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National Boards Part 1 > Day One > Flashcards

Day One Flashcards

1
Q

What factor is missing in classic hemophilia A?

A

VIII

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2
Q

What factor is missing in hemophilia B (Christmas Disease)?

A

IX

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3
Q

What factor is missing in hemophilia C (Rosenthal’s syndrome)?

A

XI

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4
Q

What form of hemophilia is not sex-linked?

A

C

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5
Q

What feature does a true hemophiliac display?

A

Prolonged partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

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6
Q

What disease is an autosomal dominant disease that causes a bleeding disorder?

A

Von Willebrand’s disease

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7
Q

What is the cardinal sign of a pheochromocytoma?

A

Persistent or episodic hypertension

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8
Q

What is the most common malignant tumor of childhood?

A

Neuroblastoma

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9
Q

What is the key sign of EBV infection?

A

Lymphocytosis

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10
Q

What test is used to find EBV?

A

Heterophile test

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11
Q

What virus is associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma and hairy leukoplakia?

A

EBV

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12
Q

What valve is the most commonly damaged heart valve?

A

Mitral valve

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13
Q

What lesion is associated with rheumatic fever?

A

Aschoff body

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14
Q

What is primary amyloidosis associated with?

A

Plasma cells

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15
Q

What three country’s people are associated with hereditary amyloidosis?

A

Portugal, Sweden and Japan

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16
Q

What is the first manifestation of amyloidosis?

A

Renal disease

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17
Q

What is the most common cause of preventable blindness in underdeveloped areas of the world?

A

Trachoma

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18
Q

What disease causes conjunctivitis and often affects newborns, adults in sexual contact, and adults in swimming pools?

A

Inclusion conjunctivitis

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19
Q

What bacteria causes pinkeye?

A

Hemophilus aegyptius

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20
Q

What is the medical term for dry eyes?

A

Keratoconjuctivitis Sicca

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21
Q

What two enzymes are elevated in a case of acute pancreantitis?

A

Lipase and amylase

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22
Q

What lesion is associated with Erythema multiforme?

A

Iris/target lesion

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23
Q

What form of Erythema Multiforme is associated with large blisters and sloughing of the skin?

A

Toxic Epidermal necrolysis

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24
Q

What is it called if tissues are grafted from an identical twin?

A

Isograft

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25
Q

What is the most uncommon site of infarcts?

A

Liver

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26
Q

What is delayed closure of two granulating surfaces referred to as?

A

Healing by second intention

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27
Q

What is the slow filling of a wound cavity or ulcer by granulations with subsequent cicatrization (scar formation)?

A

Healing by third intention

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28
Q

What system is composed of monocytes and macrophages?

A

Reticuloendothelial system

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29
Q

What disease is associated with a lack of glucocerebrosidase?

A

Gaucher’s disease

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30
Q

What disease is associated with a lack of sphingomyelinase?

A

Niemann-Pick disease

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31
Q

What disease is associated with a lack of hexosaminidase A?

A

Tay-Sachs disease

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32
Q

What does TORCH stand for?

A

Toxoplasmosis, Other agents, Rubella, Cytomegalovirus and Herpes simplex

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33
Q

What are the signs of cardiac tamponade (Beck’s triad)?

A
  1. Elevated central venous pressure with neck vein distension, 2. Muffled heart sounds and 3. Pulsus paradoxus
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34
Q

What causes cor pulmonale?

A

Right sided congestive heart failure

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35
Q

What are the four elevated serum enzyme levels after a myocardial infarction?

A
  1. Serum Glutamate Pyruvate Transaminase (SGPT), 2. Serum Glutamic Oxaloacetic Transaminase (SGOT), 3. Seurm Lactic Dehydrogenase (LDH) and 4. Creatine Kinase (CK)
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36
Q

What bacteria causes the most cases of infectious endocarditis?

A

S. Viridans

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37
Q

What valve is most likely to be infected in a case of infectious endocarditis?

A

Mitral valve

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38
Q

What is the most common cause of centrolobular emphysema?

A

Cigarette smoke

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39
Q

What is the most common cause of panlobular emphysema?

A

Familial antiproteinase deficiency

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40
Q

What term describes an irreversible, abnormal dilation of the bronchi caused by destruction of supporting structures by a chronic necrotizing infection?

A

Bronchiectasis

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41
Q

What term describes a shrunken and airless state of the lung, or a portion of it?

A

Atelectasis

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42
Q

What is the most common fatal genetic disease in white children?

A

Cystic Fibrosis

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43
Q

What disease is associated with hemangiomas of the retina and cerebellum, and has cysts in the liver, kidneys, adrenal glands and pancreas?

A

Von Hippel-Lindau disease

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44
Q

What term describes lung disease caused by prolonged inhalation of foreign material and cause fibrosis?

A

Pneumoconioses

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45
Q

What is the most common and most serious pneumoconiosis?

A

Silicosis

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46
Q

What is the medical term for coal miner’s disease?

A

Anthracosis

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47
Q

What bacteria typically causes pneumonia in healthy individuals?

A

Strep Pneumoniae

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48
Q

What is the most common cause of pneumonia in children?

A

Respiratory viruses

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49
Q

What are ascites?

A

Excess fluid in the space between membranes lining the abdomen and the abdominal organs

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50
Q

What are the most common source of massive hematemesis in alcoholics?

A

Esophageal varices

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51
Q

What causes the appearance of esophageal varices that erode and bleed profusely?

A

Portal hypertension

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52
Q

What is the most important sign of portal hypertension?

A

Splenomegaly

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53
Q

What disease is associated with esophageal webs?

A

Iron deficiency anemia

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54
Q

What word describes permanent damage to the brain in newborn infants from excessive bilirubin?

A

Kernicterus

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55
Q

What Hepatitis virus is NOT an RNA virus?

A

Hep B

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56
Q

Which Hep virus is associated with another exclusively?

A

Hep D (associated exclusively with Hep B)

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57
Q

What disease is caused by a localized death of tissue followed by a full regeneration of healthy bone tissue?

A

Osteochondroses

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58
Q

What disease is associated with old men not being able to wear their hats anymore?

A

Paget’s disease

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59
Q

What disease is associated with hyperparathyroidism and is characterized by a decreased serum phosphorus level and an increase in serum calcium and alkaline phosphatse?

A

Von Recklinghausen’s disease

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60
Q

What disease tends to raise serum acid phosphatase levels?

A

Prostate cancer

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61
Q

What is generalized edema also known as?

A

Anasarca

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62
Q

What type of heart failure results in peripheral edema?

A

Right-sided heart failure

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63
Q

What type of heart failure results in pulmonary edema?

A

Left-sided heart failure

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64
Q

What does pitting edema typically represent?

A

An acute disease process

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65
Q

What is the clotting of blood within an artery or vein called?

A

A thrombosis

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66
Q

What is an alteration in epithelial lining that results in platelet aggregation called?

A

A thrombus

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67
Q

What is the name given to a blood clot that moves through the bloodstream?

A

Embolus

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68
Q

What is the term given to inflammation of a vein?

A

Phlebitis

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69
Q

What is the most common cause of hypovolemic shock?

A

Blood loss

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70
Q

What is the main factor in the case of all shock?

A

Reduced cardiac output

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71
Q

Metabolic acidosis occurs during which stage of shock?

A

Progressive stage

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72
Q

What is the other name for osteopetrosis?

A

Albers-Schonberg disease

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73
Q

What disease is known to cause massive splenomegaly?

A

Myelofibrosis

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74
Q

What disease is the opposite of anemia and results in too many RBCs?

A

Polycythemia Vera

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75
Q

What disease is a chronic, idiopathic disease characterized by bone marrow fibrosis and massive splenomegaly?

A

Myelofibrosis

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76
Q

What are the three major organs damaged by chronic hypertension?

A

Kidneys, heart and brain

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77
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary hypertension?

A

Kidney disease

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78
Q

What two arteries are most affected by arteriosclerosis?

A

Aorta and Coronary artery

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79
Q

What is a small molecule that is not antigenic, but that can interact with antibodies called?

A

Hapten

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80
Q

What is the name of the antibody-binding site on an antigen?

A

Epitope

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81
Q

What is the immunoglobulin that is present in the highest concentration in the blood in a healthy individual?

A

IgG

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82
Q

What is the only immunoglobulin that crosses the placenta?

A

IgG

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83
Q

What is the second most abundant immunoglobulin, occurs in body secretions and is synthesized by plasma cells in the GI, respiratory and urinary tracts?

A

IgA

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84
Q

What immunoglobulin is rare, is present on the membranes of many circulating B-cells and has an unknown function?

A

IgD

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85
Q

What is the largest immunoglobulin, is the first antibody produced to infection and is a powerful activator of the complement system?

A

IgM

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86
Q

What immunoglobulin is responsible for Type I hypersensitivity reactions, tightly binds to receptors on mast cells and basophils and protects external mucosa?

A

IgE

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87
Q

What type of immunity are B cells responsible for?

A

Humoral

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88
Q

What is the most potent anaphylatoxin?

A

C5a (C5a>C3a>C4a)

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89
Q

What is the most frequently used laboratory test for the detection of antigens?

A

Immunofluorescence

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90
Q

What type of hypersensitivity deals with complement activation?

A

Type III hypersensitivity

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91
Q

Activation of which C protein is considered the alternative pathway?

A

C3

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92
Q

Where are Complement proteins synthesized?

A

Mainly in the liver

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93
Q

What Complement proteins make the MAC?

A

C5b, C6, C7, C8 and C9

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94
Q

What activates killer cells?

A

IL-2

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95
Q

What does penicillin do to kill bacteria?

A

Inhibits the terminal step in peptidoglycan synthesis

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96
Q

What organelle contains catalase?

A

Microbodies

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97
Q

What two enzymes are likely to be missing in anaerobic bacteria?

A
  1. Superoxide demutase and 2. catalase
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98
Q

What is the function of superoxide demutase?

A

Catalyzes the destruction of O2 free radicals

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99
Q

What type of bacteria live on teeth supragingivally?

A

Gram-positive bacteria

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100
Q

What is usually the first colonizer of plaque?

A

S. sanguis

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101
Q

What is a common phenolic compound used as an antimicrobial and antigingivitis agent?

A

Listerine

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102
Q

What type of compound seems to be best at reducing/eliminating bad breath?

A

Quaternary ammonium compounds

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103
Q

What bacteria is implicated in causing ANUG?

A

Prevotella intermedia

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104
Q

What three messengers are formed via the cyclooxygenase pathway?

A
  1. Prostaglandins, 2. Prostacyclin and 3. Thromboxanes
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105
Q

What is the major compound from which prostaglandins and their derivatives are made from?

A

Arachidonic acid

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106
Q

What form of arthritis is found in middle-aged women most frequently?

A

Osteoarthritis

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107
Q

What forms in osteoarthritis that is unique?

A

Bony spur formation

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108
Q

What disease is a disease of childhood that causes lesions in the bones or lungs and is most common in the skull, mandible and spine?

A

Eosinophilic granuloma

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109
Q

What disease affects infants age 2 or under, is fatal, causes skin rashes, and tumefactions over bones?

A

Letterer-Siwe syndrome

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110
Q

What disease causes exophthalmos, diabetes insipidus, and bone destruction?

A

Hand-Schuller-Christian disease

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111
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction do immune complex diseases fall under?

A

Type III hypersensitivity

112
Q

What is the prototype immune complex disease?

A

Serum sickness

113
Q

What disease is a serious blood vessel disease where small and medium sized arteries become swollen and damaged when attacked by immune cells?

A

Polyarteritis nodosa

114
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is caused by cytotoxic reactions caused by antibodies reacting antigens of the host’s own cells?

A

Type II

115
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is caused by immune complexes activating complement and PMNs and produces acute inflammation?

A

Type III

116
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is caused by cellular, cell-mediated, delayed, or tuberculin-type reactions caused by sensitized T-lymphocytes?

A

Type IV

117
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Hypocalcemia of chronic renal disease

118
Q

What is the most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Adenoma

119
Q

What are the three main manifestations of hyperparathyroidism?

A
  1. Osteoporosis, Central giant cell granulomas, and metastatic calcifications
120
Q

Which disease is associated with increased melanin production?

A

Addison’s disease

121
Q

What disease is known as bronzed disease and is caused by accumulation of hemosiderin throughout all the body?

A

Hemochromatosis

122
Q

What disease has chronic, relapsing inflammation that produces recurring mouth sores, skin blisters, genital sores and swollen joints?

A

Behcet’s syndrome

123
Q

What disease is an inflammation of joints and tendons and is accompanied by inflammation of the eye’s conjunctiva and mucous membranes?

A

Reiter’s syndrome

124
Q

What disease is a chronic inflammation of large arteries?

A

Temporal arteries

125
Q

What disease is a connective tissue disorder that is characterized by the inflammation of the spine and large joints, resulting in stiffness and pain?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

126
Q

What disease is associated with the deficiency of the enzyme hexosaminidase and leads to mental retardation, blindness, convulsions and death by age four?

A

Tay-Sachs disease

127
Q

What disease is very rare and results from a deficiency of alpha-galactosidase and is characterized by glycolipid accumulation in body tissues?

A

Fabry’s disease

128
Q

What disease results from a deficiency of glucocerebrosidase and leads to an accumulation of glucosylceramide in storge compartments of the cells?

A

Gaucher’s disease

129
Q

What term describes coughing up blood?

A

Hemoptysis

130
Q

What is the result of a lack of vitamin E?

A

Neurological dysfunction

131
Q

What is vitamin B3 deficiency known as?

A

Pellagra

132
Q

What is vitamin B1 deficiency known as?

A

Beriberi

133
Q

What term is given to a particularly severe episode of asthma?

A

Status asthmaticus

134
Q

What gland is likely dysfunctional should a patient be diagnosed with acromegaly?

A

Anterior pituitary gland (growth hormone)

135
Q

What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in adults?

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

136
Q

What is extreme hypothyroidism called in adults?

A

Myxedema

137
Q

What is severe hypothyroidism called in children?

A

Cretinism

138
Q

What type of disease is neurofibromatosis?

A

Autosomal dominant disorder

139
Q

What three signs are associated with neurofibromatosis-1?

A
  1. Multiple birthmarks, 2. Multiple neurofibromas and 3. Lisch nodules in the eyes
140
Q

What sign is associated with neurofibromatosis-2?

A

Hearing loss

141
Q

What is the most common form of hyperthyroidism?

A

Graves disease

142
Q

What disease is a cause of hyperthyroidism and is found in the elderly?

A

Plummer’s disease

143
Q

What is damaged to cause diabetes insipidus?

A

Hypothalamus

144
Q

What type of calcification is seen in hyalinized scars, degenerated foci in leiomyomas, and caseous nodules and is the process by which organic tissue becomes hardened by physiologic deposit of calcium salts?

A

Dystrophic calcification

145
Q

What calcification describes calcification occurring in nonosseous, viable tissues and occurs particularly in hyperparathyroidism and hypervitaminosis D?

A

Metastatic Calcification

146
Q

What calcification occurs in excretory or secretory passages as calculi?

A

Pathologic Calcification

147
Q

What calcification creates a thin layer of calcification around lymph nodes?

A

Eggshell calcifications

148
Q

What is the presence of calcification in or under the skin called?

A

Calcinosis

149
Q

What is the most common cause of the common cold?

A

Rhinovirus

150
Q

What type of virus causes mumps?

A

An RNA paramyxovirus

151
Q

What type of virus causes influenza?

A

Orthomyxoviruses

152
Q

What virus causes Reye’s syndrome in children?

A

Influenza B

153
Q

What virus causes measles?

A

A rubeola RNA paramyxovirus

154
Q

What oral manifestation is indicative of measles?

A

Koplik’s spots

155
Q

What type of virus causes German measles?

A

Rubella RNA virus

156
Q

What two types of virus are most likely to cause pharyngitis?

A
  1. Adenoviruses and 2. Coxsackieviruses
157
Q

What feature is unique regarding Influenza A’s genome?

A

It is segmented

158
Q

What family do coxsackieviruses belong to?

A

Picornavirus

159
Q

What do group A coxsackieviruses cause (2)?

A

Hand-foot-and-mouth and herpangina

160
Q

What do group B coxsackieviruses cause (3)?

A

Pleurodynia, myocarditis and pericarditis

161
Q

What areas do group A coxsackieviruses have a predilection for (2)?

A

Skin and mucous membranes

162
Q

What areas do group B coxsackieviruses have a predilection for (4)?

A

Heart, pleura, pancreas and liver

163
Q

What virus has a similar mode of replication to that of the coxsackievirus?

A

Poliovirus

164
Q

What is the best-known retrovirus?

A

HIV

165
Q

Which DNA virus is unusual in that it does not perform transcription inside the nucleus?

A

Poxviruses

166
Q

What is the cytopathic effect?

A

The fact that viruses affect certain cell types more than others

167
Q

What group of retrovirus causes cancers?

A

Oncovirus

168
Q

What group of retrovirus do HIV and AIDS fit under?

A

Lentivirus

169
Q

What is negative polarity?

A

When RNA has the opposite sequence of mRNA

170
Q

What term is given to bacterial toxins that are weakened to not have any detrimental affect on the host but still elicit an immune response are called?

A

Toxoids

171
Q

What are the three roles of adjuvants?

A
  1. Enhance antibody response, 2. Enhance uptake of the antigen and 3. slow down absorption and increase effectiveness of vaccines
172
Q

What is responsible for the primary symptoms of shock?

A

Histamine

173
Q

Contact dermatitis is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type IV

174
Q

Hay fever, asthma and anaphylaxis are part of what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type I

175
Q

Autoimmune hemolytic anemias, antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity and Goodpasture disease are what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type II

176
Q

Lupus, rheumatoid arthritis and most cases of glomerulonephritis are what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type III

177
Q

Contact hypersensitivity, Tuberculin hypersensitivity and granulomatous hypersensitivity are what type of hypersensitivity?

A

Type IV

178
Q

What is damaged in Addison’s disease?

A

Outer layer of the adrenal glands

179
Q

What disease is a catastrophic adrenal insufficiency and vascular collapse due to hemorrhagic necrosis of the adrenal cortex?

A

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

180
Q

What causes S. aureus to be potent during food poisoning?

A

Protein A

181
Q

Where does amebiasis affect in the body?

A

Large intestines

182
Q

Where does giardiasis affect in the body?

A

Small intestines

183
Q

Where does Trichomoniasis affect in the body?

A

Urethra

184
Q

What protozoan infects the colon?

A

Balantidium coli

185
Q

How do humans acquire Toxoplasmosis gondii?

A

Eating cysts in undercooked meat

186
Q

What is the name of a fungal asexual spore?

A

Conidium

187
Q

What is the most effective anti-mycotic agent?

A

Griseofulvin

188
Q

What is the name of a fungal infection that occurs in poorly controlled diabetes?

A

Mucormycosis

189
Q

What fungal infection is particularly dangerous in immuno-compromised patients?

A

Cryptococcus

190
Q

What type of fungus produces aflatoxins?

A

Aspergillus

191
Q

What can aflatoxins cause in humans?

A

Hepatic carcinoma

192
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Coccidioidomycosis?

A

Amphotericin B

193
Q

What enzyme is produced in the kidneys and activates angiotensin?

A

Renin

194
Q

What releases aldosterone, releases vasopressin, stimulates thrist centers in the brain and facilitates norepinephrine release?

A

Angiotensin II

195
Q

What are respiratory enzymes that undergo alternative reduction and oxidation?

A

Cytochromes

196
Q

What molecule has similar functions to histamine?

A

Seratonin

197
Q

What molecule is a potent vasodilator, mediates pain, and is produced by kallikrein?

A

Bradykinin

198
Q

Which AA is used to synthesize serotonin?

A

Tryptophan

199
Q

Where is the largest amount of serotonin concentrated?

A

Intestinal mucosa

200
Q

What are cytokines?

A

Soluble mediators that play a role in immunity

201
Q

What two antibiotic families affect the cell wall?

A
  1. Penicillin and 2. Cephalosporin
202
Q

What two antibiotic families affect the synthesis of bacterial DNA?

A
  1. Quinolone and 2. Metronidazole
203
Q

What four antibiotic families affect the synthesis of bacterial proteins?

A
  1. Tetracycline, 2. Erythromycin, 3. Clindamycin and 4. Chloramphenicol
204
Q

What family of antibiotics targets bacterial metabolic pathways?

A

Sulfonamides

205
Q

How do Amphotericin B and Nystatin work to kill fungi?

A

Impair Ergosterol Synthesis

206
Q

What danger accompanies taking Amphotericin B?

A

Kidney toxicity

207
Q

How does Clindamycin work?

A

It blocks 50S ribosomal subunits

208
Q

What is unique about Cefaclor?

A

It is broad spectrum

209
Q

What penicillin is used if a bacteria has penicillase production?

A

Methicillin

210
Q

What two antibiotics are typically prescribed for treatment of rickettsia?

A
  1. Tetracycline and 2. Chloramphenicol
211
Q

What is the prophylactic prescription of Amoxicillin for adults?

A

2.0 grams of Amoxicillin one hour before the procedure

212
Q

What is the prophylactic prescription of Amoxicillin for children?

A

50 mg/kg orally 1 hour prior to appointment

213
Q

What is the prophylactic prescription of Clindamycin for adults?

A

600 mg orally 1 hour before appointment

214
Q

What is the prophylactic prescription of Clindamycin for children?

A

20 mg/kg

215
Q

What is the prophylactic prescription of Cephalexin for adults?

A

2.0 g

216
Q

What is the prophylactic prescription of Cephalexin for children?

A

50 mg/kg

217
Q

What is the prophylactic prescription of Azithromycin for adults?

A

500 mg

218
Q

What is the prophylactic prescription of Azithromycin for children?

A

15 mg/kg

219
Q

A medium-sized enveloped virus with an icosahedral nucleocapsid containing linear, double-stranded DNA?

A

Herpes virus

220
Q

What virus is the Tzanck smear used for identification?

A

HSV 1

221
Q

What suppresses the synthesis of varicella-zoster and HSV and diminishes new lesion formation?

A

Adenosine arabinoside

222
Q

What are the largest and most complex animal viruses?

A

Poxviruses

223
Q

What is the scientific name of small pox?

A

Variola

224
Q

What virus is used to vaccinate against small pox?

A

Vaccinia

225
Q

What enzyme do poxviruses carry that many viruses use in the host cell?

A

DNA dependent RNA polymerase

226
Q

Acute respiratory infections, acut contagious conjunctivitis, and pharyngoconjunctival fever characterized by fever, pharyngitis, and conjunctivitis are all symptoms of what virus family?

A

Adenovirus

227
Q

Describe the shape and genome of adenoviruses.

A

Naked, icosahedral nucleocapsid with double-stranded linear DNA

228
Q

What family of viruses does polio belong to?

A

Enteroviruses

229
Q

Describe the shape and genome of reoviruses.

A

Unique double-shelled capsid that contains a segmented doubled stranded RNA genome

230
Q

What three groups of viruses fit in reoviruses?

A
  1. Reoviruses, 2. Rotaviruses, and 3. Arboviruses (Colorado tick fever virus)
231
Q

What two illnesses are created by reoviruses?

A
  1. Minor respiratory tract and 2. Gastroenteritis
232
Q

What is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in children age 2 and under?

A

Rotaviruses

233
Q

What term describes a stable, nondisruptive relationship between a bacteriophage and a bacteria?

A

Temperate phage

234
Q

What term describes a bacterium with a temperate phage?

A

A lysogenic bacterium

235
Q

What phage infects E. coli?

A

T4

236
Q

What growth curve describes lytic reproduction?

A

One-step growth curve

237
Q

What is the name of the time period where a bacteriophage invades the bacterium but where there are no complete infective phage particles?

A

Eclipse period

238
Q

What is the longer time period called between the phage’s injection of genome into the bacterium and ends with the first assembled virus emerging extracellularly?

A

Latent period

239
Q

What are the six steps of viral reproduction?

A
  1. Attachment, 2. Penetration, 3. Synthesis, 4. Assembly, 5. Maturation and 6. Release
240
Q

Mumps, measles, RSV and parainfluenza viruses all fit into which viral family?

A

Paramyxoviruses

241
Q

Describe the shape and genome of paramyxoviruses and orthomyxoviruses:

A

Enveloped, single-stranded, negative-stranded RNA viruses

242
Q

What is the key difference between paramyxoviruses and orthomyxoviruses?

A

Orthomyxoviruses have segmented genomes

243
Q

What effect do paramyxoviruses have on host cells?

A

Syncytia formation (formation of multinucleated giant cells)

244
Q

Where does HSV 2 lay dormant?

A

Lumbar/sacral sensory ganglion

245
Q

Where does EBV take up latency?

A

B lymphocytes

246
Q

What type of vaccine is the streptococcus pneumonia vaccine?

A

Capsular polysaccharide vaccine

247
Q

Meningitis and pneumonia are both treated with which type of vaccine?

A

Capsular polysaccharide vaccine

248
Q

Diphtheria and tetanus are both treated with which type of vaccine?

A

Toxoid vaccine

249
Q

Whopping cough, typhoid fever and cholera are treated with which type of vaccine?

A

Killed bacteria vaccines

250
Q

TB, tularemia and Q fever are all treated with which type of vaccine?

A

Live attenuated bacterial vaccines

251
Q

Smallpox, yellow fever, measles, mumps, rubella, polio and chickenpox are all treated by what type of vaccine?

A

Attenuated live virus

252
Q

Polio (2), influenza, rabies and hep A are all treated by what type of vaccine?

A

Inactivated virus

253
Q

What type of vaccine treats Hep B?

A

Purified HBsAg: Recombinant HBsAg

254
Q

RSV, Flu A and B, parainfluenza, measles, mumps, rubella, hep C, rabies and HIV are all what type of virus?

A

RNA enveloped viruses

255
Q

Enteroviruses, Rhinoviruses, Reoviruses, Hep A and Picornaviridae are what type of virus?

A

RNA non-enveloped viruses

256
Q

HSV, Poxviruses and Hep B are what type of viruses?

A

DNA enveloped

257
Q

Adenoviruses, Papillomaviruses and parvoviruses are what type of viruses?

A

DNA non-enveloped

258
Q

Which T-cell product stimulates the growth of pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells is?

A

IL-3

259
Q

What releases IL-1 and what does it cause?

A

Macrophages, Stimulation of T cells and antigen-presenting cells. Promotes hematopoiesis.

260
Q

What releases IL-2 and what does it cause?

A

Activated T cells, Proliferation of activated T cells

261
Q

What releases IL-3 and what does it cause?

A

T lymphocytes, Growth of blood cell precursors

262
Q

What releases IL-4 and what does it cause?

A

T cells and mast cells, B cell proliferation and IgE production

263
Q

What releases IL-5 and what does it cause?

A

T cells and mast cells, Eosinophil growth

264
Q

What releases IL-6 and what does it cause?

A

Activated T cells, Synergistic effects with IL-1 of TNF-alpha

265
Q

What releases IL-7 and what does it cause?

A

Thymus and bone marrow stromal cells, Development of T cell and B cell precursors

266
Q

What releases IL-8 and what does it cause?

A

Macrophages, Chemoattracts neutrophils

267
Q

What releases IL-9 and what does it cause?

A

Activated T cells, Promotes growth of T cells and mast cells

268
Q

What releases IL-10 and what does it cause?

A

Activated T cells, B cells and monocytes, Inhibits inflammatory and immune responses

269
Q

What is the name of the rheumatoid arthritis that occurs in young people?

A

Still’s disease

270
Q

What arthritis are osteophytes associated with?

A

Osteoarthritis

271
Q

What phase of bacterial growth is best to use bactericidal products?

A

Log phase

272
Q

What is the most common form of adverse epithelial reactions found in health care workers?

A

Irritation dermatitis

273
Q

According to Spaulding’s Classification System for sterilization of instruments how should a critical instrument be sterilized?

A

Sterilization and holding in sterilized state

274
Q

According to Spaulding’s Classification System for sterilization of instruments how should a semi-critical instrument be sterilized?

A

High level disinfection

275
Q

According to Spaulding’s Classification System for sterilization of instruments how should a non-critical instrument be sterilized?

A

Immediate/low level disinfection

276
Q

What is atopy?

A

The genetic tendency to develop classic allergic diseases

277
Q

What is the minimum required temperature to kill spore-forming bacteria?

A

121 C (250 F)

National Boards Part 1 (5 decks)

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