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PMP Exam > Deck 2 > Flashcards

Deck 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Is creating an environment in which others feel safe to tell the truth an aspirational or a mandatory standard?

A

Aspirational

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2
Q

Is making decisions in the best interest of the society an aspirational or a mandatory standard?

A

Aspirational

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3
Q

Is the protection of confidential information entrusted on us an aspirational standard or a mandatory standard?

A

Aspirational

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4
Q

By not providing equal access to information to those who are authorized to access it, which standard do we violate?

A

Aspirational Standard for Fairness

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5
Q

If we do not provide equal information to all the qualified bidders in a bidding process, which standard are we violating?

A

Aspirational Standard for Fairness

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6
Q

Which standards describe the conduct that we as project management professionals should strive to uphold?

A

Aspirational Standards

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7
Q

What are Team Performance Assessments?

A

Assessments of the entire project team’s performance.

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8
Q

Give an example of risk exploitation.

A

Assign an experienced resource to a project to ensure that the work is completed ahead of schedule or at a lower cost.

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9
Q

If you want to know a project’s assumptions and constraints, which document would you refer to?

A

Assumption Log

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10
Q

When is project/phase closure activities performed?

A

At the end of each project phase, at the completion of each contract, and at the end of the project.

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11
Q

Authority vs Responsibility

A

Authority is the “right” to do something, whereas Responsibility is the “obligation” to do something.

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12
Q

In this leadership style, the project manager is primarily focused on getting the tasks done, with little regard to the team member’s feelings. Which leadership style is this?

A

Autocratic

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13
Q

What is the Withdraw technique for conflict resolution also known as?

A

Avoid

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14
Q

Avoid vs Mitigate

A

Avoid is to eliminate the threat entirely, whereas Mitigate is to reduce the probability of occurrence or the impact of the threat.

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15
Q

What is the Cost Variance (CV) at the end of a project?

A

BAC minus Actual amount spent

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16
Q

What is the term to describe an ordered list of all the work, presented in story form?

A

Backlog

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17
Q

What is the acronym to describe the characteristics of effective feedback?

A

Balanced, Observed, Objective, Specific, and Timely (BOOST)

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18
Q

Which format is usually used to communicate project schedule progress to management?

A

Bar Chart

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19
Q

Define Obstacles.

A

Barriers that are movable, avoidable, or able to be overcome with some effort or strategy.

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20
Q

What is the project management term for the supporting documentation that provides a clear and complete understanding of how the cost estimate was derived?

A

Basis of Estimates

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21
Q

Which project document would tell you whether indirect costs are included or excluded from the project cost estimates?

A

Basis of Estimates

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22
Q

Why do contracts go through an extensive review and approval process?

A

Because contracts are legally binding in nature.

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23
Q

Are the bidder conferences held before or after the submission of the bids or proposals?

A

Before

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24
Q

BDD

A

Behavior-Driven Development

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25
Q

What is accepting an opportunity?

A

Being willing to take advantage of the opportunity if it comes along, but not actively pursuing it.

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26
Q

What is Opportunity Cost?

A

Benefit (monetary or otherwise) foregone by selecting one project over another.

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27
Q

BCA

A

Benefit Cost Analysis

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28
Q

BCR

A

Benefit Cost Ratio

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29
Q

Which type of project selection method is Murder Board?

A

Benefit Measurement method

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30
Q

Which type of project selection method uses ROI?

A

Benefit Measurement method

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31
Q

Which types of project selection methods use a comparative approach?

A

Benefit Measurement methods

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32
Q

Benefits vs Value

A

Benefits are gains realized by an organization or beneficiaries through portfolio, program, or project outputs and resulting outcomes. On the other hand, ‘value’ is the net result - tangible or intangible - of realized benefits less the cost of or effort for achieving those benefits.

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33
Q

What types of procurement documents are used when price is the main factor in awarding the contract?

A

Bids, tenders or quotations

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34
Q

Whom does the project staff report to in a Strong Matrix organization?

A

Both - the Functional Manager and the Project Manager - but the Project Manager has more authority on the resources than the Functional Manager.

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35
Q

What is the commonality between leadership and management?

A

Both are about being able to get things done.

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36
Q

In Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM) method, what do boxes and arrows represent?

A

Boxes (also known as nodes) represent Activities, and Arrows represent the Logical Relationships between activities.

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37
Q

Brainstorming vs Brain Writing

A

Brainstorming is a general data-gathering and creativity technique that elicits input from groups such as team members or subject matter experts. Brain Writing is a refinement of brainstorming that allows individual participants time to consider the question(s) individually before the group creativity session is held.

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38
Q

Where might you use Bubble Charts on a project?

A

Bubble charts may be used for plotting three-dimensional data such as plotting risk categorization data on a chart.

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39
Q

When using bubble charts for representing risk categorization data, what does the size of the bubble represent?

A

Bubble size is the Impact Value of the risk.

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40
Q

BAC

A

Budget At Completion

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41
Q

What is total Planned Value (PV) of a project also known as?

A

Budget At Completion (BAC)

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42
Q

BOOT

A

Build Own Operate Transfer

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43
Q

BIM

A

Building Information Model

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44
Q

What is the term to describe a graphical representation of the work remaining versus the time left in a timebox?

A

Burndown Chart

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45
Q

What is the term to describe a graphical representation of the work completed toward the release of a product?

A

Burnup Chart

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46
Q

A documented economic feasibility study used to establish validity of the benefits of a selected component lacking sufficient definition and that is used as a basis for the authorization of further project management activities is termed as?

A

Business Case

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47
Q

Business Case vs Business Value

A

Business Case is the justification for doing a project, whereas Business Value is the tangible or intangible benefits from project investment.

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48
Q

Business Need vs Business Case

A

Business Need is the “trigger” for a project. Business Case is the “justification” for a project. Business need is usually a part of the business case for the project.

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49
Q

BRD

A

Business Requirement Documents

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50
Q

What is the difference between Business Risks and Pure Risks?

A

Business Risks provide an opportunity of profit or loss, whereas Pure (or Insurable) Risks only provide a chance for a loss.

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51
Q

Generally, who can initiate contract closure - buyer, seller or either of the two?

A

Buyer

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52
Q

BSR

A

Buyer Share Ratio

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53
Q

How are chance nodes represented on a Decision Tree?

A

By circles

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54
Q

What are the common ways to arrange an Organizational Breakdown Structure?

A

By departments, units, or teams with the project activities or work packages listed under each department

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55
Q

How is the EMV of a project calculated?

A

By multiplying the value of each possible outcome by its probability of occurrence and adding the products together

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56
Q

How are decision nodes represented on a Decision Tree?

A

By squares

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57
Q

How are the end of branches represented on a Decision Tree?

A

By triangles

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58
Q

How are project team assignments documented?

A

By updating the team directory, project organization chart, and project schedule.

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59
Q

What are the 3 C’s of a user story?

A

Card, Conversation, Confirmation

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60
Q

What do cards represent on a Kanban Board?

A

Cards represent work items on a Kanban Board.

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61
Q

What is the proper structure to describe risks?

A

Cause - Event (or Risk) - Effect

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62
Q

What is the weighted average or beta distribution formula for activity cost estimate?

A

cE ( cO + 4*cM + cP ) / 6 where cE is the weighted average activity cost estimate, cO the optimistic estimate, cM the most likely estimate and cP the pessimistic estimate of the activity cost.

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63
Q

What is the contract price when the actual cost exceeds the Point of Total Assumption (PTA)?

A

Ceiling Price

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64
Q

CCB

A

Change Control Board

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65
Q

CCS

A

Change Control System

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66
Q

Change Control System vs Contract Change Control System

A

Change Control System is used to manage the changes to the project documents, deliverables, and baselines (scope, schedule, cost, etc.). Contract Change Control System is used to manage changes to the contracts on the project, and is integrated with the project’s integrated change control system.

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67
Q

CR

A

Change Request / Cost Reimbursable (contract)

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68
Q

The Control Costs process has 3 outputs apart from Project Management Plan updates and Project Documents updates. Work Performance Information and Cost Forecasts are two of them. Name the missing output.

A

Change Requests

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69
Q

What comes as an output from Manage Quality process and goes as an input to Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A

Change Requests

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70
Q

What is the common output of most Monitoring and Controlling processes?

A

Change Requests Note: Change Requests are an output of all Monitoring and Controlling processes EXCEPT Perform Integrated Change Control, which has Change Requests as an input and Approved Change Requests as an output.

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71
Q

Referent Power of a Project Manager is also known as?

A

Charisma Power

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72
Q

Accepted Deliverables are an input to which process?

A

Close Project or Phase

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73
Q

In which process do you confirm that all the requirements of the project (or phase) have been met?

A

Close Project or Phase

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74
Q

Name the only Closing group processes.

A

Close Project or Phase

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75
Q

Name the Project Integration Management process(es) under the Closing Process Group.

A

Close Project or Phase

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76
Q

In Fist to Five method, what does a closed fist indicate?

A

Closed fist indicates no support for the proposed decision.

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77
Q

Code of Account vs Chart of Account

A

Code of Account is any numbering system used to uniquely identify each component of the WBS, whereas Chart of Account is any numbering system used to monitor project costs by category.

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78
Q

Code of Account vs Control Account

A

Code of Account is any numbering system used to uniquely identify each component of the WBS. Control Account is a management control point where scope, budget, actual cost, and schedule are integrated and compared to earned value for performance measurement. Control Accounts are strategically placed at various points on the WBS.

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79
Q

Which conflict resolution technique generates a win-win situation?

A

Collaborate/Problem Solve

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80
Q

In which process are prototypes useful?

A

Collect Requirements

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81
Q

In which process would you use Context Diagrams?

A

Collect Requirements

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82
Q

What is meant by Monitor?

A

Collecting performance data, measuring performance, preparing and distributing performance reports.

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83
Q

What do columns represent on a Kanban Board?

A

Columns represent each stage of the process on a Kanban Board.

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84
Q

COTS

A

Commercial off-the-shelf

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85
Q

Common Cause vs Special Cause

A

Common Cause is a source of variation that is inherent in the system and predictable, whereas Special Cause is not inherent in the system, and is unpredictable and intermittent. On a control chart, Common Cause appears as random data points within the control limits, whereas Special Cause appears as data points outside the control limits or non-random points within the control limits.

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86
Q

What is Vertical Communication?

A

Communicating up and down the levels of the organization.

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87
Q

What is Horizontal Communication?

A

Communication among peers.

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88
Q

Name an enterprise environmental factor that may help in the Develop Schedule process.

A

Communication Channels

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89
Q

What assumes increased importance in a Virtual Team model?

A

Communication planning

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90
Q

What is external communication?

A

Communication with the customer, vendors, other projects, organizations, and the public.

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91
Q

What is internal communication?

A

Communication within the project.

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92
Q

In which document would you find the stakeholder communication requirements?

A

Communications Management Plan

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93
Q

What document provides the escalation process should issues arise on the project?

A

Communications Management Plan

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94
Q

Define Control.

A

Comparing actual performance with planned performance, analyzing variances, assessing trends to effect process improvements, evaluating possible alternatives, and recommending appropriate corrective action as needed.

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95
Q

What is Benchmarking?

A

Comparing the current project’s processes to those of other comparable projects (within or outside the organization) in order to identify best practices, generate ideas for improvement, and provide a basis for measuring performance.

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96
Q

Completion of the product scope is measured against the ______________________.

A

Completion of the product scope is measured against the <u>product requirements</u>.

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97
Q

Completion of the project scope is measured against the ______________________.

A

Completion of the project scope is measured against the <u>Project Management Plan</u>.

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98
Q

Compliance vs Conformance

A

Compliance is the act of complying with a rule, standard, law, or requirement such that the result is either compliant or non-compliant. Conformance is delivering results that fall within an acceptable range.

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99
Q

Which conflict resolution technique usually results in a lose-lose situation?

A

Compromise

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100
Q

Which is generally the second best conflict resolution technique after Problem Solve?

A

Compromise

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101
Q

Independent Cost Estimates are an input to which process?

A

Conduct Procurements

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102
Q

Procurement negotiations are done in which process(es)?

A

Conduct Procurements

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103
Q

What is/are the Project Procurement Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group?

A

Conduct Procurements

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104
Q

Which process applies the Source Selection Criteria to select sellers?

A

Conduct Procurements

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105
Q

Procurement Statement of Work is an input to which process(es)?

A

Conduct Procurements and Control Procurements (as Procurement Documentation)

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106
Q

What is Configuration Control?

A

Configuration Control is the activity of managing the specifications of project’s deliverables and processes throughout the lifecycle of the project.

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107
Q

Configuration Control vs Change Control

A

Configuration Control is the activity of managing the specifications of project’s deliverables and processes throughout the lifecycle of the project. Change Control is the process of managing changes to the project’s documents, deliverables, and baselines (scope, schedule, cost, etc.).

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108
Q

CI

A

Configuration Item

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109
Q

CM

A

Configuration Management

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110
Q

Which component of the project management plan describes how the information about the items of the project (and which items) will be recorded and updated so that the product, service, or result of the project remains consistent and/or operative?

A

Configuration Management Plan

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111
Q

Which system is used for recording change requests?

A

Configuration Management System (which is a part of the Project Management Information System)

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112
Q

What are the activities that are performed as part of project closure?

A

Confirm that all the requirements have been met, close all procurements, get formal acceptance of the deliverables, measure customer satisfaction, perform financial closure, report final project performance, document lessons learned, update and archive project records, hand-off the deliverables, release the team and other resources.

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113
Q

What are the best practices for resolving conflicts?

A

Conflict should be addressed early and usually in private, using a direct, collaborative approach. The parties involved in the conflict have the initial responsibility of resolving the conflict. Project manager should intervene only if the conflict escalates.

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114
Q

What is Dysfunctional Conflict?

A

Conflict which negatively impacts the project objectives.

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115
Q

Which type of project selection method is Dynamic Programming?

A

Constrained Optimization method

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116
Q

Which types of project selection methods use a mathematical approach?

A

Constrained Optimization methods

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117
Q

Give an example of Indirect Power.

A

Contacts/network power (a form of power derived from alliance or contacts with someone influential in the organization)

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118
Q

What tool can be used to develop a scope model?

A

Context Diagrams

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119
Q

Contingency Reserve vs Management Reserve

A

Contingency Reserve accounts for “known-unknowns” or simply “knowns”. It covers the “residual risks” on the project. Management Reserve accounts for “unknown-unknowns” or simply “unknowns”.

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120
Q

What are the benefits of continuous improvement?

A

Continuous improvement reduces waste, eliminates non value-adding activities and hence increases profitability.

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121
Q

What is Progressive Elaboration?

A

Continuously improving and detailing a plan as more detailed and specific information is available, and thereby producing more accurate and complete plans.

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122
Q

Which is usually closed first - project or contract(s)?

A

Contract(s)

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123
Q

CA

A

Control Account

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124
Q

Control Account vs Work Package

A

Control Account is a management control point in the WBS where Earned Value measurements take place. Work package is a unit of work or deliverable at the lowest level of each branch on the WBS. A Control Account may contain multiple Work Packages, but a Work Package can only be associated to one Control Account.

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125
Q

Which tool is used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?

A

Control Charts

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126
Q

Name the Project Cost Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.

A

Control Costs

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127
Q

If you are using a payments system to pay invoices, which process are you in?

A

Control Procurements

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128
Q

In which process does the buyer conduct a structured review of the work being performed by the contractor?

A

Control Procurements

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129
Q

In which project management process are procurements closed?

A

Control Procurements

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130
Q

Procurement Documentation is an input to this process, and Procurement Documentation updates are an output. Which process is this?

A

Control Procurements

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131
Q

What is/are the Project Procurement Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

A

Control Procurements

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132
Q

Which process verifies the acceptance of all the work and deliverables of the contract?

A

Control Procurements

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133
Q

Deliverables are an input to this process and Verified Deliverables an output. Which process is this?

A

Control Quality

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134
Q

If the project team is performing peer reviews of project deliverables, which process are they in?

A

Control Quality

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135
Q

If you are checking whether quality standards are being met, which process are you in?

A

Control Quality

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136
Q

In which process are approved change requests reviewed?

A

Control Quality

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137
Q

In which process are defect repairs validated?

A

Control Quality

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138
Q

In which process are inspections performed on items changed or repaired as a result of approved change requests?

A

Control Quality

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139
Q

Test and Evaluation Documents are an input to which process(es)?

A

Control Quality

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140
Q

What is/are the Project Quality Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

A

Control Quality

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141
Q

Which process ensures the timely implementation of Approved Change Requests?

A

Control Quality

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142
Q

Which process is used to ensure a timely implementation of approved change requests?

A

Control Quality

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143
Q

Which process uses Checksheets?

A

Control Quality

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144
Q

Name the Project Resource Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.

A

Control Resources

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145
Q

Name the Project Schedule Management process(es) under the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.

A

Control Schedule

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146
Q

What are the components of Cost of Quality (COQ)?

A

COQ Prevention Costs + Appraisal Costs + Failure Costs

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147
Q

Corrective Action vs Defect Repair

A

Corrective Action is taken to bring the project performance (in terms of scope, schedule, cost, quality, etc.) in line with the baselines. Defect Repair is undertaken to fix a “flaw” (or deficiency) in the project’s deliverables.

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148
Q

Corrective Action vs Preventive Action

A

Corrective Action is undertaken “after” a problem (or risk) has occurred, whereas Preventive Action is undertaken to reduce the probability and/or impact of a problem (or risk) “before” it occurs. Former is reactive, whereas latter is proactive.

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149
Q

In a CPAF contract, which is the least important constraint?

A

Cost

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150
Q

In a CPFF contract, which is the least important constraint?

A

Cost

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151
Q

In a CPIF contract, which is the most important constraint?

A

Cost

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152
Q

In a T&M contract, which is the most important constraint?

A

Cost

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153
Q

In an FFP contract, which is the least important constraint?

A

Cost

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154
Q

In an FPIF contract, which is the most important constraint?

A

Cost

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155
Q

What is another name for Control Account?

A

Cost Account

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156
Q

Which factors are low at the start, peak as the work is carried out, and drop rapidly as the project draws to a close?

A

Cost and staffing levels

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157
Q

What is the input to the Acquire Resources process from Determine Budget?

A

Cost Baseline

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158
Q

What is the output from the Determine Budget process that goes as an input to Develop Project Management Plan?

A

Cost Baseline

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159
Q

CBR

A

Cost Benefit Ratio

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160
Q

Summarize Cost Control in one sentence.

A

Cost control involves analyzing the relationship between consumption of project funds and the value of the work accomplished.

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161
Q

What does Cost Performance Index (CPI) indicate?

A

Cost efficiency of the project

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162
Q

What are the units of measure for cost estimates?

A

Cost estimates are usually expressed in currency units, but other units such as staff hours or staff days can also be used.

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163
Q

Which factor is lowest at the start of the project and increases over the life of the project?

A

Cost of changes

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164
Q

What are prevention and appraisal costs collectively known as?

A

Cost of Conformance

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165
Q

What are failure costs also known as?

A

Cost of Non-Conformance

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166
Q

COQ

A

Cost Of Quality

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167
Q

What is the term for the sum total of money spent during the project to avoid failures, and during and after the project because of failures?

A

Cost of Quality

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168
Q

When does the Point of Total Assumption (PTA) assume more importance - in cost underruns or overruns?

A

Cost overruns

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169
Q

CPI

A

Cost Performance Index

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170
Q

What is the most critical EVA metric?

A

Cost Performance Index (CPI)

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171
Q

CPAF

A

Cost Plus Award Fee

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172
Q

Which type of contract uses parameters such as target cost, target fee, target price, award fee, and fee criteria?

A

Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF)

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173
Q

CPF

A

Cost Plus Fee

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174
Q

CPFF

A

Cost Plus Fixed Fee

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175
Q

Which type of contract does not motivate the sellers to control costs?

A

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

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176
Q

CPIF

A

Cost Plus Incentive Fee

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177
Q

Which type of contract uses parameters such as target cost, target fee, target price and share ratio?

A

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)

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178
Q

Which type of contract would be most appropriate if the buyer expects the product to be built with the best quality material available, in the shortest possible time?

A

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)

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179
Q

In which type of contract is the full value of the contract not defined up front?

A

Cost Reimbursable

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180
Q

In which type of contract does seller’s profit remain constant even as the seller’s effort goes up?

A

Cost Reimbursable (as the seller’s effort increases, the project cost continues to go up, but the seller’s profit remains constant).

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181
Q

In which type of contract would you use a Request for Proposal (RFP)?

A

Cost Reimbursable (CR)

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182
Q

Which type of contract would be most suitable for an R&D project?

A

Cost Reimbursable (CR)

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183
Q

Which type of contract would be most suited if the project work involves high risks?

A

Cost Reimbursable (CR)

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184
Q

CV

A

Cost Variance

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185
Q

Give examples of Appraisal Costs.

A

Costs of testing, destructive testing and inspections are Appraisal Costs.

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186
Q

Give examples of Prevention Costs.

A

Costs of training, documenting processes, and equipment are Prevention Costs.

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187
Q

What are Direct Costs?

A

Costs that can be directly attributed to a specific project.

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188
Q

What are Indirect Costs?

A

Costs that cannot be directly attributed to a specific project, such as management costs and general administration costs.

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189
Q

What is the formula for Cost Performance Indicator (CPI)?

A

CPI EV / AC

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190
Q

Scope Baseline is created in which process?

A

Create WBS

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191
Q

What is the most important part of knowledge management?

A

Creating an atmosphere of trust so that people are motivated to share their knowledge.

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192
Q

What are schedule activities on the critical path called?

A

Critical Path Activities

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193
Q

CPM

A

Critical Path Method

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194
Q

Name a common scheduling methodology used in project management?

A

Critical Path Method

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195
Q

According to which quality expert, quality is free, and the only associated costs of quality should be those of nonconformance?

A

Crosby

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196
Q

CFD

A

Cumulative Flow Diagram

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197
Q

In Kanban, what tool can be used to represent the state of work across time?

A

Cumulative Flow Diagram (CFD)

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198
Q

What is Working Capital?

A

Current Assets minus Current Liabilities.

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199
Q

What is the formula for Cost Variance (CV)?

A

CV EV - AC

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200
Q

Data vs Information

A

Data is raw, unorganized facts that need to be processed. Data can be something simple and seemingly random and useless until it is organized. When Data is processed, organized, structured or presented in a given context so as to make it useful, it is called Information.

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201
Q

Which visual analytical tool uses EMV analysis to calculate the expected values of competing alternatives?

A

Decision Tree

202
Q

What is Plurality in the context of decision-making?

A

Decisions made by the largest block in a group, even if a majority is not achieved.

203
Q

What are the characteristics of a well-groomed backlog?

A

DEEP (Detailed appropriately, Estimated, Emergent, and Prioritized)

204
Q

Which process initially creates the Milestone List for the project?

A

Define Activities

205
Q

Which is the process that usually follows the Collect Requirements process?

A

Define Scope

206
Q

DMAIC

A

Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, and Control (Six Sigma methodology)

207
Q

DoD

A

Definition of Done

208
Q

Definition of Done (DoD) vs Definition of Ready (DoR)

A

Definition of Done (DoD) is a team’s checklist of all the criteria required to be met so that a deliverable can be considered ready for customer use, whereas, Definition of Ready (DoR) is a team’s checklist for a user-centric requirement that has all the information the team needs to be able to begin working on it.

209
Q

DoR

A

Definition of Ready

210
Q

Why is requirements documentation needed for scope validation?

A

Deliverables are verified against the requirements and acceptance criteria specified in the requirements documentation.

211
Q

What are Verified Deliverables?

A

Deliverables that have successfully passed the Control Quality process.

212
Q

In this leadership style, the project manager encourages the team members to actively participate in the decision-making process. A lot of authority is delegated to the team members and they play an active role in managing the project. Which leadership style is this?

A

Democratic or Participative

213
Q

In this leadership style, the project manager encourages the team members to actively participate in the decision-making process. A lot of authority is delegated to the team members and they play an active role in managing the project. Which leadership style is this?

A

Democratic or Participative

214
Q

What are Communication Models?

A

Descriptions, analogies or schematics used to represent how the communication process will be performed for the project.

215
Q

DBB

A

Design Bid Build

216
Q

DB

A

Design Build

217
Q

DBO

A

Design Build Operate

218
Q

DfX

A

Design for X

219
Q

DOE

A

Design of Experiments

220
Q

What is the name of the technique used during the Plan Quality Management process to statistically determine the variables which will improve quality?

A

Design of Experiments (DOE)

221
Q

If you are using Cost Aggregation, which process are you in?

A

Determine Budget

222
Q

Scope Baseline is an input to this process and Cost Baseline an output. Which process is this?

A

Determine Budget

223
Q

Which process uses the Funding Limit Reconciliation technique?

A

Determine Budget

224
Q

What is Tailoring in the context of project management?

A

Determining the appropriate combination of processes, inputs, tools, techniques, outputs, and life cycle phases to manage a project.

225
Q

In which process is the Assumption Log initially created?

A

Develop Project Charter

226
Q

Name the Project Integration Management process(es) under the Initiating Process Group.

A

Develop Project Charter

227
Q

Name the Project Integration Management process(es) under the Planning Process Group.

A

Develop Project Management Plan

228
Q

Which process integrates the baselines and subsidiary management plans from various planning processes?

A

Develop Project Management Plan

229
Q

In which process are Individual and Team Assessments conducted?

A

Develop Team

230
Q

In which process is the effectiveness of a project team assessed?

A

Develop Team

231
Q

Deliverables are an output of which process?

A

Direct and Manage Project Work

232
Q

In which process are approved change requests implemented?

A

Direct and Manage Project Work

233
Q

In which process is the Issue Log initially created?

A

Direct and Manage Project Work

234
Q

Issue Log, which is used for documenting and tracking project issues, is first created in this process. Which process is this?

A

Direct and Manage Project Work

235
Q

Which process generates the Work Performance Data?

A

Direct and Manage Project Work

236
Q

Which project management process implements the approved changes?

A

Direct and Manage Project Work

237
Q

How do deliverables flow through a project?

A

Direct and Manage Project Work (Deliverables) → Control Quality (Verified Deliverables) → Validate Scope (Accepted Deliverables) → Close Project or Phase (Final Product, Service or Result Transition)

238
Q

Direct Costs vs Indirect Costs

A

Direct costs are costs that can be directly attributed to a specific project, e.g. labor, raw materials, and equipment rental costs. Direct costs are included in the project budget. Indirect costs are costs that cannot be directly attributed to a specific project, e.g. management, general administration, rental and utility costs. Indirect costs may or may not be included in the project budget.

239
Q

In this leadership style, the project manager tells the team members what, when, where, and how to do things. Which leadership style is this?

A

Directing

240
Q

What is the definition of Execute as per the PMBOK® Guide, 6th Edition?

A

Directing, managing, performing, and accomplishing the project work, providing the deliverables, and providing work performance information.

241
Q

Define Data.

A

Discrete, unorganized, unprocessed measurements or raw observations.

242
Q

What is Preferential Logic also known as?

A

Discretionary Dependency.

243
Q

What is Preferred Logic also known as?

A

Discretionary Dependency.

244
Q

What is Historical Information?

A

Documents and data on prior projects including project files, records, correspondence, closed contracts, and closed projects.

245
Q

What are the 4Ds of decision-making?

A

Drop-Delay-Delegate-Do

246
Q

DU

A

Duration

247
Q

DUR

A

Duration

248
Q

Duration vs Effort

A

Duration is the number of work periods (not including holidays or other non-working periods) required to complete an activity, whereas Effort is the number of labor units required to complete an activity. Duration is expressed as work days, work weeks, etc., whereas Effort is expressed as man hours, man days, man weeks, etc.

249
Q

Duration vs Elapsed Time

A

Duration is the number of work periods (not including holidays or other non-working periods) required to complete an activity, whereas Elapsed Time includes holidays and non-working periods also. Both are expressed as work days, work weeks, etc.

250
Q

What is the formula for Duration Uncertainty?

A

Duration Uncertainty P - O where P is the Pessimistic Estimate, and O is the Optimistic Estimate.

251
Q

When are risk audits typically conducted in an agile project?

A

During the retrospective

252
Q

A person’s legal or moral responsibility to promote the best interest of an organization or party he/she is affiliated with, is known as?

A

Duty of Loyalty

253
Q

DSDM

A

Dynamic Systems Development Method

254
Q

What is the simple average or triangular distribution formula for activity duration estimate?

A

E ( O + M + P ) / 3 where E is the Three-Point estimate, O the optimistic estimate, M the most likely estimate and P the pessimistic estimate of the activity.

255
Q

What is the formula for Estimate at Completion (EAC) when the current cost performance is atypical for future project work, and the future cost performance is expected to be in line with the original estimate?

A

EAC AC + (BAC - EV)

256
Q

What is the formula for Estimate At Completion (EAC) when the project is having a negative cost performance to date, and needs to meet a deadline?

A

EAC AC + (BAC - EV) / (SPI * CPI)

257
Q

What is the formula for Estimate at Completion (EAC) when the original estimate is fundamentally flawed or is no longer valid due to change in circumstances (for example change in scope)?

A

EAC AC + Bottom-up ETC

258
Q

What is the formula for Estimate at Completion (EAC) when the current cost performance is expected to continue in the future?

A

EAC BAC / CPI

259
Q

Estimate At Completion (EAC) vs Estimate to Complete (ETC)

A

EAC is the expected total cost of the project or work component, whereas ETC is the expected cost of the “remaining” work. Note that both are “forecasts”.

260
Q

In the context of a WBS, what is the relationship between a control account and a work package?

A

Each control account may include two or more work packages, but each of the work packages must be associated with only one control account.

261
Q

EF

A

Early Finish Date

262
Q

ES

A

Early Start Date

263
Q

ES

A

Earned Schedule

264
Q

EV

A

Earned Value

265
Q

EVA

A

Earned Value Analysis / Economic Value Added

266
Q

Earned Value vs Actual Cost

A

Earned Value is the “estimated” (monetary) value of the work actually done, whereas Actual Cost is the “actual” cost incurred for the work done.

267
Q

EVM

A

Earned Value Management

268
Q

What is the schedule related Work Performance Information?

A

Earned value measurements such as SV, SPI, EAC, ETC, etc.

269
Q

What is the key to effective cost control?

A

Effective cost control is about managing the Cost Baseline and the changes to that baseline.

270
Q

What is Discrete Effort?

A

Effort that can be measured and directly attributed to a project activity or a work package on the WBS, for example, the effort required to develop a software, which is identified as a deliverable of the project. Discrete effort is one of three earned value management (EVM) types of activities used to measure work performance.

271
Q

What is Apportioned Effort?

A

Effort that cannot be divided among or attributed to individual tasks or work packages on the WBS, an example being quality assurance effort.

272
Q

Give an example of Finish-to-finish (FF) dependency.

A

Electrical (predecessor) and painting (successor) work of a building can proceed in parallel, but electrical work must finish before the final coat of paint can be applied.

273
Q

Give three examples of areas of Ambiguity Risk.

A

1) Elements of the requirement or technical solution,
2) future developments in regulatory frameworks,
3) inherent systemic complexity in the project.

274
Q

EI

A

Emotional Intelligence

275
Q

What should we ensure before filing an ethics complaint?

A

Ensure that the ethics complaint is substantiated by facts.

276
Q

Is organizational culture an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset?

A

Enterprise Environmental Factor

277
Q

Is organizational infrastructure considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset?

A

Enterprise Environmental Factor

278
Q

Is organizational structure of the performing organization considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset for the project?

A

Enterprise Environmental Factor

279
Q

Is resource availability considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor or an Organizational Process Asset for the project?

A

Enterprise Environmental Factor

280
Q

Are employee performance reviews and training records part of Enterprise Environmental Factors or an Organizational Process Assets?

A

Enterprise Environmental Factors

281
Q

Are Project Management Information Systems (PMIS) classified as Enterprise Environmental Factors or an Organizational Process Assets?

A

Enterprise Environmental Factors

282
Q

EEF

A

Enterprise Environmental Factors

283
Q

Earned Value Management (EVM) vs Earned Schedule (ES)?

A

ES It is an extension to the theory and practice of EVM. EVM measures performance in terms of cost, whereas ES measures it in terms of time. ES replaces EVM’s Schedule Variance and Schedule Performance Index formulas and provides the schedule variance is terms of time instead of cost. ES also provides formulas for forecasting the project completion date.

284
Q

What is a common active threat acceptance strategy?

A

Establish a contingency reserve

285
Q

What is Networking?

A

Establishing connections and relationships with other people from the same or other organizations.

286
Q

Which levels of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs are the Motivating Factors in the Herzberg’s theory?

A

Esteem and Self-actualization

287
Q

If you are establishing a contingency for project duration to mitigate schedule risks, what process are you in?

A

Estimate Activity Durations is the process and Reserve Analysis is the technique.

288
Q

Resource Breakdown Structure is a primary output of which process?

A

Estimate Activity Resources

289
Q

EAC

A

Estimate At Completion

290
Q

What is the cost forecast indicator in Earned Value Management?

A

Estimate At Completion (EAC)

291
Q

Estimate vs Budget

A

Estimate is a quantitative assessment of the likely amount or outcome. It is usually applied to project costs, resources, effort, and durations. An “approved” cost estimate for a project or a work component is known as Budget.

292
Q

What is meant by Pessimistic Duration?

A

Estimate of the longest activity duration that takes into account all of the known variables that could affect performance.

293
Q

ETC

A

Estimate To Complete

294
Q

What is the formula for Estimate to Complete (ETC)?

A

ETC EAC - AC or Reestimate the remaining work from the bottom-up

295
Q

Judging others’ cultures or norms from the perspective of one’s own culture or norms is called?

A

Ethnocentrism

296
Q

The belief in inherent superiority of one’s own culture or group reflects?

A

Ethnocentrism

297
Q

Define Blockers.

A

Events or conditions that cause stoppages in the work or any further advancement.

298
Q

What is a Resource?

A

Everything needed to complete a project. Examples include human resources, equipment, services, supplies, material and funds.

299
Q

Earned Value Management (EVM) vs Expected Monetary Value (EMV)

A

EVM is a “project management technique” that integrates scope, schedule and cost to measure project performance and progress in an objective manner. EMV is a “statistical technique” that calculates the profit or loss of an outcome (e.g. a project) based on different scenarios, by taking into consideration the probability of occurrence and the expected profit or loss from each scenario.

300
Q

What is the fundamental difference between the EVM and ES methods?

A

EVM measures performance in terms of cost, whereas ES measures in terms of time.

301
Q

Define Inspection.

A

Examination of a work product to determine whether it conforms to documented standards.

302
Q

Give examples of Pure Risk.

A

Examples of Pure or Insurable risks include risk from fire, floods, accidents, theft, liabilities resulting from product failure and bodily injuries to employees, loss of key personnel etc.

303
Q

Which Process Group does the Conduct Procurements process belong to?

A

Executing

304
Q

Which Project Management Process Group does the Acquire Resources process belong to?

A

Executing

305
Q

Which Project Management Process Group does the Manage Communications process belong to?

A

Executing

306
Q

Which Project Management Process Group does the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process belong to?

A

Executing

307
Q

Which Project Management Process Group does the Manage Team process belong to?

A

Executing

308
Q

Which organizational theory concentrates on outcomes rather than needs?

A

Expectancy Theory

309
Q

EMV

A

Expected Monetary Value

310
Q

EPV

A

Expected Present Value

311
Q

Name a tool or technique which is used in all Integration processes.

A

Expert Judgment

312
Q

Reputation of a project manager is an example of which form of power?

A

Expert Power

313
Q

Which form of power is derived from the experience of a Project Manager?

A

Expert Power

314
Q

Which forms of power of a Project Manager are most effective in getting commitment from team members?

A

Expert Power and Referent Power

315
Q

What are the two types of knowledge?

A

Explicit and Tacit

316
Q

Explicit Knowledge vs Tacit Knowledge

A

Explicit knowledge is knowledge that can be documented using words, pictures, and numbers. Tacit knowledge is knowledge that is personal and difficult to express, such as beliefs, insights, experience, and “know-how”. Explicit knowledge is easy to share but lacks context and not easy to understand and apply. Tacit knowledge has context and easier to understand and apply.

317
Q

Exploit vs Enhance

A

Exploit is to ensure that the opportunity definitely happens, whereas Enhance is to increase the probability of occurrence or the impact of the opportunity.

318
Q

What are the two types of Enterprise Environmental Factors?

A

External and Internal

319
Q

XP

A

eXtreme Programming

320
Q

What is the preferred mode of communication between team members in XP?

A

Face-to-face communication

321
Q

What are the 3 main responsibilities of a project manager in an agile project?

A

Facilitating, Coaching, and Impediment Removal

322
Q

Which requirement gathering technique is most effective in quickly defining cross-functional requirements and reconciling stakeholder differences?

A

Facilitation

323
Q

What are Information Management Systems?

A

Facilities, processes, and procedures used to collect, store, and distribute information between producers and consumers of information in physical or electronic format.

324
Q

What are External Failures?

A

Failures found by the customer.

325
Q

What are Internal Failures?

A

Failures found by the project (team).

326
Q

By demonstrating impartiality and objectivity, which core value do we exhibit?

A

Fairness

327
Q

By demonstrating transparency in our decision-making, which core value do we exhibit?

A

Fairness

328
Q

Knowledge management is primarily concerned with documenting knowledge, so it can be shared. True or False?

A

False, because only explicit knowledge can be documented. Tacit knowledge cannot be documented and is shared through conversations and interactions.

329
Q

A project charter is considered to be a contract. True or False.

A

False, because there is no consideration or money promised or exchanged in its creation.

330
Q

A project phase is also known as a Project Management Process Group. True or False?

A

False.

331
Q

Low grade usually means low quality. True or False?

A

False.

332
Q

Low quality usually means low grade. True or False?

A

False.

333
Q

Management Reserves are included as a part of the earned value measurement calculations. True or False?

A

False.

334
Q

Point of Total Assumption (PTA) is the total cost of the project at which the seller makes no profit and no loss. True or False?

A

False.

335
Q

Agile projects use bottom-up estimating. True or False?

A

False. Agile projects use top-down estimating.

336
Q

Agreements are an output of Plan Procurement Management. True or False?

A

False. Agreements are an output of Conduct Procurements.

337
Q

Configuration Management System is a subset of Change Management System. True or False?

A

False. Change Management System is a subset of Configuration Management System.

338
Q

A project scheduling software, such as MS Project, is an Organizational Process Asset for the project. True or False?

A

False. Company systems and software applications are considered part of the Project Management Information System (PMIS), which is an Enterprise Environmental Factor.

339
Q

Adding contingency reserves to duration estimates is unethical. True or False?

A

False. Contingency reserves or buffers are extra time added to the duration estimate to account for uncertainty or risk. They are clearly identified in the schedule documentation.

340
Q

Contingency Reserves are not included in the Cost Baseline. True or False?

A

False. Cost Baseline includes Contingency Reserves, but excludes Management Reserves.

341
Q

Project managers should try to mitigate every possible risk on the project. True or False?

A

False. Different risk response strategies may be adopted based on the nature of the risk, with mitigation being one of them.

342
Q

Controlling PMOs maintain the highest degree of control on projects. True or False?

A

False. Directive PMOs exert the highest degree of control by directly maintaining the projects.

343
Q

Diversity in a project environment should be avoided. True or False?

A

False. Diversity is an asset and should be embraced.

344
Q

Float can be used for resource smoothing. True or False?

A

False. Float is used for leveling resources.

345
Q

As part of the communications process, the receiver is responsible for confirming that the information is properly understood. True or False?

A

False. It is sender’s responsibility to confirm that the information is properly understood.

346
Q

Risk Management Plan is an output of Identify Risks. True or False?

A

False. It’s an input.

347
Q

Stakeholder Register is an output of Plan Stakeholder Engagement. True or False?

A

False. It’s an input.

348
Q

Risk Register is an output of Plan Risk Responses. True or False?

A

False. It’s an input. Risk Register updates (as part of Project Document updates) are an output of Plan Risk Responses.

349
Q

Scope Baseline is an input to Create WBS. True or False?

A

False. It’s an output.

350
Q

Work Performance Data is an input to Direct and Manage Project Work. True or False?

A

False. It’s an output.

351
Q

Project Scope Statement is the main input to Define Scope. True or False?

A

False. It’s the main output of Define Scope.

352
Q

Activity duration estimates include the activity lag as well. True or False?

A

False. Lags are not included in duration estimates.

353
Q

Lean applies to production systems only. True or False?

A

False. Lean is a broad system that applies to the entire enterprise, including product development, production, sales, service and HR.

354
Q

All the lessons learned on the project are documented at the end of the project (or phase), in the Close Project or Phase process. True or False?

A

False. Lessons learned are documented throughout the project. However, the final lessons learned or any other lessons learned, which had not been documented earlier, are documented in the Close Project or Phase process.

355
Q

Project Quality Management is concerned with project quality and not product quality. True or False?

A

False. Project Quality Management is concerned with both project quality and product quality.

356
Q

Quality Metrics are included in the Quality Management Plan. True or False?

A

False. Quality Metrics are categorized as Project Documents.

357
Q

Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS) is used for categorizing human resources only. True or False?

A

False. RBS can contain resource categories other than human resources.

358
Q

Risks always have a negative impact on the project. True or False?

A

False. Risks may positively or negatively impact projects.

359
Q

Reducing project scope is a drastic but valid schedule compression technique. True or False?

A

False. Schedule compression, by definition, shortens the project schedule without changing the project scope.

360
Q

Scrum is an agile framework specifically for software development. True or False?

A

False. Scrum can be used for product development in any industry.

361
Q

Strategy is concerned with day-to-day business issues. True or False?

A

False. Strategy is concerned with long term vision, whereas operations or tactics are concerned with day-to-day issues.

362
Q

The project manager should maintain high level of engagement with key stakeholders throughout the project. True or False?

A

False. The level of engagement varies depending upon the stage that the project is in. For example, senior stakeholders may be highly engaged at the beginning of the project, to remove obstacles.

363
Q

All project generally consist of 5 project phases. True or False?

A

False. The number of phases, the need for phases, and the degree of control applied depend on the size, complexity, and potential impact of the project.

364
Q

The PMBOK® Guide provides a common methodology for managing projects. True or False?

A

False. The PMBOK® Guide provides guidelines (not methodology) for managing individual projects.

365
Q

Trade-off between Grade and Quality is usually made in favor of Quality. True or False?

A

False. The project management team manages the trade-off between Grade and Quality based on project requirements.

366
Q

Management tools and waste reduction are the two pillars of Lean. True or False?

A

False. The two pillars of Lean are Continuous Improvement (or kaizen) and Respect for People.

367
Q

Agreements are an output of the Develop Project Charter process. True or False?

A

False. They are an input.

368
Q

Schedule Forecasts are an input to Control Schedule. True or False?

A

False. They are an output.

369
Q

Work Performance Reports are an input to Monitor and Control Project Work. True or False?

A

False. They are an output.

370
Q

Accepted Deliverables are an output of Close Project or Phase. True or False?

A

False. They’re an input.

371
Q

Activity Cost Estimates are an output of Determine Budget. True or False?

A

False. They’re an input.

372
Q

Change Requests are an output of Perform Integrated Change Control. True or False?

A

False. They’re an input.

373
Q

Quality Metrics are an output of Manage Quality. True or False?

A

False. They’re an input.

374
Q

Resource Calendars are an output of Estimate Activity Durations. True or False?

A

False. They’re an input.

375
Q

Schedule Forecasts and Cost Forecasts are an output of Monitor and Control Project Work. True or False?

A

False. They’re an input.

376
Q

Work Performance Reports are an output of Manage Communications. True or False?

A

False. They’re an input.

377
Q

Resource Requirements are an output of Estimate Activity Durations. True or False?

A

False. They’re an output of Estimate Activity Resources.

378
Q

Change requests are an input to Control Schedule. True or False?

A

False. They’re an output.

379
Q

Make-or-Buy Decisions are an input to Plan Procurement Management. True or False?

A

False. They’re an output.

380
Q

Project Communications are an input to Manage Communications. True or False?

A

False. They’re an output.

381
Q

Project Schedule Network Diagrams are an input to Sequence Activities. True or False?

A

False. They’re an output.

382
Q

Selected Sellers are an input to Conduct Procurements. True or False?

A

False. They’re an output.

383
Q

Team Performance Assessments are an input to Develop Team. True or False?

A

False. They’re an output.

384
Q

Older workers usually are resistant to change. True or False?

A

False. This is a common myth about older workers.

385
Q

WBS is task-oriented. True or False?

A

False. WBS is deliverable-oriented.

386
Q

All the stakeholders are identified during project initiation. True or False?

A

False. While it’s important to identify the stakeholders at the beginning of the project, stakeholder identification is a continuous process and new stakeholders may be identified anytime during the life of the project.

387
Q

Work Performance Data is an input to the Monitor and Control Project Work process. True or False?

A

False. Work Performance Information (not Work Performance Data) is an input to Monitor and Control Project Work.

388
Q

Work Performance Information is an input to the Perform Integrated Change Control process. True or False?

A

False. Work Performance Reports (not Work Performance Information) is an input to Perform Integrated Change Control process.

389
Q

Feasibility Study vs Cost-Benefit Analysis

A

Feasibility Study is about “can we do it?”, whereas Cost-Benefit Analysis is about “should we do it?”

390
Q

What are Personas?

A

Fictitious characters used to represent the users of a future product.

391
Q

What is the primary output of the Close Project or Phase process?

A

Final product, service or result transition

392
Q

FF

A

Finish-to-Finish

393
Q

FS

A

Finish-to-Start

394
Q

FFP

A

Firm Fixed Price

395
Q

Which type of contract is generally preferred by buyers around the world?

A

Firm Fixed Price (FFP)

396
Q

What are Cause and Effect Diagrams commonly known as?

A

Fishbone Diagrams, Why-Why Diagrams or Ishikawa Diagrams

397
Q

What is a common voting method used on agile-based projects?

A

Fist of Five

398
Q

The definition of quality as defined by Dr. Joseph M. Juran is?

A

Fitness for use

399
Q

In which type of contract does seller’s profit go down as his effort goes up?

A

Fixed Price (as the seller’s effort increases, the project cost remains constant, but the seller’s profit continues to fall).

400
Q

In which type of contract would you use an Invitation for Bid (IFB)?

A

Fixed Price (FP)

401
Q

Which type of contract is more appropriate when the scope of work is clearly defined?

A

Fixed Price (FP)

402
Q

Which type of contract would be most appropriate when the buyer doesn’t have the time to audit invoices?

A

Fixed Price (FP)

403
Q

FPIF

A

Fixed Price Incentive Fee

404
Q

In which type of contract would you consider a Point of Total Assumption (PTA)?

A

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)

405
Q

Which type of contract sets a ceiling price for the seller?

A

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)

406
Q

Which type of contract uses parameters such as total price, award fee and fee criteria?

A

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)

407
Q

FP-EPA

A

Fixed Price With Economic Price Adjustment

408
Q

Which type of contract accounts for currency rate fluctuations, inflation, changes in the price of raw materials and labor rates, etc., over the course of the project?

A

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA)

409
Q

Which type of contract would be most suitable if the project work spans over 5 years?

A

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contracts (FP-EPA)

410
Q

Is float a resource or a constraint for a project?

A

Float is a resource. It should be managed judiciously to cover for risks or other unforeseen events.

411
Q

Which tool can help in understanding and estimating the cost of quality in a process?

A

Flowcharts

412
Q

What are the physiological needs as defined in Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?

A

Food, water, clothing, shelter, sleep, and sexual satisfaction

413
Q

What are the physiological needs as defined in Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs? (6)

A

Food, water, clothing, shelter, sleep, and sexual satisfaction

414
Q

What does the Expectancy Theory advocate?

A

For a person to be motivated, effort, performance and motivation must be linked.

415
Q

What are summary activities commonly used for?

A

For schedule control and management communication.

416
Q

Which conflict resolution technique generates a win-lose situation?

A

Force/Direct

417
Q

Which technique is generally regarded as the worst conflict resolution technique?

A

Force/Direct

418
Q

Which type of conflict resolution technique is usually reserved for resolving emergency situations?

A

Force/Direct

419
Q

Legitimate Power of a Project Manager is also known as?

A

Formal Power

420
Q

What are Seller Proposals?

A

Formal responses from sellers to a request for proposal or other procurement document specifying the price, commercial terms of sale, and technical specifications or capabilities the seller will do for the requesting organization that, if accepted, would bind the seller to perform the resulting agreement.

421
Q

Give an example of risk sharing.

A

Forming a partnership, team or a joint venture.

422
Q

What are Tuckman’s five stages of team development?

A

Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning

423
Q

What is the formula for Free Float of an activity?

A

Free Float ES of successor activity - EF of this activity where ES is Early Start, and EF is Early Finish

424
Q

When can free float occur on a schedule network?

A

Free float can occur when two or more activities converge into a single activity on a network.

425
Q

Free Float of an activity is determined _______ (before or after) determining the total float of the activity in CPM?

A

Free Float of an activity is determined <u>after</u> determining the total float of the activity in CPM?

426
Q

Whom does the project manager usually report to in a Balanced Matrix organization?

A

Functional Manager

427
Q

Who has the responsibility to provide adequate resources for the project?

A

Functional Managers

428
Q

Who holds more power in a matrix organization - Functional Managers or Project Managers?

A

Functional managers, because they control human resources directly and provide a permanent “home base” for project personnel to return to, after completion of the project.

429
Q

FV

A

Future Value

430
Q

What is Gold Plating?

A

Giving customer extras like extra functionality, high quality, better performance than what is part of the project requirements.

431
Q

What are Data Representation Techniques?

A

Graphic representations or other methods used to convey data and information.

432
Q

What is another name for Summary Activity?

A

Hammock Activity

433
Q

What is Conflict Management?

A

Handling, controlling, and guiding a conflictual situation to achieve a resolution.

434
Q

What are Mandatory Dependencies also known as?

A

Hard Logic or Hard Dependencies

435
Q

Give an example of a well described project risk.

A

Heavy rain (Cause) can lead to flooding at the construction site (Event) resulting in serious injuries to the workers and damage to the equipment (Effect).

436
Q

Which organizational theory deals with hygiene factors and motivating agents?

A

Herzberg’s Theory

437
Q

What is Heuristic Estimation?

A

Heuristic estimation technique uses “Rule of Thumb” or certain generally acceptable rules for estimation. Heuristic estimates are derived based on experience (on past projects) and not from scientific rules or formulae. For example, a software development company may have learned from experience that testing usually takes about 20% of the time it takes for coding.

438
Q

Being truthful in our communication and conduct is a demonstration of which core value?

A

Honesty

439
Q

Having the courage to share bad news even if it is received poorly is a demonstration of which core value?

A

Honesty

440
Q

Which process uses the SWOT Analysis technique?

A

Identify Risks

441
Q

What is/are the Project Stakeholder Management process(es) under the Initiating Process Group?

A

Identify Stakeholders

442
Q

Which is the only initiating process which uses Project Charter as an input?

A

Identify Stakeholders

443
Q

What is SWOT Analysis used for in the context of project management?

A

Identifying risks (SWOT Analysis is a technique for the Identify Risks process)

444
Q

What are Fishbone Diagrams used for?

A

Identifying root causes of problems or risks

445
Q

What is the formula for activity standard deviation?

A

σ (P - O) / 6 where σ is the standard deviation, P the pessimistic estimate and O the optimistic estimate of the activity.

446
Q

Name the Project Risk Management process(es) under the Executing Process Group.

A

Implement Risk Responses

447
Q

Define Critical Path.

A

In a project schedule network diagram, it is the longest path and corresponds to the shortest duration to complete the project. Its duration determines the duration of the project.

448
Q

Attribute Sampling vs Variable Sampling

A

In Attribute Sampling, data is in the “attribute” form, and the result either conforms or does not conform. In Variable Sampling, data is in the “variable” form, and the result is rated on a continuous scale that measures the degree of conformity. For example, whether a car starts in first attempt or not is Attribute Data, but the mileage of the car per liter of gasoline is Variable Data.

449
Q

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF) contract vs Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF) contract

A

In both these contracts, the seller is reimbursed for the allowable costs of project work. However, in CPFF, the seller fee is fixed and is not tied to the seller’s performance, whereas in CPIF, the seller fee is tied to the seller’s performance.

450
Q

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF) contract vs Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF) contract

A

In CPIF, the criteria for determining seller fee is defined in objective terms, whereas in CPAF, the criteria is subjective.

451
Q

Crashing vs Fast tracking

A

In Crashing, schedule is compressed by applying additional resources, working overtime, etc. Whereas in Fast tracking, activities which are usually performed in sequence are performed in parallel, to compress the schedule.

452
Q

In group decision-making, what’s the difference between majority and plurality?

A

In Majority, the option that receives more than 50% votes is selected. In Plurality, the option that receives the highest number of votes is selected.

453
Q

Single Source vs Sole Source

A

In Single Source procurement, the buyer decides to award the contract to a preferred seller (even though there may be other sellers in the market), without going through the procurement process. In Sole Source procurement, there is only one seller in the market for the item to be procured.

454
Q

Where is the status of change requests documented?

A

In the Change Log.

455
Q

What is Early Finish Date (EF)?

A

In the critical path method, the earliest possible date on which a schedule activity can finish without violating any schedule constraint.

456
Q

What is Early Start Date (ES)?

A

In the critical path method, the earliest possible date on which a schedule activity can start without violating any schedule constraint.

457
Q

What is Late Start Date (LS)?

A

In the critical path method, the latest possible date that a schedule activity can begin without delaying the project or violating any schedule constraint.

458
Q

What is Late Finish Date (LF)?

A

In the critical path method, the latest possible date that a schedule activity can complete without delaying the project or violating any schedule constraint.

459
Q

Where are the actual outcomes of project risks documented?

A

In the Risk Register

460
Q

What is the fundamental principle of Six Sigma?

A

Increase predictability to reduce defects.

461
Q

What are the objectives of Project Risk Management?

A

Increase the probability and impact of positive events, and decrease the probability and impact of negative events in the project, in order to optimize the chances of project success.

462
Q

Which type of communication (Formal or Informal) is more effective in creating new knowledge?

A

Informal communication is more effective for creating new knowledge. Formal, rigid communication requirements are good for sharing information.

463
Q

IT

A

Information Technology

464
Q

What form of power is gained through flattery or other common ground?

A

Ingratiating

465
Q

At what stage of the project is stakeholders’ influence the highest?

A

Initial stage

466
Q

What are the different styles that a PM adopts as the project progresses?

A

Initially, the PM’s style is more <i>directing</i>. The style changes to <i>coaching</i>, <i>supporting</i> and finally <i>delegating</i> as the project progresses.

467
Q

Which Process Group does the Identify Stakeholders process belong to?

A

Initiating

468
Q

Which Project Management Process Group does the Identify Stakeholders process belong to?

A

Initiating

469
Q

Are Seller Proposals an input or an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

A

Input

470
Q

ITTO

A

Inputs, Tools and Techniques, Outputs

471
Q

Which technique is used to validate defect repairs?

A

Inspection

472
Q

Inspection keeps errors out of the ________________.

A

Inspection keeps errors out of the <u>hands of the customer</u>.

473
Q

How does the interactive communication model enhance the basic communication model?

A

Interactive communication model adds the following 2 elements: - Acknowledge - Feedback/response

474
Q

Internal Failure vs External Failure

A

Internal Failure is the failure found by the project and External Failure is the failure found by the customer.

475
Q

IRR

A

Internal Rate of Return

476
Q

The discount rate at which the NPV of a project is zero is known as?

A

Internal Rate of Return (IRR)

477
Q

Which type of risks does SWOT Analysis help in identifying?

A

Internal risks (originating from within the organization)

478
Q

ISO

A

International Organization for Standardization

479
Q

What are the characteristics of a good user story?

A

INVEST (Independent, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimable, Small, and Testable) is a set of criteria used to assess the quality of a user story.

480
Q

IFB

A

Invitation For Bid

481
Q

What is meant by I-shaped skills?

A

I-shaped skills mean deep skills in the core area of expertise, but lack of skills outside the core area.

482
Q

Why is it important to involve team members early in the project?

A

It adds their expertise during the planning process and strengthens their commitment to the project.

483
Q

What is the key benefit of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

A

It allows the project manager to increase support and minimize resistance from stakeholders, and significantly increase the chances of project success.

484
Q

What is the purpose of managing stakeholder engagement?

A

It allows the project manager to increase support and minimize resistance from stakeholders.

485
Q

What is the key benefit of the Identify Stakeholders process?

A

It allows the project team to identify the appropriate focus for each stakeholder.

486
Q

Why is it important to involve team members in defining activity lists?

A

It can lead to better and more accurate decomposition of work packages into activities.

487
Q

What is the benefit of using a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)?

A

It ensures that there is only one person accountable for any one task, and thus avoids confusion.

488
Q

What are the benefits of maintaining an Issue Log on a project?

A

It helps in timely resolution of issues, and avoiding conflicts and project delays that can result from unresolved issues.

489
Q

How does the Configuration Management Plan (a component of the Project Management Plan) help to control scope?

A

It helps to identify items that require formal change control and the process for controlling changes to such items.

490
Q

What is the benefit of using a logical data model?

A

It helps to identify the sources of data integrity and other quality issues.

491
Q

What is the purpose of a Histogram?

A

It illustrates the most common cause of problems in a process by the number and relative heights of the bars.

492
Q

What is Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR)?

A

It includes processes and techniques to resolve disputes without resorting to litigation.

493
Q

What are the benefits of involving the customers and other stakeholders during project initiation?

A

It increases: - Shared understanding of success criteria - Probability of deliverable acceptance - Customer satisfaction

494
Q

What is Interactional leadership?

A

It is a combination of transactional, transformational, and charismatic leadership styles.

495
Q

What is Organizational Project Management (OPM)?

A

It is a framework in which portfolio, program, and project management are integrated with organizational enablers in order to achieve strategic objectives.

496
Q

What is Total Productive Maintenance (TPM)?

A

It is a holistic approach to equipment maintenance that strives to achieve perfect production with no breakdowns, slowdowns, defects or accidents. It emphasizes proactive and preventive maintenance to maximize the operational efficiency of equipment. It places a strong emphasis on empowering operators to help maintain their equipment.

497
Q

What is a Pull System?

A

It is a lean manufacturing strategy used to reduce waste in the production process. It creates a workflow where work is pulled only if there is a demand for it.

498
Q

What is the Theory of Constraints (TOC)?

A

It is a methodology for identifying the most important limiting factor (i.e. constraint) that stands in the way of achieving a goal and then systematically improving that constraint until it is no longer the limiting factor. In manufacturing, the constraint is often referred to as a bottleneck.

499
Q

What is Product Analysis?

A

It is a tool to define the scope by studying how a product is to be built, how it should work, how it should look like, what it should cost, etc. It is used when the deliverable of the project is a product (as opposed to a service or result).

500
Q

What is common among Define Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, and Identify Risks processes?

A

It is important to involve team members in all these processes. Involving team members in the decomposition can lead to better and more accurate results. Work should be estimated by people most familiar with the work. Involving team members in risk identification helps to develop and maintain a sense of ownership and responsibility for the risks and associated risk response actions.

PMP Exam (5 decks)

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