Day 9 PAEDS Flashcards

1
Q

A 2-year-old boy is brought to the GP by his mother.

She has noticed a red rash on the flexor aspects of his elbows and on the abdomen and reports he is constantly trying to scratch. On examination the child appears well.

There is evidence of excoriation over red patches of dry skin but there is no crusting or evidence of infection.

A diagnosis of eczema is made.

What is the first line treatment in a child of this age?

A

This question focuses on the stepwise management of eczema in children. The child in this scenario has a new diagnosis and has not tried any treatment. The first-line treatment is topical emollients. If necessary, topical steroids can be used alongside the emollients, but emollients must be used before steroids can be added.

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2
Q

What is Kallman’s syndrome?

A

Kallman’s syndrome is a cause of delayed puberty secondary to hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism.

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3
Q

A 17-year-old male with a history of cystic fibrosis presents to clinic for annual review.

What is the most appropriate advice regarding his diet?

A

High calorie and high fat with pancreatic enzyme supplementation for every meal

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4
Q

Cystic Fibrosis key points (5)

A
  • regular (at least twice daily) chest physiotherapy and postural drainage. Parents are usually taught to do this. Deep breathing exercises are also useful
  • high calorie diet, including high fat intake*
  • patients with CF should try to minimise contact with each other to prevent cross infection with Burkholderia cepacia complex and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • vitamin supplementation
  • pancreatic enzyme supplements taken with meals
  • lung transplantation - chronic infection with Burkholderia cepacia is an important CF-specific contraindication to lung transplantation
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5
Q

How are CF patients with delta F508 mutation treated?

A

Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor (Orkambi)

is used to treat cystic fibrosis patients who are homozygous for the delta F508 mutation

lumacaftor increases the number of CFTR proteins that are transported to the cell surface

ivacaftor is a potentiator of CFTR that is already at the cell surface, increasing the probability that the defective channel will be open and allow chloride ions to pass through the channel pore

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6
Q

(3)

A

Biliary atresia typically presents in the first few weeks of life with jaundice, appetite and growth disturbance

Biliary atresia causes fibrous obstruction of the extra-hepatic biliary ducts that can progress to liver failure.

The presentation typically includes jaundice with high conjugated bilirubin, growth and feeding disturbance, and hepatomegaly with raised liver transaminases (GGT most raised).

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7
Q

What are Dubin-Johnson and Rotor syndromes?

(3)

A

Both case jaundice and elevated conjugated bilirubin.

However, liver function derangement is not present.

Both of these conditions are autosomal recessive.

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8
Q

What is Gilbert’s syndrome?

(5)

A

Gilbert’s is an autosomal recessive* condition of defective bilirubin conjugation due to a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase.

Features

  • unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia (i.e. not in urine)
  • jaundice may only be seen during an intercurrent illness, exercise or fasting

Investigation and management

  • investigation: rise in bilirubin following prolonged fasting or IV nicotinic acid
  • no treatment required
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9
Q

A 7-year-old boy is referred to the enuresis clinic by his GP. His mother initially contacted the GP concerned with ongoing bedwetting and it transpires that the boy has never had a ‘dry night’.

The GP has provided general advice on diet, fluid intake and toileting behaviour, though the mother says the bedwetting has not resolved. Despite the use of a reward system, the boy still wets the bed at night and the mother is getting concerned.

She speaks to the enuresis clinic and is sent home with an intervention.

What is this intervention likely to be?

A

An enuresis alarm is generally used first-line for nocturnal enuresis if general advice has not helped

Desmopressin is usually offered if the enuresis alarm does not work.

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10
Q

A 12-week-old baby is bought to his GP by his mother. She reports he has had regurgitation and vomiting after most feeds and ongoing diarrhoea which contains significant amounts of mucus. She is particularly concerned about his crying, as she finds it very hard to settle him and she has noted that he often pulls his legs up to his chest during these episodes.

He was born at full term and was a healthy weight at birth (although he has recently trailed off of his centile). He is formula-fed. Other than his apparent gastrointestinal problems, his only past medical history is some eczema managed with emollients.

What is the next step in management?

A

Trial of extensively hydrolysed formula is the best option here as the baby’s symptoms of vomiting mucus stool and ‘colic’-type episodes fit most with cow’s milk protein allergy. If the extensively hydrolysed formula resolves the symptoms then this essentially confirms this diagnosis and must be continued instead of normal formula milk. If it does not, amino acid-based formula (AAF) may be trialled and/or further investigations may be required.

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11
Q

You are attending labour for an emergency Caesarean section for failure to progress. The operation goes on without any complications. The baby cries immediately after birth and there is 30 seconds of delayed cord clamping. On examination, baby is centrally pink with blueish hands and feet. Saturation probes are attached to the baby and show an oxygen saturation of 73% at 1 minute.

What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A

In first 10 minutes of life, suboptimal SpO2 readings can be expected from a healthy neonate.

Observe and reassess at next interval

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12
Q

A 12-year-old high school pupil presents to you in GP with low mood. When you discuss the background of her mood it emerges that she has been bullied for having had sex with a 17-year-old boy in the same school. This only happened once and no alcohol or drugs were involved. She said that she wasn’t forced to have sex with him and that ‘it was consensual’.

What is the most appropriate immediate course of action?

A

You should disclose that this girl has been sexually active to the relevant authority

The issue of consent and confidentiality for young people around sexual issues can often be difficult, however, there is no doubt in this case.

Option 1 is the correct answer.

Legally, children under the age of 13 are unable to consent to sex. As such, you should normally disclose this. Any decision to not disclose should be discussed with a named or designated doctor for child protection and should be properly documented. It is very rare that this should happen.

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13
Q

A mother brings her child as she is concerned he is clumsy compared to other similar aged children. At what age would the average child acquire a good pincer grip?

A

12 months

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14
Q

A 14-year-old boy is brought in to the General Practitioner as his mother states that he has been struggling at school over the past year.

He has a past medical history of recurrent otitis media.

The mother states that her nephew and niece have both needed additional support at school and the latter also has Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD).

His birth history and early childhood development were normal.

On examination, he has an elongated face and protruding ears.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Fragile X syndrome is the most common cause of inherited neurodevelopmental delay

The combination of a family history of neurodevelopmental delay, the characteristic facies and the past history of recurrent otitis media all point towards Fragile X syndrome, Fragile X syndrome is largely considered to have an X-linked dominant inheritance albeit with variable expressivity. It is more common in males than females, with approximately 1 in 4000 men being affected. It is also commonly associated with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder.

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15
Q

A four-month-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 12-hour history of irritability, fever and vomiting. Observations include respiratory rate: 42/min, heart rate: 147/min, blood pressure: 74/40 mmHg and temperature: 39.5ºC. Examination reveals a bulging anterior fontanelle and reduced tone in all four limbs.

What would be the most appropriate initial drug to prescribe for this patient?

A

Initial empirical therapy for meningitis if > 3 months of age: IV 3rd generation cephalosporin

Antibiotics

< 3 months: IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) + IV cefotaxime

> 3 months: IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone)

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16
Q

A 2 day old baby who was born by a ventouse delivery is noted to have a swelling on the left side of his head in the parietal region.

His head appeared normal immediately after delivery. O

n examination, the baby is well and the swelling does not cross suture lines. The fontanelles and sutures appear normal.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Cephalohaematoma

A cephalohaematoma appears as a swelling due to bleeding between the periosteum and the skull. It is most commonly noted in the parietal region and is associated with instrumental deliveries. The swelling usually appears 2-3 days following delivery and does not cross suture lines. It gradually resolves over a number of weeks.

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17
Q

A 9-year-old boy presents to the general practitioner with his father complaining of right hip pain.

His father explains that he had the “flu” a few weeks ago.

His observations are as follows: he is alert, heart rate 78 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths/min, temperature 38.3ºC, blood pressure 118/76 mmHg, oxygen saturations, 99% on room air.

What is the diagnosis?

What is the most appropriate management?

A

The child is likely to have hip pain due to transient synovitis secondary to a previous illness, such as the flu.

If a child with a limp/hip pain has a fever they should be referred for same-day assessment, even if a diagnosis of transient synovitis is suspected

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18
Q

A 9-year-old girl is brought to see her GP by her mother with a 2 and a half week history of cough. Her mother says that she had a few days of coryzal symptoms around 3 weeks ago, shortly before the cough started. She says she coughs regularly that sometimes makes her vomit, and claims to have noticed a ‘whooping’ sound when she breathes in after a coughing fit. Her observations are all within normal limits.

Given the likely diagnosis, what is the appropriate treatment?

A

Whooping cough - azithromycin or clarithromycin if the onset of cough is within the previous 21 days

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19
Q

Cardiac features of PDA (5)

A
  • left subclavicular thrill
  • continuous ‘machinery’ murmur
  • large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse
  • wide pulse pressure
  • heaving apex beat
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20
Q

A 3-year-old boy is brought into resus in cardiac arrest.

The patient was brought in by ambulance with his mother.

She is too distraught to give any history other than the child had been okay when she had left the room.

He was found unconscious on her return so an ambulance was called.

Which of the reversible causes of cardiac arrest are most likely in this situation?

A

The most common causes of arrest in children are respiratory

The most likely cause of this arrest was hypoxia as the most common cause of paediatric arrest is a respiratory arrest. In this case, hypoxia is likely due to a choking episode due to the child’s age and the lack of a clear history for another cause. Choking episodes are common causes of collapse and arrest in young ambulant children, particularly toddlers.

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21
Q

What are the general rules for dominant vs receive conditions?

A

Autosomal recessive conditions are ‘metabolic’ - exceptions: inherited ataxias

Autosomal dominant conditions are ‘structural’ - exceptions: Gilbert’s, hyperlipidaemia type II

Autosomal recessive conditions are often thought to be ‘metabolic’ as opposed to autosomal dominant conditions being ‘structural’, notable exceptions:

  • some ‘metabolic’ conditions such as Hunter’s and G6PD are X-linked recessive whilst others such as hyperlipidaemia type II and hypokalaemic periodic paralysis are autosomal dominant
  • some ‘structural’ conditions such as ataxia telangiectasia and Friedreich’s ataxia are autosomal recessive
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22
Q

Genetics of myotonic dystorophy

(4)

A

autosomal dominant

a trinucleotide repeat disorder

DM1 is caused by a CTG repeat at the end of the DMPK (Dystrophia Myotonica-Protein Kinase) gene on chromosome 19

DM2 is caused by a repeat expansion of the ZNF9 gene on chromosome 3

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23
Q

General features of myotonic dystrophy

(5)

A
  • myotonic facies (long, ‘haggard’ appearance)
  • frontal balding
  • bilateral ptosis
  • cataracts
  • dysarthria
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24
Q

A sporty teenage boy presents with pain, tenderness and swelling over the tibial tubercle

What is the diagnosis?

A

Osgood-Schlatter disease

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25
Q

Continuous ‘machinery’ murmur is associated with which condition

A

patent ductus arteriosus

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26
Q

What is Benign rolandic epilepsy (2)

A

Benign rolandic epilepsy (BRE) is the most common form of childhood epilepsy. It is referred to as “benign” because most children outgrow the condition by puberty.

This form of epilepsy is characterized by seizures involving a part of the brain called the rolandic area.

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27
Q

Feature of benign Rolandic epilepsy

(3)

A

seizures characteristically occur at night

seizures are typically partial (e.g. paraesthesia affecting face) but secondary generalisation may occur (i.e. parents may only report tonic-clonic movements)

child is otherwise normal

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28
Q

What is tumour lysis syndrome (TLS)?

A

TLS occurs from the breakdown of the tumour cells and the subsequent release of chemicals from the cell.

It leads to a high potassium and high phosphate level in the presence of a low calcium.

It should be suspected in any patient presenting with an acute kidney injury in the presence of a high phosphate and high uric acid level.

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29
Q

You are an F1 working in the emergency department.

One morning a 14-year-old girl is admitted from her secondary school with nausea and abdominal pain.

On examination, she is found to be septic and can only provide a brief history before becoming drowsy.

The surgical team believes she has an appendicitis which may have perforated requiring emergency surgery.

Her parents are not contactable with the numbers given by the school.

The patient is not alert enough to consent to the operation herself. What is the most appropriate action?

A

Take the patient to surgery immediately

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30
Q

A mother brings her 2-month-old son into the surgery to receive his first set of vaccinations. She is hesitant to vaccinate him, and particularly sceptical about the recent addition of the the rotavirus vaccine to the immunisation programme.

What can you tell her about the rotavirus vaccine?

(3)

A

it is an oral, live attenuated vaccine

2 doses are required, the first at 2 months, the second at 3 months

the first dose should not be given after 14 weeks + 6 days and the second dose cannot be given after 23 weeks + 6 days due to a theoretical risk of intussusception

Other points

the vaccine is around 85-90% effective and is predicted to decrease hospitalisation by 70%

offers long-term protection against rotavirus

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31
Q
A

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

With the symptoms of epistaxis and bruising leukaemia is the most likely choice out of the options given. This is compounded by the anaemia associated with low platelets.

Disseminated intravascular coagulation is also hinted at by the low platelets and prolonged prothrombin time. This would also fit with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia.

Acute myeloid leukaemia is unlikely due to the age group. White blood cells are normal which would point away from a long standing infection.

Although aplastic anaemia and myelodysplasia would give lowered erythrocytes and platelets, they would not produce the symptoms of epistaxis and bruising.

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32
Q

A mother brings her 5-week-old newborn baby to see you. She reports that she has noticed that his belly button is always wet and leaks out yellow fluid.

On examination, you note a small, red growth of tissue in the centre of the umbilicus, covered with clear mucus. The child is otherwise well, apyrexial and developing normally.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

What is the treatment?

A

An umbilical granuloma is an overgrowth of tissue which occurs during the healing process of the umbilicus. It is most common in the first few weeks of life.

On examination, a small, red growth of tissue is seen in the centre of the umbilicus.

It is usually wet and leaks small amounts of clear or yellow fluid.

It is treated by regular application of salt to the wound, if this does not help then the granuloma can be cauterised with silver nitrate.

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33
Q

What is the treatment for tumour lysis syndrome?

(3)

A

Patients at high risk of TLS should be given IV allopurinol or IV rasburicase immediately prior to and during the first days of chemotherapy.

Rasburicase is a recombinant version of urate oxidase, an enzyme that metabolizes uric acid to allantoin.

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34
Q

A 3-year-old boy presents to the GP with his mother who explains he has been unwell for the past 24 hours.

The mother explains that the boy has been feverish and has not been eating his food.

On general inspection, the child looks sickly and flushed.

There is a diffuse maculopapular rash across his chest and back and small white papules on the inside of his cheeks.

What is the likely diagnosis?

What is the most frequent complication?

Which investigation should be performed?

How is the condition managed?

A

The most likely diagnosis here is measles due to the characteristic fever, maculopapular rash, and koplik spots (white papules on the buccal mucosa that often present before the rash).

The most common complication of measles is otitis media

IgM antibodies can be detected within a few days of rash onset

management is supportive

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35
Q

What is the average age at which a child attains the ability to hop on one leg?

A

3-4 years

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36
Q

What is the average age at which a child attains the ability to pull to standing?

A

8-10 months

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37
Q

What is the average age at which a child attains the ability to squat to pick up ball?

A

18 months

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38
Q

A 4-year-old boy presents with his mother who is worried, as she notices that his urine is often a dark reddish colour.

She is also concerned that he has begun to eat less and less over the past couple of weeks.

`On examination he is afebrile and there is no history of any recent illness. The mother mentions that his father and grandfather both had kidney trouble but is unsure of what their diagnosis was.

Examination reveals a distended abdomen which is soft and non-tender.

A palpable mass is felt in the right flank.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Wilms’ tumour

Given the boy’s age, and the symptom of haematuria with no reports of any pain, a palpable non-tender mass and a reduction in appetite with a distended abdomen Wilms’ tumour is the most likely diagnosis.

Renal cysts depending on their size often give rise to pain on palpation similar with polycystic kidney disease.

Urinary tract infections are often painful and are accompanied by a feeling of unwellness, therefore, it is unlikely.

Hydronephrosis is accompanied by a distended abdomen which becomes increasingly painful as the bladder further expands and is, therefore, an unlikely diagnosis in this case.

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39
Q

What is Wilm’s tumour?

When does it typically present? (3)

What are the features? (6)

A

When does it typically present? (3)

Wilms’ nephroblastoma is one of the most common childhood malignancies.

It typically presents in children under 5 years of age, with a median age of 3 years old.

What are the features? (6)

  • abdominal mass (most common presenting feature)
  • painless haematuria
  • flank pain
  • other features: anorexia, fever
  • unilateral in 95% of cases
  • metastases are found in 20% of patients (most commonly lung)
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40
Q

Management of Wilm’s tumour

(4)

A

Management

  • nephrectomy
  • chemotherapy
  • radiotherapy if advanced disease
  • prognosis: good, 80% cure rate
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41
Q

Define Enucleation

(2)

A

Enucleation is the surgical procedure that involves the removal of the entire eye and its intraocular contents

but with preservation of all other periorbital and orbital structures.

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42
Q

What is the typical demographic of retinoblastoma?

(2)

A

Retinoblastoma is the most common ocular malignancy found in children.

The average age of diagnosis is 18 months.

43
Q

What is the pathophysiology of retinoblastoma?

What is the genetic cause?

(3)

A

Pathophysiology

autosomal dominant

caused by a loss of function of the retinoblastoma tumour suppressor gene on chromosome 13

around 10% of cases are hereditary

44
Q

What are the features of retinoblastoma?

(3)

A

Features

absence of red-reflex, replaced by a white pupil (leukocoria) - the most common presenting symptom

strabismus

visual problems

45
Q

A 2-year-old boy is seen by his GP as he has had recurrent respiratory infections requiring hospitalisation. The health visitor has also noted that his weight has dropped from the 4th to the 2nd centile on the growth chart. He was born at term with a normal birth weight.

On examination, it is noted that he has nasal polyps.

What is the most likely underlying problem?

A

Nasal polyps are associated with cystic fibrosis

Recurrent serious respiratory tract infections and weight loss in a child should prompt consideration of cystic fibrosis.

In this question, this is the most likely answer due to the presence of nasal polyps, which are associated with cystic fibrosis.

Recurrent bronchiolitis may also lead to hospitalisations, and could possibly cause weight loss due to poor feeding.

However, bronchiolitis is not associated with nasal polyps. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia causes respiratory distress, but is usually seen in premature infants with low birth weights and is not associated with nasal polyps.

There is no evidence of neglect in this question and the presence of nasal polyps indicates an underlying disease process.

46
Q

A 5-week-old girl is brought to the GP surgery with a rash on her scalp:

What is the diagnosis? (1)

What is the most appropriate management? (2)

How long will it take to resolve? (1)

A

Management depends on severity

mild-moderate: baby shampoo and baby oils

severe: mild topical steroids e.g. 1% hydrocortisone

Seborrhoeic dermatitis in children tends to resolve spontaneously by around 8 months of age

Seborrhoeic dermatitis in children tends to resolve spontaneously by around 8 months of age

47
Q

A 4-year-old boy presents to the GP with his mother.

She reports he developed a fever and a sore throat 3-days previously and is now presenting with a widespread rash over his trunk and legs.

On examination, the child is febrile, flushed, and lethargic, with a widespread erythematous rash over his trunk and legs, that has a rough texture.

Throat examination reveals a swollen red tongue with cervical lymphadenopathy.

What is the diagnosis? (1)

How should he be treated? (1)

A

Scarlet fever is characterised by a sandpaper rash

Scarlet fever is correct. This child is presenting with signs and symptoms of scarlet fever, with a characteristic sandpaper rash, swollen tongue, and lymphadenopathy.

He should be given a 10-day course of penicillin V for an underlying group-A streptococcal infection, advised to stay off school for 24-hours after starting the antibiotics, and public health should be notified.

48
Q

Which drugs have been shown to have no effect on the prevalence of febrile convulsions?

A

anti-pyretics

49
Q

A 32-year-old mother, gravida 5 presents in labour having had no antenatal follow up.

The neonate is born with the bowel protruding out of the abdomen but you note that it has a peritoneal covering protecting it.

What is the name of this condition?
What is the optimal management of the protruding bowel?

A

Exomphalos should have a gradual repair to prevent respiratory complications.

Staged closure starting immediately with completion at 6-12 months

Not to be confused with gastroschisis requires urgent correction

50
Q

Difference between exomphalos and gastroschisis

A
51
Q

A 32-year-old woman has just had her 34 week check.

The patient reported reduced fetal movements 2 days ago, but they are now back to normal.

She underwent an ultrasound to check if there were any problems.

The obstetrician explains he found a defect in the abdominal wall and the intestines are outside the baby’s body but contained within a membrane.

The baby is otherwise healthy.

Which is the most suitable delivery option for this patient?

A

If an unborn has exomphalos then caesarean section is indicated to reduce the risk of sac rupture

This baby is most likely to have exomphalos since the abdominal content is contained within a membrane.

The most appropriate option would be to plan for a caesarean section. It can be possible to deliver vaginally, but a caesarean section is the safest approach to delivery.

52
Q

A 1-year-old girl is investigated for recurrent urinary tract infections. A micturating cystourethrogram is ordered:

What is the diagnosis?

What do the red circles show?

A

Vesicoureteric reflux

Pathophysiology of VUR

  • ureters are displaced laterally, entering the bladder in a more perpendicular fashion than at an angle
  • therefore shortened intramural course of the ureter
  • vesicoureteric junctions cannot, therefore, function adequately
53
Q

A baby girl born 4 weeks ago has had persistent jaundice since 48 hours after birth. Her parents also noticed she is reluctant to take on breastfeeding and her urine appears quite dark.

Upon your examination, you confirm the infant is jaundiced and notice a firm, enlarged liver.

You review her bloods which show a conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. Her serum alpha-1 antitrypsin levels and electrophoresis are normal and the neonatal heel prick test performed at birth was negative.

What is the diagnosis?

What is the treatment of choice for this condition?

A

Surgery is the treatment of choice for biliary atresia

The cause of prolonged jaundice in this infant is biliary atresia, a condition involving either obliteration or discontinuity within the extrahepatic biliary system. Biliary atresia results in an obstruction in the flow of bile and the presentation of a cholestatic picture, including pale stools and dark urine.

Relevant investigations include bilirubin levels, liver function tests and tests to exclude differential diagnoses such as alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency and cystic fibrosis.

Abdominal ultrasound provides an initial indication of biliary anatomy, and liver biopsy and intraoperative cholangiogram confirm the diagnosis.

54
Q

Causes of neonatal jaundice with in the first 24 hours

(3)

A

biliary atresia

Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency

cystic fibrosis

55
Q

Two different types of emphysema

A
56
Q

A 5-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents.

He has been complaining of pain around his left hip for the past fortnight and has been limping.

He is apyrexial and examination of his left hip joint shows a slight reduction in the range of movement.

There are no signs of effusion or swelling.

His right hip is unremarkable. Blood tests, including cultures, come back negative.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

What is the treatment?

A

Perthes’ disease presenting under the age of 6 years has a good prognosis requiring only observation

57
Q

Features of Perthe’s disease

(4)

A

Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition affecting the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years.

hip pain: develops progressively over a few weeks

stiffness and reduced range of hip movement

x-ray: early changes include widening of joint space, later changes include decreased femoral head size/flattening

58
Q

x-ray finding of Perthe’s disease

A

x-ray: early changes include:

  • widening of joint space,
  • later changes include decreased femoral head size/flattening
59
Q

A 6-month-old girl is brought to see GP by her dad with a seal-like barking cough. Her dad is worried as she seems to be struggling with her breathing, especially at night.

On examination, she is alert and engaging, although has mild sternal indrawing and appears tired. Her observations are as follows:

  • Heart rate: 80 bpm
  • Blood pressure: 105/65 mmHg
  • Oxygen saturation: 100% on air
  • Respiratory rate: 22 breaths/min
  • Temperature: 37.1 C°

What is the most likely diagnosis?

What is the epidemiology?

A

Croup

Epidemiology

  • peak incidence at 6 months - 3 years
  • more common in autumn
60
Q

Management of A1 antitrypsin deficiency

(4)

A

no smoking

supportive: bronchodilators, physiotherapy

intravenous alpha1-antitrypsin protein concentrates

surgery: lung volume reduction surgery, lung transplantation

61
Q

A 48 hour old neonate develops increasing abdominal distension. He had a normal delivery but has yet to pass any meconium. Following digital rectal examination liquid stool is released.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Hirschsprungs may present either with features of bowel obstruction in the neonatal period or more insidiously during childhood. After the PR there may be an improvement in symptoms. Diagnosis is by full thickness rectal biopsy.

62
Q

A 7 month old girl presents with vomiting and diarrhoea. She is crying and drawing her legs up. There is a a sausage shaped mass in the abdomen.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Sausage shaped mass (colon shaped) is common in intussusception. The other common sign is red jelly stool.

63
Q

A 1 month old baby girl presents with bile stained vomiting.

She has an exomphalos and a congenital diaphragmatic hernia.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Exomphalos and diaphragmatic hernia are commonly associated with malrotation.

64
Q

What are VACTERLs?

What are they associated with?

A

associated with oesophageal atresia

65
Q

What is mesenteric adenitis?

What are the key features?

A

Mesenteric lymphadenitis (also known as mesenteric adenitis) is inflammation (swelling) of the lymph nodes in the abdomen (belly). Lymph nodes are organs that are part of the body’s immune system.

  • Central abdominal pain and URTI
  • Conservative management
66
Q

Key features of malrotation

(5)

A

High caecum at the midline

Feature in exomphalos, congenital diaphragmatic hernia, intrinsic duodenal atresia

May be complicated by the development of volvulus, an infant with volvulus may have bile stained vomiting

Diagnosis is made by upper GI contrast study and USS

Treatment is by laparotomy, if volvulus is present (or at high risk of occurring then a Ladd’s procedure is performed

67
Q

Key features of intussusception

(5)

A

Telescoping bowel

Proximal to or at the level of, ileocaecal valve

6-9 months of age

Colicky pain, diarrhoea and vomiting, sausage-shaped mass, red jelly stool.

Treatment: reduction with air insufflation

68
Q

Key features of pyloric stenosis

(5)

A

M>F

5-10% Family history in parents

Projectile non bile stained vomiting at 4-6 weeks of life

Diagnosis is made by test feed or USS

Treatment: Ramstedt pyloromyotomy (open or laparoscopic)

69
Q

Key features of Hirschsprung’s disease

(5)

A

Absence of ganglion cells from myenteric and submucosal plexuses

Occurs in 1/5000 births

Full-thickness rectal biopsy for diagnosis

Delayed passage of meconium and abdominal distension

Treatment is with rectal washouts initially, after that an anorectal pull through procedure

70
Q

Key features of Meconium ileus

(4)

A

Usually delayed passage of meconium and abdominal distension

The majority have cystic fibrosis

X-Rays will not show a fluid level as the meconium is viscid, PR contrast studies may dislodge meconium plugs and be therapeutic

Infants who do not respond to PR contrast and NG N-acetyl cysteine will require surgery to remove the plugs

71
Q

Key features of biliary atresia

(3)

A

Jaundice > 14 days

Increased conjugated bilirubin

Urgent Kasai procedure

72
Q

Key features of necrotising enterocolitis

(5)

A

Prematurity is the main risk factor

Early features include abdominal distension and passage of bloody stools

X-Rays may show pneumatosis intestinalis and evidence of free air

Increased risk when empirical antibiotics are given to infants beyond 5 days

Treatment is with total gut rest and TPN, babies with perforations will require laparotomy

73
Q

A 4-year-old boy presents to the GP with a pink spotted rash on his torso which has now spread to all limbs. On further questioning his mother states that he has had a high grade fever for 3 days prior, and in fact seemed to be getting better before the onset of this rash. He is now afebrile.

On examination there is a maculopapular red rash over his trunk and limbs. All other examinations are normal. Observations are stable.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Roseola infantum typically starts with a high grade fever which resolves before the onset of the rash. The rash typically starts abruptly after the temperature subsides, and usually starts on the trunk before spreading to the limbs. It is a maculopapular rash and it not itchy.

74
Q

You see a 6 week-old baby boy for his routine baby check and note a small, soft, umbilical hernia on examination. What should you do?

A

Watch and wait

Small umbilical hernias are common in babies and tend to resolve by 12 months of age. Parents should be reassured no treatment is usually required but to be aware of the signs of obstruction or strangulation such as vomiting, pain and being unable to push the hernia in - this is rare in infants. Advise the parents to present the child at around 2 years of age if the hernia is still present to arrange referral to a surgeon. Attempts to treat the hernia by strapping or taping things over the area are not helpful and can irritate the skin.

75
Q

At what age would the average child acquire the ability to walk unsupported?

A

13-15 months

76
Q

A 4-year-old boy is brought in by his mother.

He was mildly unwell yesterday with a fever, lethargy and sore throat. Today, his mum is alarmed as she has noticed ‘blisters’ in and around his mouth and he is reluctant to eat or drink.

On examination the child looks miserable, but not unwell, his temperature is 38.2ºC and he has a mix of shallow ulcers and erythematous papules scattered over his hard palate, tongue and lips.

Examining further you also notice that there are a few erythematous maculopapular lesions along the sides of his fingers, around his right heel and over his buttocks.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

The answer here is hand foot and mouth disease.

The typical clinical features are seen in the history- a mild illness with systemic upset, sore throat, fever, then oral ulcers and lesions on the hands and feet.

It is important to note that the lesions may also be found around the groin or buttocks. The rash is typically made up of 25 mm scattered erythematous macules and papules, often with a central greyish vesicle.

77
Q

Describe the appearance of the rash in hand/foot/mouth disease

A

erythematous macules

papules

78
Q

A mother brings her 11-month-old son to the emergency department because she is concerned about a rash he has developed. On further questioning, the mother describes that the rash started 2 days ago, initially behind the ears but has since spread.

Prior to developing the rash, the infant was generally unwell with a cough and a fever. He is currently up to date with vaccines but the mother knows that he is supposed to have some more soon though she has not booked an appointment for these yet.

On examination you note that he is irritable, has white spots in his mouth and his eyes appear inflamed.

What is the diagnosis

What is he at risk of then developing?

A

The most common complication of measles is otitis media

79
Q

A 17-year-old girl presents to her GP as she has not started menstruating. On examination, you note her short stature and webbed neck.

What is the likely diagnosis?

What is the cardiac deformation?

What would you expect to hear on auscultation of her heart?

A

Turner’s syndrome is associated with an ejection systolic murmur due to bicuspid aortic valve

80
Q

Which condition is associated with a late systolic murmur?

(2)

A

Late systolic murmurs are caused by

mitral valve prolapse

aortic coarctation

81
Q

Which condition is associated with Mid-late diastolic murmur.

(2)

A

Mid-late diastolic murmurs are caused by mitral stenosis

Mitral stenosis is caused by rheumatic fever.

82
Q

Which condition is asocitated with a pansystolic murmur.

A

Pansystolic murmurs are caused by:

mitral regurgitation

tricuspid regurgitation

ventricular septal defects

83
Q

You are consulting with a family whose son has been referred due to suspected learning difficulties. Whilst talking to his parents, you observe the son has a bubbly outgoing personality, and contemplate whether this might be a case of William’s syndrome.

What physical feature would most support this diagnosis?

A

William’s syndrome - associated with elfin facies

Small people and children are often described as having elfin faces, particularly if there’s a mischievous spark in their eyes. If your friend’s ears are unusually petite — and rather adorable — you can describe them as elfin.

84
Q

Webbing of the neck is associated with which syndromes?

(2)

A

Webbing of the neck is associated with Turner’s syndrome and Noonan’s syndrome.

85
Q

A 20-year-old gentleman would like to have a discussion regarding Huntington’s disease, which both his father and his grandfather suffered from.

He is aware that there is a phenomenon called ‘genetic anticipation.’

What is genetic anticipation?

Which other conditions also exhibit genetic anticipation?

A

Trinucleotide repeat disorders are genetic conditions caused by an abnormal number of repeats (expansions) of a repetitive sequence of three nucleotides.

These expansions are unstable and may enlarge which may lead to an earlier age of onset in successive generations - a phenomenon known as anticipation

  • Fragile X (CGG)
  • Huntington’s (CAG)
  • myotonic dystrophy (CTG)
  • Friedreich’s ataxia* (GAA)
86
Q

You are performing a baby check on infant delivered earlier that day and you notice scleral jaundice and a yellow pigmentation of the skin.

Which tests should be performed? (2)

Which conditions are you searching for? (4)

What is the first line management option? (1)

A

t would be correct to say that an osmotic fragility test would also be useful in the diagnosis but that option is not provided.

Another useful test would be a Coomb’s test (this would be positive in RHD).

Jaundice <24h is always pathological and your differentials are:

  • rhesus haemolytic disease (RHD)
  • ABO incompatibility
  • Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency
  • hereditary spherocytosis

First-line therapy is phototherapy

87
Q

A 5-week-old infant is brought into the emergency department by his mother with vomiting after every feed. The vomit is non-bilious, large volume and projectile. His mother reports this was initially small amounts of vomit and infrequent, but has increased in volume and regularity over the past week. The infant appears keen to try feeding again after each vomiting episode.

Examination reveals an olive-sized mass in the right upper quadrant and a succussion splash can be heard on auscultation.

The infant is admitted and has an ultrasound which shows increased pyloric muscle thickness, length, pyloric volume and pyloric transverse diameter leading to a confirmation of the diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is made.

What is the surgical management that should be offered for this infant?

A

The management of pyloric stenosis is with Ramstedt pyloromyotomy

Ramstedt pyloromyotomy is the definitive surgical management for pyloric stenosis. It involves dividing the pyloric muscle to increase the diameter of the gastric outlet. The surgery is performed laparoscopically or through a single incision point.

88
Q

Hydrostatic or air-contrast enema is used in the management of which condition?

A

intussusception

89
Q

A Heller myotomy may be appropriate in the management of which condition

A

achalasia

Achalasia is a rare disorder that makes it difficult for food and liquid to pass from the swallowing tube connecting your mouth and stomach (esophagus) into your stomach. Achalasia occurs when nerves in the esophagus become damaged.

90
Q

Which test is performed during the first month of life?

A

Heel-prick test day 5-9:

  • hypothyroidism
  • PKU
  • metabolic diseases
  • cystic fibrosis
  • medium-chain acyl Co-A dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD)

Midwife visit up to 4 weeks*

91
Q

When are the NIPEs performed? (2)

What do they test for? (4)

A

72 hours of birth (NIPE newborn screening examination)

and again at

6 to 8 weeks of age (NIPE infant examination)

for conditions relating to the:

  • eyes
  • heart
  • hips
  • testes (if applicable)
92
Q

A GP incidentally discovers a murmur in an 8-year-old girl.

The murmur is described as a ‘continuous blowing noise’ heard below both clavicles.

What is the most likely type of murmur diagnosed?

A

Venous hum is a benign murmur heard in children and sounds like a continuous blowing noise heard below the clavicles

93
Q

What is a venous hum?

Where is it heard?

What does it sound like?

A

Benign murmur

beneath both clavicles

continuous hum

94
Q

What is Still’s murmur?

Where is it heard?

What does it sound like?

A

benign murmur

lower left sternal edge

Low-pitched sound

95
Q

You are working at the paediatric oncology unit and you are called to talk to the parents of a 5-year-old girl who has just been diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).

Her parents are concerned as they have a older son and are worried that he is also at an increased risk of getting ALL too.

What can you tell them about the epidemiology of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia?

A

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia has a peak incidence of 2-5 years.

Affects slightly more boys than girls and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias.

96
Q

Poor prognostic factors for ALL

(5)

A

Poor prognostic factors

age < 2 years or > 10 years

WBC > 20 * 109/l at diagnosis

T or B cell surface markers

non-Caucasian

male sex

97
Q

What is the definition of neonatal death?

A

Neonatal death is defined as babies dying between 0-28 days of birth

98
Q

What is the definition of puerperal death?

A

Puerperal death refers to a maternal death within the puerperal period (first 6 weeks after birth).

99
Q

What is the difference between an early and late neonatal death?

(2)

A

An early neonatal death refers to death within the first week of life.

A late neonatal death refers to death after 7 days of life but before 28 days.

100
Q

A newborn female baby is noted to have a clicky left hip during the routine newborn examination.

What is the most appropriate investigation?

A

Screening for DDH

the following infants require a routine ultrasound examination

  • first-degree family history of hip problems in early life
  • breech presentation at or after 36 weeks gestation, irrespective of presentation at birth or mode of delivery
  • multiple pregnancy

however, if the infant is > 4.5 months then x-ray is the first line investigation

101
Q

A premature infant is admitted to hospital following signs of heart failure soon after birth. She has poor feeding associated with heavy sweating and tiring out. This has resulted in her not gaining weight as expected. Her parents also report irritability and periods of apnoea.

On examination, bounding peripheral pulses and a continuous machinery murmur are identified.

An echocardiogram shows left ventricular enlargement and a shunt between two of the great vessels.

A patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is suspected.

What non-surgical intervention could be used to manage this patient?

A

Indomethacin or ibuprofen is used in patent ductus arteriosus to promote duct closure

102
Q

Clinical features of PDA

(6)

A

left ventricular enlargement

left subclavicular thrill

continuous ‘machinery’ murmur

large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse

wide pulse pressure

heaving apex beat

103
Q

A 14-year-old girl presents with a swollen left knee.

Her parents state she suffers from haemophilia and has been treated for a right-sided haemarthrosis previously.

What other condition is she most likely to have?

(2)

A

Haemophilia is a X-linked recessive disorder and would hence be expected only to occur in males.

As patients with Turner’s syndrome only have one X chromosome however, they may develop X-linked recessive conditions

104
Q

A 13-year-old boy comes into the Emergency Department with his parents, as he has had left-sided hip pain for the last few days.

X-rays show a slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE).

What is the definitive management of this condition?

What is at risk of developing if left untreated?

What should the plan be?

A

Management of a SCFE: internal fixation

A slipped upper femoral epiphysis is an emergency, as there is a risk of avascular necrosis of the femoral head.

It therefore mandates immediate referral to paediatric orthopaedics.