Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SCA > DB's SY 737 Limitations > Flashcards

DB's SY 737 Limitations Flashcards

0
Q

Max landing tailwind component

A

10 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Max takeoff tailwind component

A

820SY-821SY are 15 kts

All others are 10 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Max autoland headwind component

A

25 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Max takeoff crosswind component:

  1. With scimitar/blended wing
  2. Without blended wing
A
  1. 34 kts

2. 36 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Max landing crosswind component:

A

40 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Max autoland crosswind component

A

15 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Max operating altitude

A

41,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Max takeoff and landing altitude

A

8,400 ft pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Severe Turbulence Air Penetration speed during climb or descent

A

280KIAS/.76M, whichever is lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Vfe flaps 1

A

250

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Vfe flaps 2

A

250

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Vfe flaps 5

A

250

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Vfe flaps 10

A

210

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Vfe flaps 15

A

800’s - 200

700’s - 195

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Vfe flaps 25

A

800’s - 190

700’s - 170

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Vfe flaps 30

A

800’s - 175

700’s - 165

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Vfe flaps 40

A

800’s - 162

700’s - 156

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Vlo (ret)

A

235 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Vlo (ext)

A

270 kts or .82 M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Vle

A

320 kts or .82M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Takeoffs are prohibited in what types of precip?

A
  1. Moderate or heavy freezing rain
  2. Heavy ice pellets
  3. Hail
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Engine EGT Limits:

Takeoff

A

950°C for 5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Engine EGT Limits:

Max Continuous

A

925°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Engine EGT Limits:

Starting

A

725°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Engine ignition must be on for what conditions?

A
  1. Takeoff
  2. Landing
  3. Heavy rain
  4. Anti-ice operation
  5. Severe turbulence (SCA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Reduced thrust is not allowed when?

A
  1. Anti-skid is INOP
  2. Runway is contaminated with:
    •Standing water
    •Ice
    •Slush
    •Snow
  3. Windshear (FOM 3.4.18)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Max flaps extension altitude?

A

20,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In what weather condition is holding with flaps prohibited?

A

Icing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What must the lateral fuel imbalance between tanks 1 and 2 be scheduled to?

A

Zero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Max random fuel imbalance?

A

1,000 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Max fuel tank temp

A

49°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Min fuel tank temp prior to takeoff and inflight

A

-43°C or 3°C above the fuel freezing point (typically-40° for Jet A and -47°C for Jet A-1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When must main fuel tanks be full?

A

If center fuel tank contains more than 1000 lbs

33
Q

When must BOTH center tank fuel pump switches be off?

  1. Ground operations
  2. Ground and Air
A
  1. On ground, < 1000 lbs in center tank (except defueling or transferring fuel)
  2. Ground and flight ops, when the first center tank fuel pump low pressure light illuminates if the center tank is empty
34
Q

When must the CORRESPONDING center tank fuel pump switch be off?

A

For ground and air ops, when a center tank fuel pump low pressure light illuminates.

35
Q

What operation of a center fuel tank pump is prohibited?

A

Intentional dry running

LOW PRESSURE light illuminated

36
Q

What TCAS II indication authorizes pilots to deviate from their current ATC clearance to the extent necessary?

A

Resolution Advisory (RA)

37
Q

What is prohibited when the PSEU light is illuminated and cannot be reset?

A

Takeoff

38
Q

Max runway slope

A

+/-2%

39
Q

Max allowable in-flight difference between Captain and First Officer altitude displays for RVSM operations

A

200 ft

40
Q

Max allowable on-the-ground altitude display differences for RVSM operations between CA and FO?

A

50 ft
or
60 ft when above 5,000 ft field elevation.

41
Q

Max allowable on-the-ground altitude display differences for RVSM operations between CA or FO and field elevation?

A

75 ft

42
Q

Flight Crew Oxygen Requirements

See chart if below what PSI for 2 crew?

A

735

43
Q

Flight Crew Oxygen Requirements

See chart if below what PSI for 3 crew?

A

1055

44
Q

Which trim usage is prohibited with the autopilot engaged?

A

Aileron trim

45
Q

What autopilot mode is prohibited on final approach below 1000 ft AFE?

A

LVL CHG

46
Q

Max cabin differential pressure

A

Red radial (8.75 PSI)

47
Q

With engine bleed air switches ON, do not operate the air conditioning packs in HIGH during what phases of flight?

A

Takeoff, approach and landing.

48
Q

Minimum Altitude with Autopilot Engaged for takeoff

A

1000 ft AGL

49
Q

Minimum Altitude with Autopilot Engaged enroute

A

1000 ft AGL

50
Q

Minimum Altitude with Autopilot Engaged for ILS coupled approach? (Non autoland - single channel autopilot)

A

50 ft AGL

51
Q

Minimum Altitude with Autopilot Engaged for ILS coupled approach? (Autoland)

A

After touchdown

52
Q

Minimum Altitude with Autopilot Engaged for non-precision approach?

A

50 feet below MDA(H), VNAV DA(H)

53
Q

Boom microphones must be used below what altitude?

A

18,000 feet (except as permitted by SCA MEL)

54
Q

Reduced (SEL TEMP in FMC) or derated thrust is not allowed when?

A

When EEC is in Alternate Mode.

55
Q

APU Max Altitudes:

Ground only, APU bleed + electrical load

A

15,000 ft

56
Q

APU Max Altitudes:

Inflight, APU bleed + electrical load

A

10,000 ft

57
Q

APU Max Altitudes:

APU bleed only

A

17,000 ft

58
Q

APU Max Altitudes:

APU electrical load only

A

41,000 ft

59
Q

When must the APU bleed valve be closed?

A
  1. Ground air connected and isolation valve open
  2. Engine no.1 bleed valve open
  3. Isolation and engine no.2 bleed valves open
60
Q

Can APU bleed valve be open during engine start?

A

Yes, but avoid engine power above idle.

61
Q

After three consecutive aborted starts, what is required?

A

A 15 minute cooling period.

62
Q

Max Taxi weight

  1. 700’s
  2. 800’s
A
  1. 155,000 lbs

2. 174,700 lbs

63
Q

Max Takeoff weight

  1. 700’s
  2. 800’s
A
  1. 154,500 lbs

2. 174,200 lbs

64
Q

Max Zero Fuel weight

  1. 700’s
  2. 801SY-805SY
  3. 808SY-822SY
A
  1. 121,700 lbs
  2. 136,000 lbs
  3. 138,300 lbs
65
Q

Max Landing weight

  1. 710SY-712SY, 714SY-716SY
  2. 713SY
  3. 801SY-805SY
  4. 808SY-822SY
A
  1. 129,200
  2. 128,000
  3. 146,000
  4. 146,300
66
Q

Min altitude to deploy speed brakes

A

1,000 RA

67
Q

In flight, do not extend the SPEED BRAKE lever beyond what point?

A

The FLIGHT DETENT.

68
Q

Max Alt Flaps speed for 1, 2, and 5?

A

230

69
Q

Min oil quantity for dispatch?

A

12 quarts

70
Q

When extending or retracting flaps with the alternate flaps position switch, how long should you allow after releasing the switch before moving it again? Why?

A

15 seconds

To avoid damage to the alt flap motor clutch.

71
Q

Alt Flap Duty Cycle

How much cooling after a complete extend/retract cycle is needed before attempting another extension?

A

5 minutes

72
Q

Are QFE altitudes acceptable?

A

No.

73
Q

What is required if actual landing weight exceeds maximum permissible quick turn-around weight?

A

A waiting period of 67 minutes (ramp time) is required before takeoff, which includes a visual inspection by the PM after the 67 mins expires to ensure thermal plug integrity.

74
Q

What are the approved fuel types for:

  1. Unlimited use?
  2. Acceptable alternatives?
  3. Specifically prohibited?
A
  1. Jet A or Jet A1
  2. JP-5, JP-8 or F-24
  3. Wide cut Jet B
75
Q

737-800W dimensions

  1. Height?
  2. Wingspan?
  3. Length?
A
  1. 41’ 2”
  2. 117’ 5”
  3. 129’ 6”
76
Q

Engine type

A

Two GE CFM56-7B

77
Q

Fuel capacity:

  1. Tank 1?
  2. Tank 2?
  3. Center?
  4. Total?
A
  1. 8,630
  2. 8,630
  3. 28,803
  4. 46,063
78
Q

What publications are mandatory for flight release?

A
  1. FPM (Vol I)
  2. AML
  3. QRH
  4. Performance Inflight
  5. Jepps

(FOM INTRO.09)

79
Q

What are the critical aircraft surfaces?

A

Anything that has an aerodynamic, control, sensing, movement or measuring function including:

  1. Wings
  2. Flight controls
  3. Vertical and horizontal stabilizers
  4. Engine inlets
  5. Pitot heads/masts
  6. Static ports/masts
  7. Ram air intakes
  8. Fuel vents

SCA (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions