Day 3 PSYCH Flashcards

1
Q

While working in psychiatry you are taking a history from a patient with a new diagnosis of generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). You take a thorough past medical history.

Which of the risk factors for developing GAD? (4)

A

Aged 35- 54
Being divorced or separated
Living alone
Being a lone parent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A 35-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department following a deliberate paracetamol overdose.

Which one of the features are most indicative of a continuing high risk of suicide?

A

If a patient has actually attempted suicide, there are a number of factors associated with an increased risk of completed suicide at a future date:

  • efforts to avoid discovery
  • planning
  • leaving a written note
  • final acts such as sorting out finances
  • violent method
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A 25-year-old man presents to his GP for a review of his current medication.

He was started on citalopram for the treatment of depressive symptoms four months ago. Today he feels that his symptoms have much improved, and he feels back to his normal self. The patient states that he feels he no longer needs to be on this antidepressant medication.

In order to reduce the chances of relapse, what should the GP advise?

A

Antidepressants should be continued for at least 6 months after remission of symptoms to decrease risk of relapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A 22-year-old man has been admitted to the psychiatric ward following concerns from his GP that he was experiencing symptoms of psychosis. The psychiatric team is considering a diagnosis of schizophrenia.

Which features in the history would be most consistent with this diagnosis?

A

Sleep disturbances, most commonly insomnia, are often reported by patients as their symptoms of schizophrenia develop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A 68-year-old Asian lady presenting with a sudden onset of paranoid thoughts and suicidal ideation was admitted under section 2 of the Mental Health Act for a period of assessment.

Her past medical history consisted of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypercholesterolaemia.

Considering this first episode of sudden onset psychosis in an elderly lady, what important investigation is required to rule out other secondary causes?

A

A CT head scan should be considered in elderly patients with new sudden onset psychosis to rule out an organic cause for their presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A 37-year-old male presents to the emergency department with new-onset symptoms.

He has a complex past medical history, comprising of depression, schizophrenia, asthma, and rheumatoid arthritis.

One hour ago, his left eye deviated upwards and inward and he started blinking repeatedly.

The episode lasted three minutes and there was no loss of consciousness.

Additionally, he experienced severe neck pain following the episode. Now, he is feeling well in himself.

Which psychiatric medication is the most likely to have caused the symptoms?

A

Acute dystonic reactions are an adverse effect of antipsychotic medications

The correct answer is chlorpromazine. This patient is describing an oculogyric crisis, a type of acute dystonic reaction.

These reactions are associated with first-generation antipsychotics, as they most commonly cause extrapyramidal side effects.

The aetiology of the reaction is not fully understood. The crisis can be managed using procyclidine, an anticholinergic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A 25-year-old man presents with depressed mood for 6 months. He reports feeling fatigued and suicidal on a daily basis. His clothes are dirty and he looks unkempt. He has made five suicide attempts in the last three months.

The patient’s psychiatrist decides to manage this patient’s depression with electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), which is to begin in a week. The patient is currently on sertraline medication of 100mg per day.

What is the most appropriate action to take with regards to this medication prior to ECT treatment for this patient?

A

Antidepressant medication should be reduced but not stopped when a patient is about to commence ECT treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A 23-year-old man undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) for treatment-resistant depression.

Which of the side effects is he most likely to experience?

A

Immediate side effects

Drowsiness

Confusion

Headache

Nausea

Aching muscles

Loss of appetite

Long term side effects

Apathy

Anhedonia

Difficulty concentrating

Loss of emotional responses

Difficulty learning new information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A 45-year-old man who takes chlorpromazine for schizophrenia presents with severe restlessness.

What side-effect of antipsychotic medication is this an example of?

A

Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs)

  • Parkinsonism
  • acute dystonia - sustained muscle contraction (e.g. torticollis, oculogyric crisis), may be managed with procyclidine
  • akathisia (severe restlessness)
  • tardive dyskinesia (late onset of choreoathetoid movements, abnormal, involuntary, may occur in 40% of patients, may be irreversible, most common is chewing and pouting of jaw)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A 33-year-old male presents after his partner encouraged him to see the GP. He has had hyperarousal to loud noises and difficulty concentrating at work following a stay in the Intensive Care Unit 6 weeks ago. His partner did some reading online and feels he is suffering from an acute stress disorder.

You advise him that he has post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and discuss treatment options. He asks what the difference is, so that he can explain it to his partner. You advise there are similarities in the presentation and the main difference is temporal.

What is the earliest stage after the event that you could confirm this diagnosis?

A

Acute stress disorder is defined as an acute stress reaction that occurs in the 4 weeks after a traumatic event, as opposed to PTSD which is diagnosed after 4 weeks

A presentation of these symptoms at 2 weeks would suggest acute stress disorder.

Acute stress disorder and PTSD have similar features. In PTSD this includes:

Re-experiencing: flashbacks, nightmares, repetitive and distressing intrusive images

Avoidance: avoiding people, situations or circumstances resembling or associated with the event

Hyperarousal: hypervigilance for threat, exaggerated startle response, sleep problems, irritability and difficulty concentrating

Emotional numbing - lack of ability to experience feelings, feeling detached

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Following the 2011 NICE guidelines on the management of panic disorder, what is the most appropriate first-line drug treatment?

A

Drug treatment

NICE suggest sertraline should be considered the first-line SSRI

if sertraline is ineffective, offer an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) - examples of SNRIs include duloxetine and venlafaxine

If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, consider offering pregabalin interestingly for patients under the age of 30 years NICE recommend you warn patients of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm.

Weekly follow-up is recommended for the first month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which are the first-rank symptoms of schizophrenia?

(4)

A

Delusional perceptions

Passivity phenomena

Thought disorder

Auditory hallucinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A 48-year-old woman is reviewed in the clinic.

She was recently seen by the psychiatrist and it was recommended that her lithium dose was increased for better symptom control.

Her renal function is stable and so you prescribe the increased dose of lithium that is recommended.

When would it be most appropriate to re-check her levels?

A

After a change in dose, lithium levels should be taken a week later and weekly until the levels are stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A 25-year-old male presents to his GP after being asked by his friends to come.

During the appointment, he reveals that that he believes that everyone is able to hear his thoughts, like he is a radio station and that he can hear voices commenting on his behaviour.

On observation, he has a blunted affect, alogia and avolition.

The GP also notices that the patient repeats the last word of any question that he is asked.

What is this phenomena called?

A

Echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech including the questions being asked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A 46-year-old man with schizophrenia is brought to the surgery by one of his carers.

His current medication includes clozapine and procyclidine.

His carer reports that he is more tired than usual and generally unwell.

She also thinks he may have put on weight.

What is the most important test to perform?

A

Agranulocytosis/neutropenia is a life-threatening side effect of clozapine - monitor FBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Apart from the unshakeable belief that the famous actor is in love with her, the mental status examination is normal.

What is the correct description of this disorder?

A

Erotomania (De Clerambault’s syndrome) is the presence of a delusion that a famous is in love with them, with the absence of other psychotic symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which condition describes delusional parasitosis and describes the delusion of infestation.

A

Ekbom syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which condition describes a delusion of sexual infidelity on the part of a sexual partner?

A

Othello syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which condition describes a delusion of identifying a familiar person in various people they encounter.

A

De Frégoli syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which syndrome describes a delusion that a person closely related to the patient has been replaced by an impostor?

A

Capgras syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A 44-year-old man attends his GP surgery. He explains that his long term partner died last month. When he woke up this morning he thought he was lying next to her. He claims he heard her voice saying his name. Although he realizes this is not possible it has caused him significant distress. He is worried that he may be ‘going mad.’ He has no other psychiatric history of note.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Pseudohallucinations are more common after bereavement and do not imply psychosis

There is no mention of pseudohallucinations in either the ICD10 nor the DSM-5. However, there is a generally accepted definition that a pseudohallucination is a false sensory perception in the absence of external stimuli when the affected is aware that they are hallucinating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A 49-year-old male presents to your surgery complaining of feeling depressed because he is convinced that his wife is being unfaithful. They have just celebrated their 25th wedding anniversary and throughout the marriage they have always been dedicated to one another and he is his wife’s sole carer, as she is bedbound.

Considering the history, you wonder how likely it is that his claims are true.

What is the medical name for delusional jealousy?

A

Othello syndrome - delusional jealously, usually believing their partner is unfaithful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A 53-year-old gentleman with a long-term diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia has a relapse in symptoms after not taking his medications regularly, resulting in an admission under section 2 of the Mental Health Act following a formal assessment of his mental state.

His long-term medication was Risperidone orally once daily which had stabilised his mental state for numerous years in the community.

Given his non-compliance, what would be the best suitable treatment option for this patient?

A

once a month IM depot anti-psychotic injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A 62-year-old man is admitted to the psychiatric ward after his wife raised concerns about his behaviour.

When you speak to the patient you note that his speech is rapid and you are unable to interrupt him to ask questions.

He frequently changes the topic of conversation, but you can identify links between the different topics.

What psychiatric condition is this symptom most commonly associated with?

A

Flight of ideas is a feature of mania - bipolar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A 14-year-old girl with Tourette’s syndrome is brought to the GP by her mother as she is worried about some odd behaviours she has noticed.

During the consultation, you find that she has been very worried about her exam results.

She has felt the urge to clean all the door handles in the house 3 times each morning as otherwise, she finds herself worrying more about these exams.

Which of the following features would point towards a diagnosis of psychosis over obsessive-compulsive disorder?

A

Obsessive-compulsive disorder can be differentiated from psychosis by the level of insight into their actions

She truly believes that if she does not perform these acts that she will definitely fail her exams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A 23-year-old man has a known psychiatric disorder. His condition causes him to have persecutory delusions and poor organisation of thoughts. He is easily distracted and struggles to maintain good eye contact during conversations.

What factor is associated with poor prognosis in this condition?

A

low iq

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A 23-year-old male has been on antipsychotics for the past few months. He has been suffering from a side-effect of this drug, that you grade as severe, which causes repetitive involuntary movements including grimacing and sticking out the tongue. This side-effect is known to arise only in individuals who have been on antipsychotic for a while.

Which medication is therefore most suitable to treat this side-effect?

A

This patient is suffering from tardive dyskinesia. The episode has been described as severe and so the most appropriate treatment is tetrabenazine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A 55-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with palpitations, dizziness, and lightheadedness.

The team performs an ECG, that shows torsades de pointes.

Which SSRI is most likely to have caused the cardiac abnormality?

A

Citalopram is the most likely SSRI to lead to QT prolongation and Torsades de pointes

29
Q

A 16-year-old female visits her GP with her mother. Her mother is concerned about her daughter’s recent behaviour. She describes her daughter repetitively checking the light-switches in her house, often taking as long as several hours to get ready to leave for school as a result. She tells you this habit has been going on for several months.

What is the most appropriate initial management for this condition?

A

OCD: Defined as obsessions or compulsions, or both, persisting for greater than 2 weeks

The most appropriate initial management would be a form of low-intensity psychological therapy.

NICE guidelines recommend exposure and response prevention as a beneficial therapy for patients with OCD.

30
Q

You a reviewing a 24-year-old man who complains of auditory hallucinations. These have become increasingly common and are now happening on a daily basis.

Which one of the factors in his history is the strongest risk factor for psychotic disorders?

A

Family history is the strongest risk factor for psychotic disorders

Risk of developing schizophrenia

  • monozygotic twin has schizophrenia = 50%
  • parent has schizophrenia = 10-15%
  • sibling has schizophrenia = 10%
  • no relatives with schizophrenia = 1%
31
Q

Risk factors for psychotic disorders

(4)

A

Selected risk factors for psychotic disorders include:

Black Caribbean ethnicity - RR 5.4

Migration - RR 2.9

Urban environment- RR 2.4

Cannabis use - RR 1.4

Family history

32
Q

A 47-year-old man is brought in by ambulance to the emergency department. He was found agitated and wandering the street by a member of the public. Collateral history from his relative reveals that he has a past medical history of hepatic steatosis, hypertension and asthma. His regular medications include amlodipine and Symbicort. He drinks up to 1 litre of vodka daily and has smoked 20 cigarettes per day for 30 years. There is no history of recreational drug use. He has not been seen by his family for 2-3 days before these events.

Shortly after he is examined, he has a seizure lasting 30 seconds that is self-terminating.

A

Chlordiazepoxide or diazepam are used in the treatment of delirium tremens/alcohol withdrawal

33
Q

How is severe OCD treated?

A

For more severe OCD, or if unresponsive to CBT/exposure and response prevention then add an SSRI

34
Q

A 58-year-old man is referred to the community mental health team with a history of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). He describes obsessive thoughts that his family members have come to harm and says that he phones his wife and daughters 3-4 times an hour to check that they are safe. He has previously been referred for cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT) including exposure and response prevention (ERP) and, although he found this helpful, he still has troubling symptoms.

He has a past medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia, unstable angina and pre-diabetes.

What would be the most appropriate next step in the management of this man’s OCD?

A

For more severe OCD, or if unresponsive to CBT/exposure and response prevention then add an SSRI

35
Q

A 29-year-old fireman presents following a recent traumatic incident where a child died in a house fire. He describes recurrent nightmares and flashbacks which have been present for the past 3 months. A diagnosis of post-traumatic stress disorder is suspected.

What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

A

PTSD management - trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy or EMDR

36
Q

Poor prognostic factors for schizophrenia

A

Factors associated with poor prognosis

  • strong family history
  • gradual onset
  • low IQ
  • prodromal phase of social withdrawal
  • lack of obvious precipitant
37
Q

A 37-year-old man presents with a low mood. He has been feeling this way for several months and now doesn’t want to leave the house. He is avoiding socialising and says he is struggling to concentrate on things. He isn’t sleeping well. Before this, he felt that his mental health was ‘good’. Whilst talking to him you notice that his affect is normal, but his speech is circuitous and often digresses from the main point of the conversation although he does reach the final goal of the conversation. He seems slightly nervous and agitated. He denies having any hallucinations or using psychoactive drugs.

What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

A

Circumstantiality can be a sign of anxiety disorders or hypomania

Circumstantiality is described as circuitous and non-direct thinking or speech that digresses from the main point of a conversation. This may be because of excessive detail. It is distinguished from ‘flight of ideas’ by the fact that the final goal of the conversation will be reached.

38
Q

You have been asked to review a patient with chest pain awaiting assessment by the psychiatry team.

Examination and investigations are normal, however, you note that he is acting strangely.

He is reluctant to answer questions and does not maintain eye contact.

After developing trust with him, he discloses he has never been in a relationship and that he prefers to be on his own as he won’t embarrass himself.

He has no friends and doesn’t speak to his family because they criticise everything he does.

Which form of personality disorder is he likely suffering from?

A

An avoidant personality disorder is correct. It is associated with social isolation and avoidance of activities due to a fear of embarrassment, criticism, and fear of others.

39
Q

A 64-year-old male who has been on long term chlorpromazine presents with repetitive eye blinking. He reports he is unable to control this and is worried about what might be causing it. He is otherwise well in himself and has no visual disturbance. He has a normal facial and ocular examination with the exception of excessive rapid blinking.

What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

A

Tardive kinesia can present as chewing, jaw pouting or excessive blinking due to late onset abnormal involuntary choreoathetoid movements in patients on conventional antipsychotics

40
Q

A 32-year-old male patient who has a known psychiatric diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia was admitted under the Mental Health Act following a deterioration in his mental health. Clozapine was considered as the next most appropriate anti-psychotic to start him on and this was initiated as an inpatient. Once this patient’s mental state was stabilised he was transferred back to the rehabilitation unit. Whilst at the unit, he was found to have missed his Clozapine doses for 2 consecutive days. What is the best course of action to address these missed doses of Clozapine?

A

Re-titrate the Clozapine doses again slowly

If clozapine doses are missed for more than 48 hours the dose will need to be restarted again slowly

41
Q

A 35-year-old man with no known psychiatric history is admitted to the psychiatry ward, after presenting to the emergency department with delusions and homicidal ideations.

Following a negative drugs screen, antipsychotic treatment is initiated with haloperidol.

The patient is reviewed 3-hours after the initiation of treatment and is noted to have a sustained upward deviation of both eyes. When asked, he reports that his eyes are extremely painful.

Based on the likely diagnosis, what initial management is most appropriate?

A

Acute dystonia secondary to antipsychotics is usually managed with procyclidine

42
Q

A 68-year-old gentleman is brought into hospital by his husband who says he has reported seeing flashing images of foxes and badgers in their living room. This is something that is extremely distressing to the patient, and has made him reluctant to venture into some areas of the house. You wonder if this might be Charles-Bonnet syndrome.

Which risk factor may pre-dispose this gentleman to Charles-Bonnet syndrome?

A

Risk factors include:

  • Advanced age
  • Peripheral visual impairment
  • Social isolation
  • Sensory deprivation
  • Early cognitive impairment
43
Q

What are the physiological abnormalities associated with anorexia (7)

A

Anorexia features

  • hypokalaemia
  • low FSH, LH, oestrogens and testosterone
  • raised cortisol and growth hormone
  • impaired glucose tolerance
  • hypercholesterolaemia
  • hypercarotinaemia
  • low T3
44
Q

What are the symptoms of anorexia (4)

A

Features

  • reduced body mass index
  • bradycardia
  • hypotension
  • enlarged salivary glands
45
Q

A 54-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance, after being found confused by members of the public for the fifth time in the past month. Upon review, he tells you that he came here by bicycle after spending the afternoon with his friends doing shopping, and then later tells you he spent today in the pub with his new dog. He smells strongly of alcohol and you notice a near-empty bottle of unlabelled spirit with him.

On examination, he has an ataxic gait, dysdiadochokinesia and horizontal nystagmus.

When you go back later to see him, he has forgotten your previous interaction.

Which syndrome explains his signs and symptoms?

A

Korsakoff’s syndrome is a complication of Wernicke’s encephalopathy. It’s features include: anterograde amnesia, retrograde amnesia, and confabulation

46
Q

A 21-year-old woman is re-reviewed by her GP for generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). At her last review, she was given information about GAD and referred for individual guided self-help. Unfortunately, despite these treatments, she still reports feeling worried ‘about most things’ for most of the day.

She struggles to relax and her family has noticed that she is more irritable.

The patient is keen to try further treatment, however this time she would rather try a medication.

What medication would be most appropriate to prescribe for this patient?

A

Sertraline is the first-line drug for generalised anxiety disorder

47
Q

A 48-year-old woman presents with a three-day history of dizziness and electric shock sensations affecting her arms and legs. She has a history of chronic pain, depression, and schizophrenia. You ask about medications and drug use but she is cagey in her response.

What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

A

Dizziness, electric shock sensations and anxiety are symptoms of SSRI discontinuation syndrome

48
Q

An elderly patient in a nursing home is started on quetiapine due to persistent aggressive behaviour that has not responded to non-pharmacological approaches.

Which adverse effect do antipsychotics increase the risk of in elderly patients?

A

Antipsychotics in the elderly - increased risk of stroke and VTE

49
Q

A 35-year-old man with schizophrenia has been on clozapine for five years and has been well controlled and stable for that time.

However, at his most recent check-up, the clozapine levels were found to be above the recommended range and his dose is therefore reduced.

Which factor is most likely to cause a rise in clozapine blood levels?

A

Smoking cessation can cause a rise in clozapine blood levels

50
Q

A 49-year-old man is started on haloperidol, a first-generation antipsychotic, for an acute psychotic episode.

He was previously taking olanzapine, a second-generation antipsychotic, but stopped this due to adverse effects.

What adverse effect is he more likely to experience taking this new medication compared to olanzapine?

A

Acute dystonic reactions are more common with first-generation (or typical) antipsychotics such as haloperidol. Acute dystonic reactions include torticollis, opisthotonus, dysarthria and oculogyric crises.

51
Q

Acute dystonic reactions (4)

A

Acute dystonic reactions include torticollis, opisthotonus, dysarthria and oculogyric crises

Associated with first-generation (or typical) antipsychotics such as haloperidol

52
Q

A 29-year-old man with a history of treatment-resistant schizophrenia comes into the emergency department complaining of a general malaise over the last few days with accompanying chest pain. He looks uncomfortable and sweaty on the bed.

Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused these symptoms?

A

Whilst olanzipine very effective medication, there are a number of serious side effects including, but not limited to, the following:

  • weight gain
  • excessive salivation
  • agranulocytosis
  • neutropenia
  • myocarditis
  • arrhythmias
53
Q

A 21-year-old female presents to surgery as she is 10 weeks pregnant and upset that her midwife has advised she discontinue her sertraline. She says she continued it throughout her previous two pregnancies and now has two healthy children. She demands to know what the risks of are.

What is there an increased risk of in the first trimester with sertraline?

A

SSRI use in first trimester - small increased chance of congenital heart defects

54
Q

A 25-year-old man presents to his GP demanding a CT scan of his abdomen. He states it is ‘obvious’ he has cancer despite previous negative investigations. This is an example of a:

A

Hypochondrial disorder

55
Q

A 31-year-old man with general anxiety disorder (GAD) sees his GP for a medication review. He had been started on sertraline for his symptoms at the last appointment. He now explains that he does not feel that the medication has helped with his condition, as he still struggles with both the physical and psychological manifestations of anxiety most days. He does not report any recent worsening of his symptoms, however.

Which medication should be tried next?

A

If a first line SSRI such as sertraline is ineffective or not tolerated, try another SSRI or an SNRI for GAD

Citalopram

56
Q

You are a fourth-year medical student undertaking a placement in an acute psychiatric ward and are asked to take a history from Peter, a patient with a background of schizophrenia.

You begin by asking Peter how long he has been admitted on the ward for? He replies by talking in length about his admission to the hospital and how he was brought here by the police. He then begins to talk about how he does not like the police and then onto many other things he does not like at home. However, Peter states that nonetheless he still misses home as he has been admitted for 3 weeks now.

What form of thought disorder has Peter demonstrated here?

A

Circumstantiality is the inability to answer a question without giving excessive, unnecessary detail

57
Q

Which thought disorder describes a patient who says things like

  • “Here she comes with a cat catch a rat match.”*
  • “There’s a mile-long dial trial a while, child.”*
A

Clang associations describe speech in which topics are related to each other only by sounding similar.

58
Q

Which thought disorder pattern describes a patient who wanders from a topic, not returning to it?

A

tangentiality

59
Q

A 27-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia. Her family are worried about the prognosis of the illness.

Which of the following is associated with the worst prognosis for long term schizophrenia that is poorly controlled?

A

Gradual onset schizophrenia is a poor prognostic indicator

60
Q

A 25-year-old man has symptoms of low mood, low energy and feelings of guilt and worthlessness. He tried fluoxetine a few months ago, which he felt did not help. You decide together to try venlafaxine as a second-line option.

What should be monitored at initiation and dose titration of this medication?

A

Blood pressure

Venlafaxine and other serotonin noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) are associated with the development of hypertension. NICE recommend that all patients have their blood pressure monitored at initiation and each dose titration of venlafaxine. If the patient is hypertensive a dose reduction should be considered. Therefore, blood pressure is the correct answer.

Although some anti-psychotic medications and antidepressants are associated with weight gain, for example, mirtazapine, there is no association between venlafaxine and weight gain. Therefore, body mass index is an incorrect answer.

No antidepressant medications require a chest x-ray prior to initiation. A chest x-ray is recommended prior to the initiation of some immunosuppressant medications to prevent the reactivation of latent tuberculosis infection.

Venlafaxine is not associated with coagulopathy, therefore a clotting screen is not required.

Many medications used to treat mental health disorders can cause long QT and requiring monitoring with ECGs at initiation or dose increase. However, venlafaxine is not associated with long QT and therefore does not require ECG monitoring.

The antipsychotic clozapine is associated with agranulocytosis and requires regular monitoring of a patient’s full blood count. However, this adverse effect is not associated with venlafaxine and full blood count monitoring is not required.

The Royal College of Psychiatrists recommends monitoring HbA1C prior to initiation of some antipsychotic medications as these drugs may be associated with worsening of pre-existing diabetes or the development of diabetes in at-risk patients. This adverse effect is not associated with venlafaxine, therefore HbA1C is an incorrect answer.

Venlafaxine is not specifically associated with hepatotoxicity, so liver function tests is a wrong answer.

Venlafaxine is not known to induce or worsen pre-existing respiratory diseases such as asthma, therefore peak flow monitoring is not required.

The BNF recommends monitoring sodium levels (through taking urea and electrolytes samples) from patients at risk of developing hyponatraemia when commenced on some serotonin specific reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressants. Venlafaxine is an SNRI and is not specifically associated with the development of hyponatraemia.

61
Q

You review a 47-year-old man with a history of moderate to severe depression. He has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes and also pericarditis following a viral illness. He has a family history of hypertension. He has previously tried fluoxetine without a significant improvement in his mood. His wife finds her citalopram prescription very helpful for her generalised anxiety disorder. He now wishes to try citalopram himself.

What should be monitored prior to starting citalopram in this patient?

A

ECG

The BNF states that ‘QT prolongation, and/or ventricular arrhythmias including torsade de pointes have been reported in people taking citalopram or escitalopram.’ The BNF advises taking an ECG and measuring the QT interval in patients with a history of cardiac disease prior to starting citalopram. Given this man’s history of pericarditis, ECG is the correct answer.

Serotonin noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) antidepressants such as venlafaxine are associated with the development of hypertension and require blood pressure monitoring prior to initiation and at each dose titration. However, citalopram is a serotonin specific reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) and is not itself associated with the development of hypertension. Therefore blood pressure is an incorrect answer.

Although some anti-psychotic medications and antidepressants are associated with weight gain, citalopram is not associated with weight gain or loss. Therefore measuring body mass index is an incorrect answer.

No antidepressant medications require a chest x-ray prior to initiation. A chest x-ray is recommended prior to the initiation of some immunosuppressant medications to prevent the reactivation of latent tuberculosis infection.

Citalopram is not associated with coagulopathy, therefore a clotting screen is not required.

The antipsychotic clozapine is associated with agranulocytosis and requires regular monitoring of a patient’s full blood count. However, citalopram and other SSRI medications are not associated with this adverse effect and so full blood count monitoring is an incorrect answer.

The Royal College of Psychiatrists recommends monitoring HbA1C prior to initiation of some antipsychotic medications as these drugs may be associated with worsening of pre-existing diabetes or the development of diabetes in at-risk patients. This adverse effect is not associated with citalopram, therefore HbA1C is an incorrect answer.

Citalopram is not specifically associated with hepatotoxicity, so liver function tests is an incorrect answer.

Citalopram is not known to induce or worsen pre-existing respiratory diseases such as asthma, therefore peak flow monitoring is not required.

The BNF recommends monitoring sodium as part of ‘urea and electrolytes’ in patients ‘at high risk’ of developing hyponatraemia prior to initiating SSRI’s or if a patient develops signs or symptoms of hyponatraemia. There are no features which put this patient at particular risk of developing hyponatraemia or which suggest symptomatic hyponatraemia in the vignette. Therefore, urea and electrolytes is not the best answer to this question.

62
Q

A 75-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with new onset confusion. She has a past medical history of depression, for which she takes sertraline, and oesophagitis for which she takes omeprazole.

She also has a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes. Her dose of sertraline was last increased two weeks ago. Her physical observations are within normal parameters.

What would you perform first to identify the cause of this patient’s confusion?

A

Urea and electrolytes

The BNF advises when starting a serotonin specific reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) to ‘observe all people taking antidepressants for signs of hyponatraemia. For people at high risk, measure the serum sodium level before starting treatment, 2–4 weeks after starting treatment and every 3 months thereafter.’

This patient presents with new-onset confusion, which is one potential sign of hyponatraemia. This patient is also more at risk of developing hyponatraemia as they take omeprazole, which can also cause iatrogenic hyponatraemia, and they have recently had a dose increase of their antidepressant. Therefore, monitoring urea and electrolytes to check the sodium level is the correct answer.

Serotonin noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) antidepressants such as venlafaxine are associated with the development of hypertension and require blood pressure monitoring prior to initiation and at each dose titration. However, sertraline is a SSRI and is not itself associated with the development of hypertension. Therefore blood pressure is an incorrect answer.

Although some anti-psychotic medications and antidepressants are associated with weight gain, sertraline is not associated with weight gain or loss. Therefore measuring body mass index is an incorrect answer.

No antidepressant medications require a chest x-ray prior to initiation. A chest x-ray is recommended prior to the initiation of some immunosuppressant medications to prevent the reactivation of latent tuberculosis infection.

Sertraline is not associated with coagulopathy, therefore a clotting screen is not required.

Many medications used to treat mental health disorders can cause long QT and requiring monitoring with ECGs at initiation or dose increase. However, sertraline is not associated with long QT and therefore does not require ECG monitoring.

The antipsychotic clozapine is associated with agranulocytosis and requires regular monitoring of a patient’s full blood count. However, sertraline and other SSRI medications are not associated with this adverse effect and so full blood count monitoring is an incorrect answer.

The Royal College of Psychiatrists recommends monitoring HbA1C prior to initiation of some antipsychotic medications as these drugs may be associated with worsening of pre-existing diabetes or the development of diabetes in at-risk patients. This adverse effect is not associated with sertraline, therefore HbA1C is an incorrect answer.

Sertraline is not specifically associated with hepatotoxicity, so liver function tests is an incorrect answer.

Sertraline is not known to induce or worsen pre-existing respiratory diseases such as asthma, therefore peak flow monitoring is not required.

63
Q

Which benign condition can be caused by lithium?

A

benign leucocytosis

64
Q

Formation of which hair supports a diagnosis of anorexia

A

Physical findings characteristic of lanugo hair (fine downy hair growth in response to the loss of body fat) may support the diagnosis of anorexia nervosa.

65
Q

Physical manifestations of anorexia

(4)

A

failure of secondary sexual characteristics

bradycardia

cold-intolerance

yellow tinge on the skin (hypercarotenaemia)

66
Q

A 54-year-old man with no past medical history is being started on tranylcypromine (a monoamine oxidase inhibitor) for depression.

Which of the following foods should he be advised to avoid?

What would the consequences be?

A

When tyramine containing foods (e.g. cheese) are taken alongside monoamine oxidase inhibitors a hypertensive crisis can occur

67
Q

Rachel is a 45-year-old who has routine bloods for a health check. Blood tests show hyponatraemia

She takes the following medications: sertraline, carbimazole, amlodipine, metformin, aspirin. Which of her medications is likely to be the cause of her hyponatraemia?

A

SSRIs are associated with hyponatraemia

68
Q

A 23-year-old woman presents to her GP with troubling symptoms. Eight weeks ago, she was involved in a severe road traffic accident. Although physically well after the accident, she reports experiencing flashbacks since then, being overly vigilant when crossing the road, and generally having difficulty focusing at work.

Which of the following features would best support the likely diagnosis?

A

Common features of PTSD

  • re-experiencing e.g. flashbacks, nightmares
  • avoidance e.g. avoiding people or situations
  • hyperarousal e.g.hypervigilance, sleep problems