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National Boards Part 1 > Day Two > Flashcards

Day Two Flashcards

1
Q

What are gluconate and triclosan used for?

A

Handwashing agents

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2
Q

What bacterium is considered the marker for intermediate sterilization?

A

M. tuberculosis

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3
Q

What medication is used to treat bacteremias caused by Pseudomonas?

A

Gentamicin

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4
Q

What two bacteria are found to play a role in ANUG?

A

Prevotella intermedia and Spirochetes

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5
Q

What two bacteria are associated with most generalized cases of perio?

A

Prevotella intermedia and Eikenella corrodens

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6
Q

What two bacteria are associated with most localized cases of perio?

A

AA and Capnocytophaga ochraceus

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7
Q

Describe Lacobacillus:

A

Regular, non-sporing, gram-positive bacteria

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8
Q

What bacteria is the main cause of smooth surface caries?

A

S. mutans

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9
Q

What bacteria is the main cause of root caries?

A

Acinomyces

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10
Q

What process describes change in the DNA of one bacterium by uptaking DNA that was from another, lysed bacterium?

A

Transformation

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11
Q

What process describes change in DNA from viruses in bacteria?

A

Transduction

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12
Q

What are the four stages of bacterial growth?

A
  1. Lag, 2. log, 3. Stationary and 4. Decline
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13
Q

What is another term that describes peptidoglycan?

A

Murein

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14
Q

What is the DNA region of prokaryotes called?

A

Nucleoid

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15
Q

Where are endotoxins located?

A

In the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria

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16
Q

What do Streptococcus, staphylococcus and Clostridium possess to spread throughout the body?

A

Hyaluronidase

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17
Q

What bacteria has coagulase and phospholipase to convert fibrinogen to fibrin and to lyse RBCs?

A

S. aureus

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18
Q

What bacteria has Lecithinase to destroy RBCs and other tissues?

A

C. perfringens

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19
Q

What do Clostridium, Bacteroides, AA and Bacillus possess?

A

Collagenase

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20
Q

What enzyme possessed by Strep and Staph enables the dissolving of blood clots?

A

Fibrinolysins

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21
Q

What type of streptococci produces a zone of incomplete, green hemolysis, complete hemolysis and incomplete hemolysis?

A

Alpha = incomplete, Beta = complete and Gamma = none

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22
Q

What protein seems to be connected to the virulence of a bacterial strain?

A

M protein

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23
Q

What superantigen is produced by Streptococcus pyogenes?

A

Pyrogenic exotoxin A

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24
Q

What bacteria causes strep throat, scarlet fever, erysipelas, impetigo, cellulitis, rheumatic fever, and acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A

Streptococcus Pyogenes

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25
Q

What group of Strep is the leading cause of neonatal pneumonia, meningitis and sepsis?

A

Group B Strep

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26
Q

What morphology do bacteroides, fusobacterium and prevotella have?

A

Gram-negative anaerobic rods

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27
Q

What morphology do Pseudomonas, Bordetella, Neisseria, Brucella and Legionella have?

A

Gram-negative aerobic rods and cocci

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28
Q

What exotoxin rapidly destroys tissues?

A

Exotoxin B

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29
Q

What toxin causes the rash of scarlet fever?

A

Erythrogenic toxin

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30
Q

What disease is a neuromuscular disorder characterized by variable weakness of voluntary muscles, which often improves with rest and worsens with activity and is an abnormal immune response?

A

Myasthenia gravis

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31
Q

What disease is similar to Myasthenia gravis, but is caused by a inadequate release of ACh instead?

A

Eaton-Lambert Syndrome

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32
Q

What term describes toxic accumulation of unconjugated billirubin in the brain and spinal cord?

A

Kernicterus

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33
Q

What is used by the body to absorb vitamin B12?

A

Intrinsic Factor

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34
Q

What is caused by a lack of Vitamin B 12?

A

Pernicious anemia

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35
Q

What type of anemia is Pernicious anemia?

A

Megaloblastic

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36
Q

What disorder is caused by a inherited lack of production of one of the four chains of amino acids that make up hemoglobin?

A

Thalassemias

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37
Q

What disease is a result of inadequate destruction of red bone marrow?

A

Aplastic anemia

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38
Q

What disorder results from displaced hemopoietic tissues and is causes severe anemia with normal cytic and chormic erythrocytes?

A

Myelophthisic anemia

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39
Q

What anemia is associated with iron deficiency?

A

Microcytic anemia

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40
Q

What is the most common type of necrosis?

A

Coagulative necrosis

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41
Q

What type of injury is associated with mononuclear inflammatory cells (lymphocytes, plasma cells and macrophages) and the production of fibrous connective tissue?

A

Chronic Inflammation

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42
Q

What cells are involved in an acute inflammation response?

A

Basophils, mast cells and platelets

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43
Q

What is the scientific term for pus?

A

Exudate

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44
Q

What WBC predominates the cellular phase of an acute inflammation?

A

PMN

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45
Q

What cell marks the transition from acute to chronic inflammation?

A

Macrophages

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46
Q

What leukemia is the most common in children?

A

ALL

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47
Q

What leukemia is the most malignant?

A

AML

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48
Q

What leukemia is the least malignant?

A

CLL

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49
Q

What leukemia has two stages and is always fatal?

A

CML

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50
Q

What are large purpura spots called?

A

Ecchymoses

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51
Q

What disease is caused by a deficiency in platelets, leads to multiple bruises, petechiae, and hemorrhage into tissue?

A

Thrombocytopenic purpura (Werlhof’s disease)

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52
Q

What disease is a severe disease caused by a low platelet count due to thrombosis in terminal arterioles and capillaries of many organs?

A

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic purpura

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53
Q

What is the most common cause of bleeding disorders?

A

Thrombocytopenia

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54
Q

What vitamin does Dicumarol interfere with?

A

Vitamin K

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55
Q

What does cirrhosis of the liver have to do with delayed blood clotting?

A

Patients with cirrhosis have less prothrobin in the blood and don’t have as good of clotting

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56
Q

What is Bernard-Soulier disease?

A

A hereditary platelet adhesion disorder

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57
Q

What leukemia is associated with Philadelphia chromosomes?

A

CML

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58
Q

What two types of leukemia are the most common in adults?

A

AML and CLL

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59
Q

What disease is characterized by mild to massive bleeding from an arterial vessel due to a tear in mucosa of the cardia or lower esophagus with vomiting or bright colored blood?

A

Mallory-Weiss syndrome

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60
Q

What disease is associated with difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids and is a nerve disorder that disrupts peristalsis?

A

Achalasia

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61
Q

What are Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s signs used to detect?

A

Tetany

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62
Q

What tetany-detecting sign is performed by tapping the facial nerve above the mandibular angle and testing the twitch of the upper lip?

A

Chvostek’s sign

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63
Q

What tetany-detecting sign is checked by applying a blood pressure cuff to the patient’s arm and checking for a spasm in the thumb?

A

Trousseau’s sign

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64
Q

What is trisomy 18 better known as?

A

Edward’s syndrome

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65
Q

What is trisomy 13 better known as?

A

Patau’s syndrome

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66
Q

What syndrome affects men and women equally and is a hereditary disease where many small lumps called juvenille polyps appear in the GI tract, has melanin pigmentation of the oral mucosa, and don’t have an increased risk of cancer from polyps?

A

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

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67
Q

What syndrome is associated with polyps along with tumors of the CNS?

A

Turcots syndrome

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68
Q

What disease is associated with pigmentation, cirrhosis of the liver, degeneration of the basal ganglia, green pigment in the periphery of the cornea and problems metabolizing copper?

A

Wilson’s disease

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69
Q

What is the most severe immunodeficiency disease that causes a failure of stem cells to differentiate properly and results in the patient having neither B nor T lymphocytes?

A

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disease (SCID)

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70
Q

What disease is associated with immunodeficiency, eczema and only affects boys?

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

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71
Q

What disease is associated with a strange gait, visible dilation of blood vessels, and proneness to infections?

A

Ataxia-telangiectasia

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72
Q

What disease is an immunodeficiency where there is tons of IgE and repeated bacterial infections?

A

Hyperimmunoglobulin E syndrome (Job Syndrome)

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73
Q

What immunodeficiency is associated with no IgG and is sex linked?

A

X-linked agammaglobulinemia (Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia)

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74
Q

What causes Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia?

A

Mutation of B-cell protein tyrosine kinase

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75
Q

What does a lack of folic acid cause?

A

Anemia

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76
Q

What does a lack of Vitamin B1 cause?

A

Pins-and-needles sensation, especially in the feet

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77
Q

What does a lack of Vitamin B2 cause?

A

Sore tongue and cracks at the edge of mouth

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78
Q

What does a lack of Vitamin B12 cause?

A

Anemia, pins-and-needles sensation

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79
Q

What does a lack of Vitamin C cause?

A

Weakness, bleeding gums

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80
Q

What does a lack of Vitamin D cause?

A

Bone thinning

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81
Q

What does a lack of Protein cause?

A

Tissue swelling

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82
Q

What is the name of the rare condition where infection of the intestine causes malabsorption, causes skin darkening, inflamed and painful joints and diarrhea?

A

Whipple’s disease

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83
Q

What test is used to detect E. Coli, Vibrio Cholerae, and Staph. aureus?

A

ELISA

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84
Q

What defines an endemic?

A

Infection constantly present at low levels in a specific population

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85
Q

What is the most common cause of encephalitis?

A

Viral infection

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86
Q

What disease is a overwhelming, rapidly-progressing infection caused by Neisseria meningitidis?

A

Waterhous-Friderichsen syndrome

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87
Q

What happens in the first stage of Syphilis?

A

Non-painful chancre emerges

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88
Q

What happens in the second stage of Syphilis?

A

Maculopapular rash and condyloma lata

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89
Q

What happens in the third stage of Syphilis?

A

Gumma appears and neurologic symptoms are evident

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90
Q

What is the best treatment for Syphilis?

A

Parenteral Penicillin G

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91
Q

What is the name of the warty soft tissue enlargement caused by HPV?

A

Condyloma acuminatum

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92
Q

Salpingitis is associated with infection from which type of bacteria?

A

Chlamydia

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93
Q

What medication interferes with Influenza A’s ability to attach and uncoat?

A

Amantadine

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94
Q

What typically results from a bacterial infection (WBC-wise)?

A

Leukocytosis

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95
Q

What typically results from a viral infection (WBC-wise)?

A

Leukopenia

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96
Q

Describe rubella:

A

A member of togavirus that is enveloped with an icosahedral nucleocapsid and negative-stranded, double stranded RNA genome

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97
Q

What are the consequences of a congenital rubella syndrome for the baby?

A

Malformation of the heart, eyes and brain

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98
Q

What term describes condensation of cell nucleus with chromatin clumping?

A

Pyknosis

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99
Q

What term describes shrinkage of cell nuclei and condensation of the chromatin?

A

Karyopyknosis

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100
Q

What term describes the fragmentation of the cell nucleus and chromatin?

A

Karyorrhexis

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101
Q

What disease causes the kidney to fail to develop and creates cysts deep within the kidney?

A

Medullary cystic disease

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102
Q

What disease causes the kidneys to appear spongy and dilates the urine-containing tubules of the kidneys?

A

Medullary sponge kidney

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103
Q

What syndrome has symptoms of proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia and edema?

A

Nephrotic Syndrome

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104
Q

What sign would suggest pyelonephritis?

A

WBCs in urine

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105
Q

What sign would suggest nephritic syndrome?

A

RBCs in urine

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106
Q

What symptom would accompany infarction of the kidney?

A

Few RBCs in urine

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107
Q

Glomerulonephritis often follows an infection by which type of bacteria?

A

Streptococcus

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108
Q

What term describes a malignant neoplasm’s growth in which there is no differentiation to suggest a particular cell type?

A

Anaplasia

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109
Q

What neoplasm exhibits prickle cells and keratin pearls?

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

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110
Q

What is the key difference in histology between malignant lymphomas and Hodgkin’s disease?

A

Reed-sternberg cells are present in Hodgkin’s disease

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111
Q

Where is the most likely place to develop malignant neoplasms in the GI tract?

A

Colon/rectum

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112
Q

What are the most common pelvic tumors?

A

Uterine fibroids

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113
Q

What type of tumor includes Chondrosarcomas, Malignant giant cell tumors, Osteogenic sarcomas and parosteal osteogenic sarcomas?

A

Osseous tumors

114
Q

What type of tumor includes Chordoma, Ewing’s sarcoma and fibrosarcomas?

A

Nonosseous tumors

115
Q

What bone tumor is the most common, occurs usually in males between age 10 and 30, and occur in the most often in the femur?

A

Osteogenic Sarcoma

116
Q

What bone tumor occur most often in females ages 30-40, occurs in the distal femur, and develops on the surface of bone?

A

Parosteal osteogenic sarcoma

117
Q

What bone tumor occurs in males ages 30-50 most often, occurs in the pelvis, proximal femur, ribs and shoulder girdle, and develops from cartilage?

A

Chondrosarcoma

118
Q

What bone tumor is usually found in females ages 18-50, arises in long bones, and most often arises in the knee area?

A

Malignant giant cell tumor

119
Q

Where does breast cancer typically surface?

A

The left breast in the upper, outer quadrant

120
Q

What is the most common cause of a clinically palpable mass in women 28-44?

A

Fibrocystic disease

121
Q

Where does multiple myeloma arise?

A

Plasma cells

122
Q

What is the key radiographic evidence of a case of multiple myeloma?

A

“Punched out” radiolucencies

123
Q

What is key evidence of multiple myeloma found in the urine?

A

Bench Jones protein

124
Q

What pathology is related to SCCs and occurs in the pilosebaceous glands?

A

Keratoacanthomas

125
Q

What pathology appears as small, red-to-brown bumps that result from an accumulation of fibroblasts?

A

Dermatofibromas

126
Q

What skin pathology is associated with hyperkeratosis and pigmentation of the skin around the axilla, neck, flexures and anogenital regions?

A

Acanthosis nigricans

127
Q

What passes through the optic canal besides the optic nerve?

A

The ophthalmic artery

128
Q

What passage does CN I pass through?

A

Cribiform plate perforations of the Ethmoid bone

129
Q

What passage does CN XII pass through?

A

Hypoglossal canal of the occipital bone

130
Q

What passage does the carotid artery and sympathetic nerves pass through?

A

Carotid canal of the temporal bone

131
Q

What passage does the nasolacrimal duct pass through?

A

Lacrimal canal of the maxilla and lacrimal bones

132
Q

What two CNs pass through the internal acoustic meatus?

A

CN VIII and CN VII

133
Q

Where does the facial nerve leave the temporal bone?

A

It emerges through the stylomastoid foramen

134
Q

What attaches to the lingula of the mandible?

A

Sphenomandibular ligament

135
Q

What set of canals are always present in the incisive foramen?

A

Foramina of Stenson

136
Q

What set of canals may be present in the incisive foramen?

A

Foramina of Scarpa

137
Q

What foramen allows the spinal accessory nerve to pass?

A

Jugular foramen

138
Q

What forament allows the passage of the V-2 nerve?

A

Rotundum

139
Q

What forament allows the passage of the V-3 nerve and lesser petrosal nerve?

A

Ovale

140
Q

What does the foramen magnum allow to pass through it?

A

Medulla oblongata, vertebral arteries and spinal accessory nerve (?)

141
Q

What forament allows the passage of the middle meningela artery and vein?

A

Spinosum

142
Q

What forament allows the passage of the emissary vein in fetal life?

A

Cecum

143
Q

Where does the abducent nerve enter the orbit?

A

The Superior orbital fissure

144
Q

What does the superior orbital fissure allow to pass?

A

The trochlear nerve, the oculomotor nerve, the abducent nerve the V-1 nerve and the superior ophthalmic vein

145
Q

What two structures pass through the petrotympanic fissure?

A

The chorda tympani and anterior tympanic artery

146
Q

What two nerves pass through the foramen lacerum?

A

Greater and deep petrosal nerves

147
Q

What three structures pass through the inferior orbital fissure?

A
  1. Maxillary nerve, 2. Inferior ophthalmic veins and 3. sympathetic nerves
148
Q

What is the fate of the ductus venosus found in the fetus?

A

It forms the ligamentum venosum near the liver after birth

149
Q

What is the fate of the umbilical vein after birth?

A

Forms the round ligament of the liver

150
Q

What is the fate of the ductus arteriosum after birth?

A

Becomes the ligamentum arteriosum

151
Q

What is the fate of the umbilical arteries?

A

Become the lateral umbilical ligaments

152
Q

Where is the hepatic portal vein in relation to the bile duct and proper hepatic artery?

A

Posterior

153
Q

Where is the hepatic portal vein in relation to the epiploic foramen?

A

Anterior

154
Q

What two veins merge to form the hepatic portal vein?

A

Splenic and superior mesenteric veins

155
Q

What three veins of the digestive tract are drained by the hepatic portal vein?

A

Posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal vein, right gastric vein and left gastric vein

156
Q

How much blood does the hepatic portal vein carry compared to the hepatic arteries?

A

Twice as much

157
Q

Where does the thoracic duct drain?

A

Between the left internal jugular and subclavian veins

158
Q

What two structures does the thoracic duct ascend between in the thorax?

A

The aorta and azygos veins

159
Q

Which joint allows one to nod their head?

A

Atlanto-occiptial joint

160
Q

Which joint allows one to shake their head?

A

Atlanto-axial joint

161
Q

What classification of joint describes synovial joints?

A

Diarthroses (freely movable)

162
Q

What type of joint is an immovable joint?

A

Synarthroses

163
Q

What type of joint is a slightly-movable joint?

A

Amphiarthorses

164
Q

Where is the primary taste area of the brain?

A

Parietal lobe

165
Q

Where is the primary smelling area of the brain?

A

Temporal lobe

166
Q

Where is the somatosensory association area?

A

Parietal lobe

167
Q

Regarding the branches of the vagus nerve, which side ends up anterior and which side ends up posterior?

A

LARP

168
Q

Which CN innervates the posterior belly of the digastric muscle and stylohyoid muscle?

A

Facial nerve (CN VII)

169
Q

What CN innervates the anterior belly of the digastric muscle and the mylohyoid muscle?

A

V-3

170
Q

What nerve innervates the geniohyoid muscle?

A

First cervical nerve (C1)

171
Q

What innervates all the infrahyoid muscles except the thyrohyoid muscle?

A

The ansa cervicalis (C1, C2 and C3)

172
Q

What nerve supplies the thyrohyoid muscle?

A

C1 fibers from CN XII

173
Q

What nerve arises from the geniculate ganglion?

A

Greater petrosal

174
Q

What branch of the facial nerve provides taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?

A

Chorda tympani

175
Q

Where do taste fibers of the posterior one-third of the tongue receive innervation?

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve

176
Q

What is typically injured should a patient be unable to cry?

A

Greater petrosal nerve

177
Q

What two divisions are there of the vagus nerve’s sensory component?

A
  1. Superior ganglion and 2. inferior ganglion
178
Q

What does the superior ganglion of the vagus nerve innervate (2)?

A
  1. Meningeal -> dura mater, 2. Auricular -> auricle, external auditory meatus
179
Q

What does the inferior ganglion of the vagus nerve innervate (2 groups)?

A

All muscles of the pharynx (except stylopharyngeus muscle) and all muscles of the soft palate (except tensor veli palatini)

180
Q

What innervates the stylopharyngeus muscle?

A

The glossopharyngeal nerve

181
Q

What innervates the tensor veli palatini?

A

V-3

182
Q

The superior laryngeal nerve divides into two branches - what are they?

A
  1. Internal laryngeal nerve and 2. External laryngeal nerve
183
Q

What does the internal laryngeal nerve innervate?

A

Mucous membranes above the vocal folds

184
Q

What does the external laryngeal nerve innervate?

A

Cricothyroid muscle

185
Q

What nerves form the greater splanchnic nerve?

A

T5-T9

186
Q

What nerves form the lesser splanchnic nerve?

A

T10-T11

187
Q

What nerve forms the least splanchnic nerve?

A

T12

188
Q

Where does the greater splanchnic nerve pass through and where does it end?

A

Crura of the diaphragm, celiac ganglion

189
Q

Where does the lesser splanchnic nerve pass through and where does it end?

A

Crura of the diaphragm, aorticorenal ganglion

190
Q

Where does the least splanchnic nerve pass through and where does it end?

A

Enters abdomen with sympathetic trunk to end in the renal plexus

191
Q

What type of fibers make up the thoracic splanchnic nerves and celiac plexus?

A

Preganglionic visceral efferent fibers

192
Q

What innervates the palatoglossus muscle?

A

The pharyngeal plexus

193
Q

What innervates the ciliary ganglion?

A

Oculomotor nerve

194
Q

What innervates the Pterygopalatine ganglion?

A

Facial nerve via greater petrosal nerve and nerve of the pterygoid canal

195
Q

What innervates the submandibular ganglion?

A

Facial nerve, via chorda tympani and lingual nerve

196
Q

What innervates the otic ganglion?

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve via tympanic branch and lesser petrosal nerve

197
Q

What nerve innervates the levator palpebrae superioris?

A

Oculomotor

198
Q

What nerve supplies parasympathetic innervation of the ciliary muscles of lens and sphincter muscles of pupil?

A

Oculomotor

199
Q

What nerve innervates the superior oblique muscles of the eye?

A

Trochlear

200
Q

What does the abducens nerve innervate?

A

The lateral rectus muscle of the eye

201
Q

What does the trochlear nerve innervate?

A

Superior oblique muscle of the eye

202
Q

What nerve is primarily responsible for the gag reflex?

A

CN IX

203
Q

What nerve does the auriculotemporal nerve derive from?

A

CN V-3

204
Q

What levels does the superior cervical ganglion cover?

A

C1-C3

205
Q

Which rami connect the the sympathetic trunk to every spinal nerve?

A

Gray rami

206
Q

Which rami are only found between levels T1 and L2?

A

White rami

207
Q

What is the only cranial nerve to emerge dorsally to the aspect of the brainstem?

A

Trochlear nerve

208
Q

What provides sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

A

Lingual nerve (V-3 branch)

209
Q

What provides taste for the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

A

Chorda tympani nerve

210
Q

What provides sensory innervation to the anterior and lateral parts of the neck?

A

Transverse cervical nerve

211
Q

What spinal nerves make up the phrenic nerve?

A

C3-C5

212
Q

What spinal nerves make up the cervical plexus?

A

C1-C4

213
Q

What spinal nerves make up the brachial plexus?

A

C5-C8 and T1

214
Q

What spinal nerves make up the lumbar plexus?

A

L1-L4

215
Q

What nerves make up the sacral plexus?

A

L4-L5 and S1-S4

216
Q

What are the three cords of the brachial plexus

A

Posterior, lateral, and medial

217
Q

What branches of the brachial plexus make up the median nerve?

A

The medial and lateral cords

218
Q

What are the two main branches of the lumbar plexus?

A

Femoral and Obturator nerves

219
Q

What is the main branch of the sacral plexus?

A

The sciatic nerve

220
Q

Which recurrent laryngeal nerve separates from the vagus nerve at the level of the aortic arch and loops posteriorly around the aortic arch and ascends through the superior mediastinum to enter a groove between the esophagus and trachea?

A

Left recurrrent laryngeal nerve

221
Q

Where does the right recurrent laryngeal nerve split?

A

Right subclavian artery

222
Q

What do the recurrent laryngeal nerves innervate?

A

All the muscles of the larynx, except the cricothyroid

223
Q

What innervates the cricothyroid?

A

The external laryngeal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve

224
Q

What canal does the hypoglossal nerve pass through to leave the skull?

A

The hypoglossal canal

225
Q

Where does the spinal accessory nerve exit the skull?

A

The jugular foramen

226
Q

What muscle is a landmark for finding the glossopharyngeal nerve?

A

Stylopharyngeus muscle

227
Q

What nerve innervates the carotid sinus and carotid body?

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve

228
Q

What two muscles are innervated by the mylohyoid nerve?

A

Mylohyoid and anterior belly of the digastric muscle

229
Q

What gives sensory innervation to a small area of skin on the external ear and taste buds on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

A

The geniculate ganglion

230
Q

How is taste conveyed from the palate?

A

Through the palatine nerves to the greater petrosal nerve

231
Q

What types of nerves are found in the dental pulp?

A

Sympathetic and afferent

232
Q

Where in the digestive tract does the vagus nerve stop innervation?

A

Left colic flexure

233
Q

What supplies parasympathetic innervation below the left colic flexure?

A

The pelvic splanchnic nerves

234
Q

What is the corticospinal tract?

A

The largest descending tract of the spinal cord

235
Q

What are the fasciculi gracilis and cuneatus?

A

The largest ascending tracts of the spinal cord

236
Q

With exception of microglia, where do all neuroglia derive from?

A

Ectoderm

237
Q

What type of cell is in charge of lining the ventricles of the brain and propelling the cerebrospinal fluid with ciliary motion?

A

Ependymal cells

238
Q

What forms myelin sheaths in the CNS?

A

Oligodendrocytes

239
Q

What is the role of microglial cells?

A

Immune cells of the CNS - like macrophages

240
Q

What are afferent nerves generally for?

A

Sensation

241
Q

What are efferent nerves generally for?

A

Motor

242
Q

What separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum?

A

Tentorium cerebelli

243
Q

Where is the substantia nigra located in the brain?

A

In the midbrain

244
Q

What is the name of protective dura mater that guards the sella turcica?

A

Diaphragma sellae

245
Q

What is the purpose of the choroid plexus?

A

Forms CSF

246
Q

What opening allows the two lateral ventricles and the third ventricle to communicate?

A

Foramina of Monro

247
Q

What openings are present in the fourth ventricle?

A

The foramen of Luschka and the foramen of Magendie

248
Q

What ventricles are enlarged should obstruction occur of the cerebral aqueduct?

A

Two lateral and third ventricles

249
Q

What space is entered into in a spinal tap?

A

Subarachnoid space

250
Q

What is the eventual end of the spinal cord meninges referred to as?

A

Filum terminale

251
Q

What do cell bodies in the posterior horn primarily relay?

A

Sensations

252
Q

What do cell bodies in the anterior horn primarily relay?

A

Voluntary motion and reflex

253
Q

Growth of which type of tissue causes the embryo to fold during the fourth week?

A

Neural

254
Q

What type of nerve fibers are associated with proprioception?

A

A-alpha

255
Q

What type of nerve fibers are associated with touch?

A

A-beta

256
Q

What type of nerve fibers are associated with pain and temperature?

A

A-delta

257
Q

Where does the overlap of actin and myosin filaments occur?

A

A band

258
Q

Where does actin occur only in the sarcomere?

A

I band

259
Q

What is present in the M band?

A

Only myosin

260
Q

What is present in the Z band?

A

Only actin

261
Q

What is the H zone?

A

The area where only myosin is present

262
Q

What two muscles form a sling around the angle of the mandible?

A

The masseter and the medial pterygoid

263
Q

What effect does damage to the pharyngeal plexus of nerves have on the uvula?

A

It deviates contralaterally

264
Q

What muscle is attached to the alveolar processes of the maxilla and mandible as well as the pterygomaxillary ligament and pterygomandibular raphe?

A

Buccinator

265
Q

What innervates the temporalis muscle?

A

V-3

266
Q

What innervates the muscles of the soft palate (with one exception)?

A

CN IX and X

267
Q

What innervates the tensor veli palati muscle?

A

V-3

268
Q

What three structures pass through the aortic opening?

A
  1. Aorta, 2. Thoracic duct and 3. Azygos vein
269
Q

What three structures pass through the esophageal opening?

A
  1. Esophagus, 2. Right vagus nerve and 3. left vagus nerve
270
Q

What two structures pass through the caval opening?

A
  1. Inferior vena cava and 2. Right phrenic nerve
271
Q

What innervates the other respiratory muscles besides the diaphragm?

A

The intercostal nerve

272
Q

What is the function of the external intercostal muscles?

A

Raise ribs during inspiration

273
Q

What is the function of the internal intercostal muscles?

A

Depress ribs during exhalation

274
Q

What is the function of the subcostal muscles?

A

Raise the ribs during inspiration

275
Q

What is the function of the transverse thoracic muscles?

A

Pull ribs downward during expiration

276
Q

What protein covers actin binding sites during rest?

A

Tropomyosin

277
Q

What protein is a small molecule attached to each tropomyosin?

A

Troponin

278
Q

When one of the lateral pterygoid muscles is not functioning, what effect will this have on protrusion?

A

Ipsilateral deviation

279
Q

What connective tissue layer envelopes the entire skeletal muscle layer?

A

The epimysium

280
Q

What type of smooth muscle has gap-junctions?

A

Single-unit

281
Q

What two arches are formed by the anterior and posterior pillars of the fauces?

A
  1. Palatoglossus arch and 2. Palatopharyngeal arch

National Boards Part 1 (5 decks)

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