Day Four Flashcards

1
Q

What duct is the main pancreatic duct?

A

Duct of Wirsung

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2
Q

What is the accessory pancreatic duct?

A

Santorini’s duct

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3
Q

What is the major sublingual duct?

A

Bartholin’s duct

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4
Q

What is the embryonic duct that develops into the deferent duct in males?

A

Wolffian’s duct

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5
Q

In which ligament does the pancreas lie?

A

Lienorenal ligament

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6
Q

What do the delta cells of the pancreas do?

A

Secrete somatostatin

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7
Q

What type of pancreatic cell releases secretory granules containing digestive enzymes?

A

Acinar cells

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8
Q

What type of ions are secreted by the pancreas to combat the acidity of the stomach?

A

Sodium bicarbonate

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9
Q

Which anterior pituitary hormone controls the production and secretion of hormones called glucocorticoids by the cortex of the adrenal gland?

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

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10
Q

What hormone initiates ovarian follicle development and secretion of estrogens in the ovaries in females and stimulates sperm production in males?

A

Follicle-Stimulating hormone (FSH)

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11
Q

What hormone stimulates secretion of estrogen by ovarian cells in women that results in the formation of the corpus luteum and secretion of progesterone and stimulates interstitial cells of the testes to secrete testosterone in males?

A

Lutenizing hormone (LH)

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12
Q

What type of salivary gland is purely mucous secreting?

A

Buccal glands

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13
Q

What type of salivary gland is purely serous?

A

Parotid

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14
Q

What type of cells only release cell products from membrane bound secretory granules?

A

Merocrine

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15
Q

What type of cell releases product plus a small portion of cytoplasm?

A

Apocrine

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16
Q

What cell type releases an entire cell with the product?

A

Holocrine

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17
Q

Where are “simple” glands found?

A

Sweat glands

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18
Q

Where are “complex” glands found?

A

Pancreas

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19
Q

What shape are sweat glands?

A

Tubular

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20
Q

What shape are sebaceous and mammary glands?

A

Acinar

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21
Q

What shape are the major salivary glands?

A

Tubuloacinar

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22
Q

What type of nerve cell is present in the posterior pituitary gland?

A

Unmyelinated

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23
Q

What are the two neurotransmitters released from the posterior pituitary gland?

A

Oxytocin and Vasopressin (ADH)

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24
Q

What structure do nerves that innervate the pituitary gland pass?

A

Infundibulum

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25
Q

Pars distalis, pars tuberalis, and pars intermedia are all parts of what structure?

A

Adenohypophysis (Ant. pituitary), these derive from oral ectoderm

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26
Q

Pars nervosa and the infundibulum are parts of what structure?

A

Neurohypophysis (Post. pituitary), these derive from neuroectoderm in the floor of the diencephalons

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27
Q

What type of cell releases thyroglobulin?

A

Follicle cells of the thyroid

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28
Q

What ell releases calcitonin?

A

Parafollicular (AKA C cells)

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29
Q

What is the name of the narrow canal that connects the thyroid gland to the tongue during development?

A

Thyroglossal duct

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30
Q

What does colloid store?

A

Thyroglobulin

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31
Q

What is the name of T4?

A

Thyroxine

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32
Q

What is the name of T3?

A

Triiodothyronine

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33
Q

How do metabolically active thyroid cells stain differently than inactive cells?

A

Active stain basophilic and nonactive stain acidophilic

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34
Q

What is the order of layers in the adrenal glands?

A

(from outside to inside) Zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, and ona reticularis

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35
Q

What layer of the adrenal gland produces aldosterone?

A

Zona glomerulosa

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36
Q

What layer of the adrenal gland produces cortisol?

A

Zona fasciculata

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37
Q

What layer of the adrenal gland produces small amounts of cortisol and DHEA?

A

Zona reticularis

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38
Q

What two hormones are produced by the thymus?

A

Thymopoietin and Thymosin

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39
Q

What cell type is found in all other salivary glands other than the parotid glands?

A

Serous demilunes

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40
Q

What duct is associated with the submandibular duct?

A

Wharton’s duct

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41
Q

What two hormones do the alpha cells of the anterior pituitary gland secrete?

A

GH (from Somatotropes) and Prolactin (from Latotropes)

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42
Q

What four hormones are produced by beta cells of the anterior pituitary gland?

A
  1. ACTH (Corticotropes), 2. FSH (Gonadotropes), 3. LH (Gonadotropes) and 4. TSH (Thyrotropes)
43
Q

What two portions of the anterior pituitary gland have no proven function in mammals?

A

Pars intermedia and pars tuberalis

44
Q

What mineral is the most important in promoting development of the thymus gland?

A

Zinc

45
Q

What is the array of microtubules found in the core of cilia and flagella called that has a 9 + 2 pattern?

A

Axoneme

46
Q

What type of cell produces testicular fluid?

A

Sertoli

47
Q

What type of cell produces testosterone?

A

Leydig cells

48
Q

What is the other name for ctyoplasmic inclusions?

A

Metaplasm

49
Q

What is the name of the watery, transparent material that is the primary component of animal cells?

A

Protoplasm

50
Q

What is the progenitor of chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla?

A

Neural crest cells

51
Q

What two cells release heparin into the blood?

A

Basophils and Mast cells

52
Q

What cell produces albumin, fibrinogen and prothrombin clotting factors?

A

Hepatocytes

53
Q

What is the function of the nucleolus?

A

Synthesize rRNA

54
Q

What part of the ER produces steroids?

A

Smooth ER

55
Q

What chemical reaction can be used to separate DNA from RNA?

A

Feulgen Reaction

56
Q

What type of cell is found in the internal ear, taste buds and olfactory epithelium?

A

Sustentacular cells

57
Q

Where are globular cells found?

A

Transitional epithelium (kidney, water, bladder, etc.)

58
Q

Where are prickle cells found?

A

Stratum spinosum of epidermis

59
Q

Where are purkinje cells found?

A

Cerebellar cortex

60
Q

What are the two main types of fibers that make up intrafusal fibers of muscle spindles?

A
  1. Nuclear bag and 2. Nuclear chain
61
Q

What enzyme is the major regulatory enzyme of cholesterol synthesis?

A

HMG-CoA reductase

62
Q

What two nitrogen compounds enter the urea cycle?

A

Ammonia and aspartate

63
Q

What is hydrolyzed to create urea in the urea cycle?

A

Arginine

64
Q

Where does the urea cycle occur?

A

Almost exclusively in the liver

65
Q

What typically causes death in liver disease?

A

Inability of the body to perform the urea cycle

66
Q

Where do the first two reactions of the urea cycle occur?

A

Mitochondria

67
Q

Besides muscles, what other organ uptakes free glucose from the blood?

A

Brain

68
Q

What enzyme only functions when blood glucose is high?

A

Glucokinase

69
Q

What enzyme is very similar to glucokinase?

A

Hexokinase

70
Q

What are the three regulatory enzymes of glycolysis?

A
  1. Hexokinase, 2. Phophofructokinase and 3. pyruvate kinase
71
Q

What factor does Heparin prevent the activation of?

A

Factor IX (Christmas factor)

72
Q

What causes vasodilation, secretion of HCl, Bronchoconstriction, decreased blood pressure and increased vascular permeability?

A

Histamine

73
Q

What receptors mediate the typical allergic and anaphylactic responses to histamine?

A

H1 receptors

74
Q

Which receptors mediate increase of gastric acid and pepsin to histamine?

A

H2 receptors

75
Q

What enzyme interferes with the action of serotonin in the brain?

A

Lysergic acid diethylamide

76
Q

What is absorbed by simple diffusion across the small intestine mucosa?

A

Free fatty acids

77
Q

What process allows fructose absorption?

A

Facilitated diffusion

78
Q

What releases mucous secretion into the stomach and gastrin into the blood?

A

Pyloric glands

79
Q

Cholecystokinin, Secretin and Gastrin are all used for what purpose?

A

They are the most important stimuli of pancreatic secretion

80
Q

Which vitamin is Thiamin?

A

B1

81
Q

What is the purpose of Riboflavin (B2) in the diet?

A

Acts as an essential coenzyme in many oxidation-reduction reactions involving carbhydrate metabolism

82
Q

What makes pantothenic acid important?

A

It is a component of CoA

83
Q

What is the purpose of vitamin B6 (Pyridine)

A

Balances hormonal changes in women and assists the immune system with the growth of new cells

84
Q

What is unique about Cobalamin (B12)?

A

It is not immediately excreted like other water-soluble vitamins, but instead is stored in the liver. Deficiency results in pernicious anemia.

85
Q

What leads to pellagra?

A

A lack of niacin

86
Q

What role does folacin play in the body?

A

It helps the body form red blood cells, is essentia for the biosynthesis of purines and pyrimidine, and aids in the formation of genetic material

87
Q

What effect does a vitamin A deficiency have on teeth?

A

Creates problems with enamel formation

88
Q

What effect does a vitamin C deficiency have on teeth?

A

Collagen synthesis problems result in dentin defects

89
Q

What is important to know about vitamin E (tocopherol)?

A

It prevents free radicals, benefits in prevention of heart disease and cancer, has an RDA expressed in mg equivalents, and is the least toxic of all fat-soluble vitamines

90
Q

What is the most toxic fat-soluble vitamin?

A

Vitamin D

91
Q

What is Cholecalciferol?

A

Inactive form of Vitamin D

92
Q

What is 1,2-dihydroxycholecalciferol?

A

The active form of Vitamin D that regulates Ca in plasma

93
Q

What is 7-dehydrocholesterol?

A

The precursor to Vitamin D that is synthesized to Cholecalciferol when the dermis is exposed to sunlight

94
Q

What is the pathway of activation of 7-dehydrocholesterol?

A

7-dehydrocholesterol -> Cholecaliferol in dermis -> 25-hydroxycholecalciferol in liver -> 1,25-dihydroxycholecalcierol in kidneys

95
Q

What nutrient is a constituent of active tissue compounds, cartilage and tendons?

A

Sulfur

96
Q

What nutrient acativates enzymes involved in protein synthesis?

A

Magnesium

97
Q

What mineral is a constituent of vitamin B12

A

Cobalt

98
Q

What metal is a constituent of enzymes associated with iron metabolism and nerve function?

A

Copper

99
Q

What vitamin requires intrinsic factor to be absorbed?

A

B12

100
Q

What metal is a part of the active cytochrome oxydase?

A

Copper

101
Q

What vitamin has the highest RDA for the 25-50 age group?

A

Vitamin C

102
Q

What is required for the carboxylation of acetyl-CoA to malnyl-CoA and is an intermediate in the fatty acid synthesis cycle?

A

Biotin

103
Q

What protein can inactivate biotin?

A

Avidin