usually used with a modifier, such as issue, change, issue, or assumption.

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123
Q

What is a Business Case?

A

A documented economic feasibility study used to establish validity of the benefits of a selected component lacking sufficient definition, and that is used as a basis for the authorization of further project management activities. In simple terms, it’s the justification for doing a project.

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124
Q

What is a Project Team Directory?

A

A documented list of project team members, their project roles, and communication information.

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125
Q

What is Quality Function Deployment (QFD)?

A

A facilitated workshop technique used in manufacturing industry that helps transform customer needs (the voice of the customer [VOC]) into engineering characteristics for a product or service. These characteristics are then prioritized, and goals are set for achieving them.

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126
Q

What is an Assumption?

A

A factor that is considered to be true or certain for the purpose of planning, without demonstration or proof.

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127
Q

What is Cost-Benefit Analysis?

A

A financial analysis tool used to determine the benefits provided by a project against its costs.

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128
Q

What is an Imposed Date?

A

A fixed date imposed on a schedule activity or schedule milestone, usually in the form of a “start no earlier than” and “finish no later than” date.

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129
Q

What is a Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA) Contract?

A

A fixed-price contract, but with a special provision allowing for predefined final adjustments to the contract price due to changed conditions, such as inflation changes, or cost increases (or decreases) for specific commodities.

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130
Q

What is Rolling Wave Planning?

A

A form of progressive elaboration planning where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while the work far in the future is planned at a relatively higher level.

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131
Q

What is a Predictive Life Cycle?

A

A form of project life cycle in which the project scope, time, and cost are determined in the early phases of the life cycle.

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132
Q

What is an Interview?

A

A formal or an informal approach to elicit information from the stakeholders by talking to them directly.

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133
Q

What is a Change Request?

A

A formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline. It may include corrective actions, preventive actions, defect repairs, and updates to project documentation and plans.

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134
Q

What is a Change Control Board (CCB)?

A

A formally constituted group of stakeholders responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project, and for recording and communicating the decisions taken.

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135
Q

What is a Requested Change?

A

A formally documented change request that is submitted for approval to the integrated change control process.

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136
Q

Define Role.

A

A function that a person is assigned to perform. For example, a project manager’s role is to manage a project and achieve its objectives.

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137
Q

What is Conformance in the context of quality management system?

A

A general concept of delivering results that fall within the limits that define acceptable variation for a quality requirement.

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138
Q

What is meant by Information Radiator?

A

A generic term for any of a number of handwritten, drawn, printed or electronic displays which a team places in a highly visible location, so that all team members as well as passers-by can see the latest information at a glance. Examples include task board, burndown chart, incident report, continuous integration status, impediments list, etc.

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139
Q

What is a Schedule?

A

A generic term for project schedule, or schedule model.

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140
Q

What is a Bar Chart?

A

A graphic display of schedule-related information. Schedule activities or work breakdown structure components are listed down the left side of the chart, dates are shown across the top, and activity durations are shown as date-placed horizontal bars.

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141
Q

What is an S-Curve?

A

A graphical display of cumulative costs, labor hours, percentage of work, or other quantities, plotted against time. The S-shape of the curve results from the fact that factors such as cost and work completed are flat (low) at the beginning of a project, increase steadily as the project progresses, and then decline rapidly and become flat toward the end of the project.

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142
Q

What is a Control Chart?

A

A graphical display of the results of a process over time and against established control limits. Control Charts are used to determine whether a process is “in control” or in need of adjustment.

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143
Q

What is an Influence Diagram?

A

A graphical representation of a decision problem that shows decisions, uncertainties, and objectives, and how they influence each other.

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144
Q

What is a Burnup Chart?

A

A graphical representation of how much work is done. The total work is tracked on the vertical axis, with time along the horizontal. It allows progress to be tracked independently of scope changes. Though commonly used in Agile software development, these charts can be applied to any project containing measurable progress over time.

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145
Q

What is a Project Schedule Network Diagram?

A

A graphical representation of the logical relationships among the project schedule activities. Always drawn from left to right to reflect project work chronology.

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146
Q

What is a Burndown Chart?

A

A graphical representation of work left to do versus time. The outstanding work (or backlog) is often on the vertical axis, with time along the horizontal. It is useful for predicting when all of the work will be completed. Though commonly used in Agile software development, these charts can be applied to any project containing measurable progress over time.

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147
Q

What is a Requirements Traceability Matrix?

A

A grid that links product requirements from their origin to the deliverables that satisfy them.

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148
Q

What is a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)?

A

A grid that shows the project resources assigned to each work package.

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149
Q

What is Brainstorming?

A

A group creativity technique by which a group tries to find a solution for a specific problem by gathering a list of ideas spontaneously contributed by its members. It is particularly useful for identifying risks.

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150
Q

What is a Murder Board?

A

A group of people who try to find reasons to not pursue a project.

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151
Q

What is a Virtual Team?

A

A group of people with a shared goal who fulfill their roles with little or no time spent meeting face to face.

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152
Q

What is a Risk Category?

A

A group of potential causes of risk. Examples include technical, external, organizational, environmental, or project management.

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153
Q

What is a Summary Activity?

A

A group of related activities, which are displayed and reported as a single activity, between two milestones or in a given time period. Mainly used for management communication and better control. It is also known as Hammock Activity.

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154
Q

Define Program.

A

A group of related projects, subprograms, and program activities managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually.

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155
Q

What is a Project Management Knowledge Area?

A

A grouping of project management processes by areas of specialization.

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156
Q

What is a Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS)?

A

A hierarchical organization of project risks by risk categories or sources of risks.

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157
Q

What is a Resource Breakdown Structure?

A

A hierarchical structure of project resources by resource category and type.

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158
Q

What is an Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)?

A

A hierarchical structure of the organization that relates each project activity to the organizational unit responsible for it.

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159
Q

What is Kaizen?

A

A Japanese term - Kai (take apart) and Zen (make good). It’s process improvement technique.

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160
Q

What is Value Stream Mapping?

A

A lean enterprise technique used to document, analyze, and improve the flow of information or materials required to produce a product or service for a customer.

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161
Q

What is a Non Disclosure Agreement (NDA)?

A

A legal agreement between parties that outlines confidential material, knowledge, or information that the parties wish to share with each other for certain purposes, but wish to restrict access to by third parties. It is also known as Confidentiality Agreement.

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162
Q

What is the definition of Constraint?

A

A limiting factor that affects the execution of a project, program, portfolio, or process.

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163
Q

What is a Milestone List?

A

A list identifying all project milestones and normally indicates whether the milestone is mandatory or optional.

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164
Q

What is an Activity List?

A

A list of project activities that shows the activity description, activity identifier and a sufficiently detailed scope of work description so project team members understand what work is to be performed.

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165
Q

What is a Backlog?

A

A listing of product requirements and deliverables to be completed, written as stories, and prioritized by the business to manage and organize the project’s work.

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166
Q

What is a Project Phase?

A

A logical group of work within a project, usually resulting in a major deliverable. For example, phases for an IT project could be requirements, design, development, testing and implementation. Note: Project phases are NOT the same as Project Management Process Groups.

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167
Q

What is a Project Management Process Group?

A

A logical grouping of project management processes. For example, all planning processes are grouped under the Planning Process Group. Project Management Process Groups are not project phases.

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168
Q

What is a Dependency?

A

A logical relationship between two activities, or between an activity and a milestone. The four possible types are: Finish-to-Start; Finish-to-Finish; Start-to-Start; and Start-to-Finish. It is also known as Logical Relationship.

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169
Q

What is a Start-to-Start (SS) dependency?

A

A logical relationship in which a successor (“to”) activity cannot start until a predecessor (“from”) activity has started.

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170
Q

What is a Start-to-Finish (SF) dependency?

A

A logical relationship in which the predecessor (“from”) activity cannot finish until the successor (“to”) activity has started.

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171
Q

Logical Relationship vs Precedence Relationship

A

A Logical Relationship is a dependency between two schedule activities or a schedule activity and a schedule milestone. In Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM), a Logical Relationship is called a Precedence Relationship.

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172
Q

What is a Fishbowl Window?

A

A long-lived video conferencing link between the various locations in which the team is dispersed. People start the link at the beginning of a workday, and close it at the end. In this way, people can see and engage spontaneously with each other, reducing the collaboration lag.

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173
Q

What is a Control Account?

A

A management control point in the WBS where Earned Value measurements take place. It is also known as a Cost Account.

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174
Q

What is a Project Management Office (PMO)?

A

A management structure that standardizes the project-related governance processes and facilitates the sharing of resources, methodologies, tools, and techniques.

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175
Q

Master Schedule vs Milestone Schedule

A

A Master Schedule is a high level schedule that identifies the key deliverables and key milestones. A Milestone Schedule is a high level schedule that only identifies key milestones. So, Milestone Schedule can be considered as a subset of Master Schedule.

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176
Q

What is meant by Velocity?

A

A measure of a team’s productivity rate at which the deliverables are produced, validated, and accepted within a predefined interval. Velocity is a capacity planning approach frequently used to forecast future project work.

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177
Q

What is Cost Performance Index (CPI)?

A

A measure of cost efficiency on a project. It is the ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC).

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178
Q

What is Precision in the context of quality management?

A

A measure of exactness.

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179
Q

What is a Schedule Performance Index (SPI)?

A

A measure of schedule efficiency expressed as the ratio of Earned Value (EV) to Planned Value (PV).

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180
Q

What is Schedule Variance (SV)?

A

A measure of schedule performance expressed as the difference between the Earned Value (EV) and the Planned Value (PV).

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181
Q

What is a Focus Group?

A

A meeting that brings together key stakeholders and subject matter experts to learn about their expectations and attitudes about a proposed product, service, or result. It is conducted by a trained moderator.

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182
Q

What is a Risk Review?

A

A meeting to examine and document the effectiveness of risk responses in dealing with overall project risk and individual project risks.

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183
Q

What is Bottom-up Estimating?

A

A method of estimating project duration or cost by aggregating the estimates of the lower-level components of the work breakdown structure (WBS) into an overall estimate for the entire activity or work package.

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184
Q

Define Attribute Sampling.

A

A method of measuring quality that consists of noting the presence (or absence) of some characteristic (attribute) in each of the units under consideration.

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185
Q

What are Prototypes?

A

A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model (usually on a smaller scale) of the expected product before actually building it. They help customers visualize their end product and provide early feedback, and reduce the risks on the project.

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186
Q

What is Activity-on-Node (AON)?

A

A method of representing a precedence diagram.

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187
Q

What is Joint Application Development (JAD)?

A

A methodology that involves the customer or end users in the design and development of an application, through a series of collaborative workshops. It uses customer involvement and group dynamics to accurately depict the user’s view of the business need and to jointly develop a solution. It is used in the software development industry.

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188
Q

Define Knowledge.

A

A mixture of experience, values and beliefs, contextual information, intuition, and insight that people use to make sense of new experiences and information.

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189
Q

What is an Update?

A

A modification to any deliverable, project management plan component, or project document that is not under formal change control.

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190
Q

What is a Change (in the context of project management)?

A

A modification to any formally controlled deliverable, project management plan component, or project document.

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191
Q

Define Contract.

A

A mutually binding agreement that obligates the seller to provide the specified product or service or result and obligates the buyer to pay for it.

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192
Q

What is a Statement of Work (SOW)?

A

A narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by the project.

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193
Q

What is a Secondary Risk?

A

A new risk that emerges as a result of applying risk responses.

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194
Q

Histogram vs Pareto Diagram

A

A Pareto Diagram is a specific type of Histogram, ordered by frequency of occurrence. It shows how many defects were generated by type or category of the identified cause, and helps the project team focus on the causes creating the greatest number of defects.

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195
Q

What is a Template?

A

A partially complete document in a predefined format that provides a defined structure for collecting, organizing, and presenting information and data.

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196
Q

Who is a Sponsor?

A

A person or group who provides resources and support for the project, program, or portfolio and is accountable for enabling success.

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197
Q

Define Stakeholder.

A

A person, group, or organization (e.g., customer, sponsor, performing organization, or the public) that is actively involved in a project, or whose interests may be positively or negatively affected by the project.

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198
Q

What is a Contingency Plan?

A

A plan specifying the actions to be taken when a risk event (positive or negative) occurs.

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199
Q

What is a Fallback Plan?

A

A plan specifying the alternative set of actions to be taken if the primary plan is not effective in dealing with a risk event.

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200
Q

What is a Node?

A

A point at which dependency lines connect on a schedule network diagram.

201
Q

What is meant by Quality Policy?

A

A policy specific to the Project Quality Management Knowledge Area, it establishes the basic principles that should govern the organization’s actions as it implements its system for quality management.

202
Q

Define Specification.

A

A precise statement of the needs to be satisfied and the essential characteristics that are required. Examples are: requirement specification, design specification, product specification, and test specification.

203
Q

What is a Prompt List?

A

A predetermined list of risk categories that might give rise to individual project risks and that could also act as sources of overall project risk.

204
Q

What is a Technique?

A

A procedure employed by a human to perform an activity to produce a deliverable. Technique may employ one or more tools.

205
Q

What is a Work Authorization?

A

A process for sanctioning project work to ensure that the work is done by the person or organization, at the right time, and in the proper sequence.

206
Q

What is JIT Manufacturing?

A

A process in which raw materials are delivered just in time for use, thus eliminating costs associated with inventory handling, maintenance and even inspection.

207
Q

What are Independent Estimates?

A

A process of using a third party to obtain and analyze information to support prediction of cost, schedule, or other items.

208
Q

What is Monte Carlo Simulation?

A

A process to generate a probability distribution for the overall project duration or cost by running multiple trial runs, called simulations, using input values selected at random from probability distributions of individual activity durations or costs.

209
Q

What is Value Engineering?

A

A product analysis technique to perform the same work at lesser cost. It is also known as Value Analysis or Value Management.

210
Q

Product vs Deliverable

A

A Product is an end item or a component of the end item produced by a project (e.g. a building, a software application, etc.). A Deliverable is any tangible output produced by the project. It could be a product, service or result. Product is a type of Deliverable.

211
Q

Product vs Result

A

A Product is an end item or a component of the end item produced by a project (e.g. a building, a software application, etc.). A Result could be an outcome (e.g. a business process, an upgraded system, a research study, trained resources, etc.) or a document (e.g. a new policy document, a training plan, a research report, etc.). Both Product and Result are considered deliverables of the project.

212
Q

What is the relationship between project life cycle and product life cycle?

A

A product life cycle may involve one or more project life cycles.

213
Q

What is an Output?

A

A product, result, or service generated by a process.

214
Q

How is the success of a program measured?

A

A program’s success is measured by the program’s ability to deliver its intended benefits to an organization, and by the program’s efficiency and effectiveness in delivering those benefits.

215
Q

What is a Risk Report?

A

A project document developed progressively throughout the Project Risk Management processes, which summarizes information on individual project risks and the level of overall project risk.

216
Q

What is a Quality Report?

A

A project document that includes quality management issues, recommendations for corrective actions, and a summary of findings from quality control activities and may include recommendations for process, project, and product improvements.

217
Q

What is an Assumption Log?

A

A project document used to record all assumptions and constraints throughout the project life cycle.

218
Q

What is a Lessons Learned Register?

A

A project document used to record knowledge gained during a project so that it can be used in the current project and entered into the lessons learned repository for future projects.

219
Q

Project Life Cycle vs Product Life Cycle

A

A Project Life Cycle is a series of phases from concept to closure through which a project passes through. A Product Life Cycle is a series of phases from concept to end of life (or disposal) through which a product passes through. A product life cycle may contain one or more project life cycles.

220
Q

What is an Adaptive Life Cycle?

A

A project life cycle that is iterative or incremental. Its iterations are very rapid (usually 2-4 weeks in length) and are fixed in time and resources.

221
Q

What is an Iterative Life Cycle?

A

A project life cycle where the project scope is generally determined early in the project life cycle, but time and cost estimates are routinely modified as the project team’s understanding of the product increases. The product is developed through a series of repeated cycles, while increments successively add to the functionality of the product.

222
Q

What is Project Integration Management?

A

A Project Management Knowledge Area that includes the processes and activities needed to identify, define, combine, unify, and coordinate the various processes and project management activities within the Project Management Process Groups.

223
Q

What is Project Quality Management?

A

A Project Management Knowledge Area that includes the processes for incorporating the organization’s quality policy regarding planning, managing, and controlling project and product quality requirements, in order to meet stakeholders’ expectations.

224
Q

What is Project Cost Management?

A

A Project Management Knowledge Area that includes the processes involved in planning, estimating, budgeting, financing, funding, managing, and controlling costs so that the project can be completed within the approved budget.

225
Q

What is Project Procurement Management?

A

A Project Management Knowledge Area that includes the processes necessary to purchase or acquire products, services, or results needed from outside the project team.

226
Q

What is Project Risk Management?

A

A Project Management Knowledge Area that includes the processes of conducting risk management planning, identification, analysis, response planning, response implementation, and monitoring risk on a project.

227
Q

What is Project Scope Management?

A

A Project Management Knowledge Area that includes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.

228
Q

What is Project Communications Management?

A

A Project Management Knowledge Area that includes the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate planning, collection, creation, distribution, storage, retrieval, management, control, monitoring, and the ultimate disposition of project information.

229
Q

What is Project Stakeholder Management?

A

A Project Management Knowledge Area that includes the processes required to identify the people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by the project, to analyze stakeholder expectations and their impact on the project, and to develop appropriate management strategies for effectively engaging stakeholders in project decisions and execution.

230
Q

What is Project Schedule Management?

A

A Project Management Knowledge Area that includes the processes required to manage the timely completion of a project.

231
Q

What is Project Resource Management?

A

A Project Management Knowledge Area that includes the processes to identify, acquire, and manage the resources needed for the successful completion of the project.

232
Q

Define Earned Value Management (EVM).

A

A project management methodology that integrates scope, schedule and cost to measure project performance and progress in an objective manner.

233
Q

What is Variance Analysis?

A

A project management technique to assess the magnitude of variance (in scope, time, cost, quality, etc.) from the baseline and determine whether corrective or preventive action is required.

234
Q

What is a Master Schedule?

A

A project schedule in summary form that identifies major deliverables and milestones. It is also referred to as Milestone Schedule.

235
Q

What is a Milestone Schedule?

A

A project schedule in summary form that identifies major milestones.

236
Q

What is a Time-Scaled Schedule Network Diagram?

A

A project schedule network diagram in the form of a bar chart where bars represent activities, and the length of the bars represent activity durations.

237
Q

Project Team vs Project Management Team

A

A Project Team is comprised of the project manager, project management team, and other team members. Project Management Team includes a subset of Project Team members who are directly involved in project management activities.

238
Q

What is the relationship between a project vision and project objectives?

A

A project vision sets the overall picture of the project, and project objectives qualify this vision and make it specific.

239
Q

What is Variance At Completion (VAC)?

A

A projection of the amount of budget deficit or surplus, expressed as the difference between the Budget at Completion (BAC) and the Estimate at Completion (EAC).

240
Q

What is Storyboarding?

A

A prototyping technique showing sequence or navigation through a series of images or illustrations.

241
Q

What is an Indemnification Clause?

A

A provision in a contract in which one party agrees to be financially responsible for specified types of damages, claims, or losses.

242
Q

What is Force Majeure?

A

A provision in a contract that excuses the parties involved from any liability or contractual obligations because of acts of God, wars, terrorism, or other such events.

243
Q

What is Statistical Sampling?

A

A quality control technique that involves choosing a random sample from a population of interest, for inspection. It is used when not many defects are expected, testing entire population would take too long, testing is destructive or testing is costly. The sample frequency and size are established in the Plan Quality Management process.

244
Q

What is a Matrix Diagram?

A

A quality management and control tool used to perform data analysis within the organizational structure created in the matrix. The matrix diagram seeks to show the strength of relationships between factors, causes, and objectives that exist between the rows and columns that form the matrix.

245
Q

What is a Prioritization Matrix?

A

A quality management planning tool used to identify key issues and evaluate suitable alternatives to define a set of implementation priorities.

246
Q

What is Activity Duration Estimate?

A

A quantitative assessment of the likely amount of time required to complete an activity.

247
Q

What is an Estimate?

A

A quantitative assessment of the likely amount or outcome of a variable, such as project costs, resources, effort, or durations. It should always include some indication of accuracy (e.g., ± x percent).

248
Q

What is Sensitivity Analysis?

A

A quantitative risk analysis and modeling technique used to help determine which risks have the most potential impact on the project. It examines the extent to which the uncertainty of each project element affects the objective being examined when all other uncertain elements are held at their baseline values. The typical display of results is in the form of a Tornado Diagram.

249
Q

What is Brain Writing?

A

A refinement of brainstorming that allows individual participants time to consider the question(s) individually before the group creativity session is held.

250
Q

What is an External Dependency?

A

A relationship between project activities and non-project activities. Such a dependency is usually outside the project team’s control. Example - The building construction can start only after the government permit is obtained.

251
Q

What is an Internal Dependency?

A

A relationship between/among project activities. Such a dependency is usually within the project team’s control. Example - Developers need to complete coding the application before testers can test it.

252
Q

What is Path Convergence?

A

A relationship in which a schedule activity has more than one predecessor.

253
Q

What is Path Divergence?

A

A relationship in which a schedule activity has more than one successor.

254
Q

What is a Mandatory Dependency?

A

A relationship that is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work. Example - Foundation needs to be laid before the building can be erected. It is also known as Hard Logic or Hard Dependency.

255
Q

What is a Discretionary Dependency?

A

A relationship that is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or an aspect of the project where a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences. Example - The building construction should start after the rainy season is over. It is also known as Preferred Logic, Preferential Logic, or Soft Logic.

256
Q

What is Pareto’s Law?

A

A relatively small number of causes will typically produce a majority of the problems or defects. It is commonly known as the 80/20 principle.

257
Q

What is Remote Pairing?

A

A replacement for face-to-face pairing using virtual conferencing tools to share screens, including voice and video links.

258
Q

What is a Risk Register?

A

A repository in which outputs of risk management processes are recorded. It typically includes the list of identified risks along with their description, category, probability, impact, planned responses, owners and status.

259
Q

What is a Schedule Model?

A

A representation of the plan for executing the project’s activities including durations, dependencies, and other planning information, used to produce a project schedule along with other scheduling artifacts.

260
Q

What is a Claim?

A

A request, demand, or assertion of rights by a seller against a buyer, or vice versa, for consideration, compensation, or payment under the terms of a legally binding contract, such as for a disputed change.

261
Q

What is a Buffer?

A

A reserve in the Project Management Plan to account for cost and/or schedule risk. It is also known as Reserve.

262
Q

What is Resource Leveling?

A

A resource optimization technique to produce a resource-limited schedule. It alters the project schedule to reduce the extreme variations in resource usage, and achieve a more stable usage over the course of a project.

263
Q

Result vs Deliverable

A

A Result is an output of a process or an activity. It could be an outcome (e.g. a business process, an upgraded system, a research study, a trained resource, etc.) or a document (e.g. a new policy document, a training plan, a research report, etc.). A Deliverable is any tangible output produced by the project. It could be a product, service or result. Result is a type of Deliverable.

264
Q

What is a Phase Gate?

A

A review at the end of a phase in which a decision is made to continue to the next phase, to continue with modification, or to end a project or program.

265
Q

What is Approved Change Requests Review?

A

A review of the change requests to verify that these were implemented as approved.

266
Q

What is Risk Avoidance?

A

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to eliminate the threat or protect the project from its impact.

267
Q

What is Risk Exploiting?

A

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to ensure that an opportunity occurs.

268
Q

What is Risk Enhancement?

A

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to increase the probability of occurrence or impact of an opportunity.

269
Q

What is Risk Mitigation?

A

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a threat.

270
Q

What is Risk Sharing?

A

A risk response strategy whereby the project team allocates ownership of an opportunity to a third party who is best able to capture the benefit of that opportunity.

271
Q

What is Risk Acceptance?

A

A risk response strategy whereby the project team decides to acknowledge the risk and not take any action unless the risk occurs.

272
Q

What is Risk Transference?

A

A risk response strategy whereby the project team shifts the impact of a threat to a third party, together with ownership of the response.

273
Q

What is Risk Escalation?

A

A risk response strategy whereby the team acknowledges that a risk is outside of its sphere of influence and shifts the ownership of the risk to a higher level of the organization where it is more effectively managed.

274
Q

A risk that has occurred should be considered as ____________.

A

A risk that has occurred should be considered as <u>an issue</u>.

275
Q

What is a Pure Risk?

A

A risk that only provides a chance for a loss. It is also known as an Insurable risk.

276
Q

What is a Business Risk?

A

A risk that provides an opportunity of profit or loss. The risk may be a threat or an opportunity.

277
Q

What is a Residual Risk?

A

A risk that remains after risk responses have been implemented.

278
Q

What is a Near-Critical Activity?

A

A schedule activity that has low total float.

279
Q

What is Crashing?

A

A schedule compression technique that involves determining an approach that brings maximum reduction in project duration with least incremental cost and risk, and without changing the scope.

280
Q

What is Fast Tracking?

A

A schedule compression technique that reduces the project duration by performing critical path activities in parallel that were originally planned to be performed in sequence.

281
Q

What is Critical Path Method (CPM)?

A

A schedule network analysis technique used to determine the minimum project duration by analyzing the amount of schedule flexibility (or float) on various paths in the project schedule network.

282
Q

What is a Network Loop?

A

A schedule network path that passes the same node twice. Network loops cannot be analyzed using traditional schedule network analysis techniques such as the Critical Path Method.

283
Q

What is a Network Path?

A

A sequence of activities connected by logical relationships in a project schedule network diagram.

284
Q

Define Procedure.

A

A sequence of steps that is used to execute a process in order to accomplish a consistent performance or result.

285
Q

What is a Project Life Cycle?

A

A series of phases from concept to closure through which a project passes through. For example, phases for an IT project could be requirements, design, development, testing and implementation.

286
Q

What is a Product Life Cycle?

A

A series of phases, from concept to end-of-life, that a product passes through. A typical product life cycle may include the following phases: concept, definition, production, operation, and obsolescence (retirement or disposal).

287
Q

What are the traits of a servant leader?

A

A servant leader demonstrates commitment to serve and put other people first.

288
Q

What is a Key Performance Indicator (KPI)?

A

A set metric used to evaluate a team’s performance against the project vision and objectives.

289
Q

What are Source Selection Criteria?

A

A set of attributes desired by the buyer which a seller is required to meet or exceed to be selected for a contract.

290
Q

What are Acceptance Criteria?

A

A set of conditions that is required to be met before deliverables are accepted.

291
Q

What is an Incentive Fee?

A

A set of financial incentives related to cost, schedule, or technical performance of the seller.

292
Q

What is a Project Team?

A

A set of individuals who support the project manager in performing the work of the project to achieve the project’s objectives.

293
Q

What is an Activity Code?

A

A set of numeric or alpha-numeric characters that categorize the schedule activity. It allows for filtering and ordering of activities within reports.

294
Q

What is a Change Control System?

A

A set of procedures for managing and controlling changes to the project documents and deliverables. It’s a subset of the Configuration Management System.

295
Q

What are Ground Rules?

A

A set of rules that establish clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members. Ground rules are very important in any professional setup.

296
Q

What is Design for X?

A

A set of technical guidelines that may be applied during the design of a product for the optimization of a specific aspect of the design.

297
Q

What is a Milestone?

A

A significant point or event in a project, program, or portfolio, for example, completing a key deliverable.

298
Q

Give an example of Analogous estimating.

A

A similar, but less complex application took 8 man months for development. The new application development should take about 10 man months.

299
Q

What is Scrum?

A

A single-team process framework used to manage product development.

300
Q

Define Minimum Marketable Feature (MMF).

A

A small, self-contained feature that can be developed quickly and that delivers significant value to the user.

301
Q

What is a Common Cause?

A

A source of variation that is inherent in the system and predictable. On a control chart, it appears as random data points within the control limits. It is also referred to as random cause.

302
Q

What is a Special Cause?

A

A source of variation that is not inherent in the system, and is unpredictable and intermittent. It can be assigned to a defect in the system. On a control chart, it appears as data points outside the control limits or non-random points within the control limits. It is also referred to as Assignable Cause.

303
Q

What is a Tornado Diagram?

A

A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables.

304
Q

Define Practice.

A

A specific type of professional or management activity that contributes to the execution of a process and that may employ one or more techniques and tools.

305
Q

What is the Fixed Formula Method of calculating earned value?

A

A specified percentage of budget value is assigned when a work package is started, and the remaining budget value percentage is assigned when the work package is complete.

306
Q

Who is a Negative Stakeholder?

A

A stakeholder whose interests are negatively impacted by the project, or who is not interested in the success of the project. Such stakeholders may work to make the project a failure.

307
Q

Define Customer Satisfaction in the context of quality management.

A

A state of fulfillment in which the needs of a customer are met or exceeded for the customer’s expected experiences as assessed by the customer at the moment of evaluation.

308
Q

What is Standard Deviation?

A

A statistical concept that gives a measure of the “spread” of the values of a random variable around the mean of a distribution. It shows how much variation there is from the average or the mean value.

309
Q

What is Design of Experiments (DOE)?

A

A statistical method for identifying which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production.

310
Q

What is Expected Monetary Value (EMV) Analysis?

A

A statistical technique that calculates the profit or loss of an outcome (e.g. a project) based on different scenarios, by taking into consideration the probability of occurrence and the expected profit or loss from each scenario. It is commonly used in Decision Tree Analysis.

311
Q

What is a Lessons Learned Repository?

A

A store of historical information about lessons learned from previous projects, such as issues faced, things done right, things gone wrong, decisions made, etc. This is an integral part of the process of continuous improvement.

312
Q

What is meant by Last Responsible Moment (LRM)?

A

A strategy of not making a premature decision but instead delaying commitment and keeping important and irreversible decisions open until the cost of not making a decision becomes greater than the cost of making a decision.

313
Q

Define Policy.

A

A structured pattern of actions adopted by an organization such that the organization’s policy can be explained as a set of basic principles that govern the organization’s conduct.

314
Q

What is a Quality Audit?

A

A structured, independent process to determine if project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures.

315
Q

What is Empirical Process Control?

A

A style of work used in agile that leverages the principles of inspection, adaptation, and transparency.

316
Q

What is Level of Effort (LOE)?

A

A support activity which is difficult to measure but is directly related to the project’s objectives. It usually consists of short amounts of work which must be repeated periodically. Examples of such an activity may be project budget accounting, customer liaison, etc.

317
Q

Define Methodology.

A

A system of practices, techniques, procedures, and rules used by those who work in a discipline.

318
Q

What is a Work Authorization System?

A

A system used by project managers to authorize the start of work packages or activities. It is subsystem of the project management system.

319
Q

What is a Contract Change Control System?

A

A system used to collect, track, adjudicate, and communicate changes to a contract.

320
Q

What is the definition of a Process?

A

A systematic series of activities directed towards causing an end result such that one or more inputs will be acted upon to create one or more outputs.

321
Q

What is a Self-Organizing Team?

A

A team formation where the team functions with an absence of centralized control.

322
Q

What is Resource Smoothing?

A

A technique aimed to “smoothen” or achieve a more uniform resource utilization over a period of time. For example, instead of using 7 resources in Month 1 and 3 resources in Month 2, it is better to use 5 resources each month as long as the activities stay within their free and total float.

323
Q

What is Risk Priority Number (RPN) methodology?

A

A technique for analyzing the risk associated with potential problems identified during Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA). RPN is calculated by multiplying Severity (S) or Impact, Occurrence (O) or Probability, and Detection (D). RPN S x O x D.

324
Q

What is Decomposition?

A

A technique for breaking down major project scope and deliverables into smaller, more manageable components.

325
Q

What is Checklist Analysis?

A

A technique for systematically reviewing materials using a list for accuracy and completeness.

326
Q

What is Value Analysis?

A

A technique of analyzing the functions of an item, assigning values to those functions, and providing the functions at the lowest overall cost without loss of performance. In simple words, value analysis is about doing the same work at lesser cost.

327
Q

What is Funding Limit Reconciliation?

A

A technique that compares the funding available in each time period (say a month) to the planned expenditure in that time period to ensure that the planned expenditure is within the available funding. It is used in the Determine Budget process.

328
Q

What is Decision Tree Analysis?

A

A technique that employs decision trees to compare the outcomes of different scenarios in terms of their expected monetary values, in order to support decisions. It incorporates the probability and the cost or reward of each scenario to calculate the expected monetary value of the scenario.

329
Q

What is Nominal Group Technique?

A

A technique that enhances Brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for further brainstorming or for prioritization.

330
Q

What is a Resource Optimization Technique?

A

A technique that is used to adjust the start and finish dates of activities by adjusting planned resource use to be equal to or less than resource availability.

331
Q

What are Performance Reviews?

A

A technique that is used to measure, compare, and analyze actual performance of work in progress on the project against the baseline.

332
Q

What is Observation/Conversation?

A

A technique that provides a direct way of viewing individuals in their environment performing their jobs or tasks and carrying out processes. It is also known as “job shadowing”.

333
Q

What is Multicriteria Decision Analysis?

A

A technique that utilizes a decision matrix to provide a systematic analytical approach for establishing criteria, such as risk levels, uncertainty, and valuation, to evaluate and rank many ideas.

334
Q

What is Process Analysis?

A

A technique to analyze a process in order to identify bottlenecks or problems, root causes of problems, non-value adding activities in the process and areas for improvement. It includes root cause analysis.

335
Q

What is Make-or-Buy Analysis?

A

A technique to determine whether to accomplish a particular work in-house (make) or procure it from an external organization (buy). Both direct and indirect costs should be considered while making such decisions.

336
Q

What is Schedule Network Analysis?

A

A technique to identify early and late start dates, as well as early and late finish dates, for the uncompleted portions of project activities. Examples include Critical Path Method, Critical Chain Method, What-If Analysis, and Resource Leveling.

337
Q

What is Communication Styles Assessment?

A

A technique to identify the preferred communication method, format, and content for stakeholders for planned communication activities.

338
Q

What is Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)?

A

A technique used for constructing a schedule model in which activities are represented by nodes and are graphically linked by one or more logical relationships to show the sequence in which the activities are to be performed. It is also known as Activity-On-Node (AON) method.

339
Q

What is Trend Analysis?

A

A technique used for identifying patterns (or trends) in historical information, in order to predict future events.

340
Q

What is What-If Scenario Analysis?

A

A technique used to develop and control project schedule by assessing the feasibility of project schedule under various scenarios. It works by asking questions such as “what if scenario X happens?”.

341
Q

What is Alternatives Analysis?

A

A technique used to evaluate identified options in order to select the options or approaches to use to execute and perform the work of the project.

342
Q

What is a Product Box Exercise?

A

A technique used to explain an overarching solution wherein stakeholders try to describe aspects of a solution in the same way a marketer might describe product features and benefits on a box (or product packaging).

343
Q

What is Adjusting Leads and Lags?

A

A technique used to find ways to bring project activities that are behind into alignment with plan during project execution.

344
Q

What is Stakeholder Analysis?

A

A technique used to identify the stakeholders, and their interest, experience and influence on the project.

345
Q

What is Dependency Determination?

A

A technique used to identify the type of dependency that is used to create the logical relationships between predecessor and successor activities.

346
Q

What is Schedule Compression?

A

A technique used to shorten the schedule duration without reducing the project scope. Examples include Crashing and Fast Tracking.

347
Q

Define Project.

A

A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

348
Q

What is Project Management Body of Knowledge?

A

A term that describes the knowledge within the profession of project management. The project management body of knowledge includes proven traditional practices that are widely applied as well as innovative practices that are emerging in the profession.

349
Q

What is McGregor’s Theory X?

A

A theory that assumes that the average worker is inherently lazy, avoids work and responsibility, and requires supervision.

350
Q

What is McGregor’s Theory Y?

A

A theory that assumes that the average worker is willing to get the job done without constant supervision and seeks opportunity for personal improvement and self-respect.

351
Q

What is McClelland’s Theory of Needs?

A

A theory that says that an individual’s needs are acquired over time and are shaped by his/her life experiences. Most of the needs can be classified into 3 categories - Achievement, Affiliation and Power. It is also known as Acquired Needs Theory, Three Needs Theory, or Learned Needs Theory.

352
Q

What is the Expectancy Theory?

A

A theory that says that individuals have different sets of goals and can be motivated if they have certain expectations. It explains the processes that an individual undergoes to make choices.

353
Q

What is a Lag?

A

A time delay between the start or finish of an activity and the start and finish of its successors in a schedule network.

354
Q

What is a Spike?

A

A time-boxed iteration to research or experiment.

355
Q

What is a Gantt Chart?

A

A time-phased graphic display of activity durations. It is also referred to as a Bar Chart. Activities are plotted on the vertical axis, dates are plotted on the horizontal axis, and activity durations are shown as horizontal bars.

356
Q

Tool vs Technique

A

A Tool is something tangible, like a template or a software program, that is used to perform an activity to produce a deliverable. Technique is a procedure performed by a human to perform an activity to produce a deliverable. A Technique may employ many Tools.

357
Q

What is a Scheduling Tool?

A

A tool that provides schedule component names, definitions, structural relationships, and formats that support the application of a scheduling method.

358
Q

What is a Kanban Board?

A

A tool to visually depict work at various stages of process.

359
Q

What is a SIPOC model?

A

A tool used in quality management that summarizes the inputs and outputs of one or more processes in tabular format.

360
Q

What is a Scatter Diagram?

A

A tool used to determine the correlation between 2 variables. The independent variable is plotted on the x-axis, and the dependent variable on the y-axis. The closer the points are to the diagonal line, the more closely the variables are related.

361
Q

What is a Stakeholders Engagement Assessment Matrix?

A

A tool used to document the gap between the current and desired levels of stakeholder engagement.

362
Q

How does the Tornado Diagram help in Sensitivity Analysis?

A

A Tornado Diagram graphically displays the result of single-factor (or one-way) Sensitivity Analysis. It allows visual comparison of the relative importance of many input variables on the outcome.

363
Q

What are the traits of a transactional leader?

A

A transactional leader focuses on goals, feedback, and accomplishment to determine rewards.

364
Q

What is a Risk Audit?

A

A type of audit used to consider the effectiveness of the risk management process.

365
Q

What is a Time and Material (T&M) Contract?

A

A type of contract that is a hybrid of cost reimbursable (CR) and fixed price (FP) contracts.

366
Q

What is a Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF) Contract?

A

A type of contract where the buyer pays the seller a set amount (as defined by the contract), and an additional amount (fee or profit) if the seller meets defined performance criteria.

367
Q

What is a Cost-Reimbursable (CR) Contract?

A

A type of contract where the buyer reimburses the seller for the seller’s actual costs, plus a fee representing the seller’s profit.

368
Q

What is a Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF) Contract?

A

A type of cost-reimbursable contract where the buyer reimburses the seller for the seller’s allowable costs (allowable costs are defined by the contract) plus a fixed amount of profit (fee).

369
Q

What is a Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF) Contract?

A

A type of cost-reimbursable contract where the buyer reimburses the seller for the seller’s allowable costs (allowable costs are defined by the contract), and the seller earns its profit if it meets defined performance criteria.

370
Q

What is a Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP) Contract?

A

A type of fixed price contract where the buyer pays the seller a set amount (as defined by the contract), regardless of the seller’s costs.

371
Q

What is a Request for Information (RFI)?

A

A type of procurement document used by the buyer to solicit information (about a product or a service or seller’s capability) from a prospective seller. It is generally used “before” the actual procurement document (RFP, RFQ or IFB) is sent out.

372
Q

What is an Invitation for Bid (IFB)?

A

A type of procurement document used to request a total price to do all the work, from prospective sellers. It is generally used in FP contracts.

373
Q

What is a Request for Proposal (RFP)?

A

A type of procurement document used to request detailed proposals from prospective sellers, with information such as how the work will be done, who will do it, where will they do it, and how much will it cost, seller’s past experience in this field, etc. It is generally used in CR contracts.

374
Q

What is a Request for Quotation (RFQ)?

A

A type of procurement document used to request price quotations from prospective sellers for standard items or services, or price per unit of measure. It is generally used in T&M contracts.

375
Q

What is an Activity Identifier?

A

A unique identifier for each schedule activity in a schedule network diagram.

376
Q

What are the typical attributes in the requirements traceability matrix?

A

A unique identifier, a textual description of the requirement, the rationale for inclusion, owner, source, priority, version, current status (such as active, cancelled, deferred, added, approved) and date completed.

377
Q

What is Ideal Time?

A

A unit for estimating product backlog items used on agile projects based on how long an item would take to complete if it were the only work being performed, there were no interruptions, and all resources necessary to complete the work were immediately available. It is also called Ideal Days or Ideal Hours.

378
Q

Define Seller.

A

A vendor, supplier, or contractor that provides products, services, or results to an organization.

379
Q

What is a Metric?

A

A verifiable measure.

380
Q

Vision vs Mission

A

A vision statement is usually aspirational in nature and describes how the project aligns with the stakeholder and organization goals. The mission statement defines the overall purpose of the project.

381
Q

What is a scope model?

A

A visual depiction of the product scope by showing a business system (process, equipment, computer system, etc.), and how people and other systems (actors) interact with it.

382
Q

What is a Context Diagram?

A

A visual depiction of the product scope showing a business system (process, equipment, computer system, etc.), and how people and other systems (actors) interact with it.

383
Q

What is a Story Map?

A

A visual model of all the features and functionality desired for a given product, created to give the project team a holistic view of what they are building and why.

384
Q

What is a Logical Data Model?

A

A visual representation of an organization’s data, described in business language and independent of any specific technology.

385
Q

What is a Planning Package?

A

A WBS component within a Control Account that is identified and budgeted in early planning, but is not yet sub-divided into work packages.

386
Q

What is a Collective Bargaining Agreement?

A

A written, legally enforceable contract for a specified period (usually 1 year), between organization and its employees represented by an independent trade union. It sets down and defines conditions of employment (wages, working hours, conditions, etc.) and procedures for dispute resolution. It is also called labor agreement, union agreement, or union contract.

387
Q

What is Osmotic Communication?

A

Absorbing information subconsciously by overhearing useful discussions of other colocated team members.

388
Q

What should be done to a project if its NPV is equal to or more than zero?

A

Accept the project

389
Q

ATDD

A

Acceptance Test-Driven Development

390
Q

What is the Smooth technique for conflict resolution also known as?

A

Accommodate

391
Q

According to McClelland’s theory, people who work best in cooperation with others have a high need for ___________.

A

According to McClelland’s theory, people who work best in cooperation with others have a high need for <u>affiliation</u>.

392
Q

How should stakeholders be classified?

A

According to their interest, influence, and involvement in the project.

393
Q

In a basic communication model, what is the difference between Acknowledgement and Response?

A

Acknowledgement means that the receiver has received the message, whereas Response means that receiver has decoded, understands and is replying to the message.

394
Q

In which process are project team assignments done?

A

Acquire Resources

395
Q

Which process uses the Pre-Assignment technique?

A

Acquire Resources

396
Q

Define Rework.

A

Action taken to bring a defective or non-conforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications.

397
Q

What are the various activity attributes which can be used to describe an activity?

A

Activity ID, WBS ID, activity name, codes, description, predecessor and successor activities, logical relationships, leads and lags, resource requirements, imposed dates, assumptions and constraints, person assigned, place where the work has to be performed, level of effort (LOE), discrete effort, and apportioned effort (AE).

398
Q

ID

A

Activity Identifier

399
Q

AON

A

Activity-on-Node

400
Q

What is Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM) also known as?

A

Activity-On-Node (AON) method

401
Q

AC

A

Actual Cost

402
Q

What does schedule related Work Performance Data include?

A

Actual start and finish dates of schedule activities, actual duration, list of activities that have started, their progress, and list of the activities that have finished.

403
Q

AT

A

Actual Time

404
Q

Which development life cycle is more suitable for projects with high levels of change and requiring ongoing stakeholder engagement?

A

Adaptive life cycle

405
Q

Iterative and Incremental Life Cycles vs Adaptive Life Cycles

A

Adaptive Life Cycles are also iterative and incremental, but differ in that iterations are very rapid (usually with a duration of 2 to 4 weeks) and are fixed in time and cost. In Iterative and Incremental projects, the iterations may overlap, but in Adaptive projects, the iterations are usually performed in sequence, and do not overlap.

406
Q

When are adaptive methods preferred for managing projects?

A

Adaptive methods are preferred when: - Environment is changing rapidly - It is difficult to define requirements and scope up front - It is possible to define small incremental improvements that will deliver value to stakeholders

407
Q

When are adaptive methods preferred for managing projects? (3)

A

Adaptive methods are preferred when: 1) Environment is changing rapidly 2) It is difficult to define requirements and scope up front 3) It is possible to define small incremental improvements that will deliver value to stakeholders

408
Q

Give an example of risk enhancement.

A

Adding more resources to an activity so that it finishes early.

409
Q

What are Activity Attributes?

A

Additional details to describe an activity, such as activity codes, predecessor activities, successor activities, logical relationships, leads and lags, resource requirements, imposed dates, constraints, and assumptions.

410
Q

At what stage of Tuckman’s Ladder do team members complete the work and move on from the project?

A

Adjourning

411
Q

What is the fundamental principle of Theory of Constraints (TOC)?

A

Adjusting all processes to improve (reduce/remove) the bottleneck.

412
Q

In which type of development life cycle are changes incorporated in real-time during delivery?

A

Agile

413
Q

What are Adaptive Life Cycles also known as?

A

Agile or Change-driven life cycles

414
Q

Agile release planning is a technique to develop ___________ on an agile project.

A

Agile release planning is a technique to develop <u>schedule</u> on an agile project.

415
Q

Agile teams work at a _______________ pace.

A

Agile teams work at a <u>sustainable</u> pace.

416
Q

What is Unanimity in the context of decision-making?

A

Agreement by everyone in the group on a single course of action.

417
Q

What is Network Logic?

A

All activity dependencies in a project schedule network diagram.

418
Q

Which components of the project management plan are inputs to the Manage Project Knowledge process?

A

All components of the project management plan are inputs to the Manage Project Knowledge process.

419
Q

What is Procurement Documentation?

A

All documents used in signing, executing, and closing an agreement. Procurement documentation may include documents predating the project.

420
Q

What are Bid Documents?

A

All documents used to solicit information, quotations, or proposals from prospective sellers.

421
Q

What is Project Scope?

A

All the “work” that goes in producing project deliverables (products, services or results).

422
Q

Project Management System vs Project Management Information System

A

All the processes, tools, techniques, methodologies, resources, and procedures to manage a project are collectively known as Project Management System. Project Management Information System is an information system (consisting of the tools and techniques) used to manage the outputs of project management processes.

423
Q

ADR

A

Alternative Dispute Resolution

424
Q

Name at least 5 commonly used analytical techniques in project management.

A

Alternatives analysis; Regression analysis; Root cause analysis; Reserve Analysis; Trend Analysis; Earned Value Management; SWOT Analysis; Variance Analysis, etc.

425
Q

ANSI

A

American National Standards Institute

426
Q

What is a Predecessor Activity?

A

An activity that logically comes before a dependent activity in a schedule. In other words, it’s the “from” activity of a logical relationship in a schedule network.

427
Q

Define Variation.

A

An actual condition that is different from the expected condition, which is contained in the baseline plan.

428
Q

What is an Incremental Life Cycle?

A

An adaptive project life cycle in which the deliverable is produced through a series of iterations that successively add functionality within a predetermined time frame. The deliverable contains the necessary and sufficient capability to be considered complete only after the final iteration.

429
Q

What is Risk Exposure?

A

An aggregate measure of the potential impact of all risks at any given point in time in a project, program, or portfolio.

430
Q

What is meant by Fail Fast in agile?

A

An agile practice of experimenting (iterating) freely and often in order to learn from the mistakes and achieve the desired outcomes quickly.

431
Q

An agile release consists of multiple __________________.

A

An agile release consists of multiple <u>iterations or Sprints</u>.

432
Q

What are Liquidated Damages (LD)?

A

An agreed upon sum of money that the buyer will be entitled to in the event that the contractor fails to meet certain contractual obligations. These are established at the time of signing the contract and are a part of the contract.

433
Q

What is Control Threshold?

A

An agreed-upon amount of variation to be allowed before some action needs to be taken.

434
Q

What is a Fixed-Price (FP) Contract?

A

An agreement that sets the fee that will be paid for a defined scope of work regardless of the cost or effort to deliver it.

435
Q

What is Regression Analysis?

A

An analytic technique where a series of input variables are examined in relation to their corresponding output results in order to develop a mathematical or statistical relationship.

436
Q

What is Communication Requirements Analysis?

A

An analytical technique to determine the information needs of the project stakeholders through interviews, workshops, study of lessons learned from previous projects, etc.

437
Q

What is Reserve Analysis?

A

An analytical technique to establish a contingency (or buffer) for project duration or budget to mitigate schedule or cost risks.

438
Q

What is Root Cause Analysis?

A

An analytical technique used to determine the basic underlying reason for a variance, defect or risk.

439
Q

What is the definition of a Defect?

A

An anomaly or flaw, in a deliverable such that the deliverable does not meet its requirements or specifications.

440
Q

Define Product.

A

An artifact that is produced, is quantifiable, and can be either an end item in itself or a component item. It is also described as material and goods.

441
Q

What is Accuracy in the context of quality management?

A

An assessment of correctness.

442
Q

Define Responsibility.

A

An assignment that can be delegated within a Project Management Plan such that the assigned resource incurs a duty to perform the requirements of the assignment.

443
Q

What is the Weighted Milestone Method?

A

An earned value method that divides a work package into measurable segments, each ending with an observable milestone, and then assigns a weighted value to the achievement of each milestone.

444
Q

What is a Work Breakdown Structure Component?

A

An element at any level of the WBS.

445
Q

What are Facilitated Workshops?

A

An elicitation technique using focused sessions that bring key cross-functional stakeholders together to define product requirements.

446
Q

What is a Performing Organization?

A

An enterprise whose personnel are most directly involved in doing the work of the project or program.

447
Q

What is meant by Most Likely Duration?

A

An estimate of the most probable activity duration that takes into account all of the known variables that could affect performance.

448
Q

What is meant by Optimistic Duration?

A

An estimate of the shortest activity duration that takes into account all of the known variables that could affect performance.

449
Q

What are Schedule Forecasts?

A

An estimate or prediction of a project’s future schedule performance based on information and knowledge available at the time of the forecast. These are typically expressed in terms of schedule variance (SV) and schedule performance index (SPI).

450
Q

Define Forecast.

A

An estimate or prediction of future conditions and events in a project based on project’s performance, and other information available at the time of the forecast.

451
Q

What are Cost Forecasts?

A

An estimate or prediction of project’s future cost performance based on information and knowledge available at the time of the forecast. These are typically expressed as estimate to complete (ETC), estimate at completion (EAC), budget at completion (BAC), and to-complete performance index (TCPI).

452
Q

What is Parametric Estimating?

A

An estimating technique that uses a statistical relationship established based on historical data, to calculate an estimate for activity parameters, such as scope, cost, budget, and duration.

453
Q

What is Analogous Estimating?

A

An estimating technique that uses duration or cost information from a previous, similar activity as the basis for estimating a future activity.

454
Q

What is Three-Point Estimating?

A

An estimating technique that uses three cost or duration estimates (optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic) to account for risk or uncertainty in an activity.

455
Q

Define Contingency.

A

An event or occurrence that could affect the execution of the project that may be accounted for with a reserve.

456
Q

What is an XP Metaphor?

A

An Extreme Programming (XP) technique to describe a common vision for how a program works.

457
Q

What is meant by a generalized specialist?

A

An individual with deep knowledge in a particular specialization who has also learned to be productive in other team roles.

458
Q

Who is a Resource Manager?

A

An individual with management authority over one or more resources.

459
Q

What is Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats (SWOT) Analysis?

A

An information gathering technique used in risk management to increase the breadth of the risks considered, and devise contingency plans, by examining the project’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.

460
Q

What is a Project Management Information System (PMIS)?

A

An information system consisting of the tools and techniques used to gather, integrate, and disseminate the outputs of project management processes. It is used to support all aspects of the project from initiating through closing, and can include both manual and automated systems.

461
Q

What is a Performance Measurement Baseline?

A

An integration of scope, schedule and cost baselines of the project. It is used for measuring project performance including earned value measurement.

462
Q

What is a Preventive Action?

A

An intentional activity that ensures the future performance of the project work is aligned with the Project Management Plan.

463
Q

What is a Corrective Action?

A

An intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan.

464
Q

What is Defect Repair?

A

An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component.

465
Q

What is a Configuration Item (CI)?

A

An item that is placed under configuration control. It may include the product, its components, documentation or project artifacts (plans and documents).

466
Q

What is a Guideline?

A

An official recommendation or advice that indicates policies, standards, or procedures for how something should be accomplished.

467
Q

What is a Product Backlog?

A

An ordered list of user-centric requirements that a team maintains for a product.

468
Q

What is a Value Stream?

A

An organizational construct that focuses on the flow of value to customers through the delivery of specific products or services.

469
Q

What is a Strong Matrix Organization?

A

An organizational hierarchy that has many of the characteristics of the projectized organization, and can have full-time project managers with considerable authority and full-time project administrative staff.

470
Q

What is a Weak Matrix Organization?

A

An organizational hierarchy that maintains many of the characteristics of a functional organization, and the project manager role is more of a coordinator or expediter than that of a true project manager.

471
Q

What is a Balanced Matrix Organization?

A

An organizational hierarchy that recognizes the need for a project manager, but does not provide the project manager with the full authority over the project and project funding.

472
Q

What is a Projectized (or project-oriented) Organization?

A

An organizational hierarchy where resources are allocated on a dedicated basis to a project and are controlled by the project manager.

473
Q

What is a Composite Organization?

A

An organizational hierarchy which may involve all structures (such as functional, matrix or projectized) at various levels.

474
Q

What is Colocation?

A

An organizational placement strategy where the project team members are physically located close to one another in order to improve communication, working relationships, and productivity.

475
Q

What is a Functional Organization?

A

An organizational structure in which staff is grouped by areas of specialization (such as engineering, marketing, IT, production, finance, etc.) and the project manager has limited authority to assign work and apply resources.

476
Q

Define Result.

A

An output of a project management process or an activity. It could be an outcome (e.g. a business process, an upgraded system, a research study, a trained resource, etc.) or a document (e.g. a new policy document, a training plan, a research report, etc.).

477
Q

What is a Project Schedule?

A

An output of a schedule model that presents linked activities with planned dates, durations, milestones, and resources.

478
Q

What is an Opportunity?

A

An uncertain event (or risk) that will impact the project positively, if it occurs.

479
Q

What is a Threat?

A

An uncertain event (or risk) that will negatively impact a project, if it occurs.

480
Q

Define Risk.

A

An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on one or more project objectives.

481
Q

What is Cultural Awareness?

A

An understanding of the differences between individuals, groups, and organizations and adapting the project’s communication strategy in the context of these differences.

482
Q

Which estimation technique is relatively fast and less costly, though less accurate?

A

Analogous Estimating

483
Q

What is Soft Logic?

A

Another name for Discretionary Dependency.

484
Q

What is a Slack?

A

Another name for float.

485
Q

What is Critical Path Activity?

A

Any activity on a critical path in a project schedule.

486
Q

What is an Agreement?

A

Any document or communication that defines the initial intentions of a project. This can take the form of a contract, memorandum of understanding (MOU), letters of agreement, verbal agreements, email, etc.

487
Q

What is an Input?

A

Any item, whether internal or external to the project, which is required by a process before that process proceeds. May be an output from a predecessor process.

488
Q

What is Code of Accounts?

A

Any numbering system used to uniquely identify each component of the WBS.

489
Q

What is a Matrix Organization?

A

Any organizational structure, which is a hybrid of functional organization and projectized organization, where resources are controlled functionally by their functional manager, and for the project requirements by the project manager.

490
Q

What is a Deliverable?

A

Any unique and verifiable product, result, or capability to perform a service that is required to be produced to complete a process, phase, or project.

491
Q

What are Diagramming Techniques?

A

Approaches to presenting information with logical linkages that aid in understanding.

492
Q

Who approves the project Schedule Baseline?

A

Appropriate stakeholders identified in the Schedule Management Plan.

493
Q

What comes as an output from the Perform Integrated Change Control process and goes as an input to Control Quality?

A

Approved Change Requests

494
Q

What does the project scope baseline consist of?

A

Approved versions of: - Project Scope Statement - WBS - WBS Dictionary

495
Q

The method in which parties seek help of a private third party to make a decision regarding a dispute, outside of the court, is known as?

A

Arbitration

496
Q

What is the best time to assign a Project Manager to a Project?

A

As early in the project as possible, preferably while the project charter is being developed and always prior to the start of planning. In other words, during project initiation.

497
Q

When should Plan Risk Management process begin on a project?

A

As soon as the project is conceived

498
Q

Is accepting accountability for our mistakes and the resulting consequences an aspirational standard or a mandatory standard?

A

Aspirational