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* DIT each session > Day 8.1 Oncology > Flashcards

Day 8.1 Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

Hallmarks of cancerous cells

A 
Evade apop
self-sufficient growth signals
insensitive to anti-growth signals
sustained angiogenesis
limitless replication
tsu invasion
metastasis
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2
Q

hyperplasia

A

increased # of cells

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3
Q

dysplasia

A

abn prolif of cells w loss of size/shape/orientation

commonly pre-neoplastic

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4
Q

anaplasia

A

abn cells lacking differentiation. don’t resemble original cell at all, bc have de-differentiated and lost characteristics
when cells are anaplastic, it is hard to identify where they came from.

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5
Q

in-situ carcinoma

A

pre-invasive
neoplastic cells have not invaded BM
have a high nuclear:cytoplasmic ration and clumped chromatin
neoplastic cells encompass entire thickness of the area
tumor cells are mono-clonal

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6
Q

Invasive carcinoma

A

cells have invaded BM using collagenases and hydrolases

if they reach a lymph vessel or blood vessel, they can metastasize

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7
Q

Metastasis

A

spread to distant organ via blood (mesenchymal) or lymph (epithelial)
must survive immune attack
seed/soil theory- must deposit, adhere, develop own blood supply
angiogenesis allows for tumor survival
decreased cadherin,
increased laminin,
increased integrin receptors

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8
Q

metaplasia

A

one adult cell type is replaced by another cell type
often secondary to irritation/env exposure
eg smokers get squamous cell metaplasia in trachea, bronchi

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9
Q

neoplasia

A

clonal proliferation of cells that is uncontrolled and excessive

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10
Q

desmoplasia

A

fibrous tsu formation in response to neoplasm

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11
Q

do cancers become less differentiated or more differentiated as they grow?

A

LESS differentiated.

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12
Q

hamartoma

A

mass of mature tsu that is endogenous to the site where it’s found.
like hyperplasia.

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13
Q

features of anaplastic cells

A

high nucleus to cytoplasm ratio
prominent nucleoli
nuclear chromatin clumping
many mitotic figures

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14
Q

tumor grade

A

degree of cellular differentiation dep on histological appearance
grade is 1-4 based on how much differentiation and number of mitoses.
grade 4 is the least differentiated (worst)
grade = character of tumor itself
(stage = spread)

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15
Q

tumor stage

A 
stage = spread
degree of localization/spread based on site/size of primary lesion, spread to regional lymph nodes, presence of metastases
TNM:
T= size of Tumor
N= Node involvment
M= Metastases
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16
Q

Which is more prognostic, tumor grade or stage?

A

Stage

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17
Q

How do epithelial tumors spread? Mesenchymal tumors?

A

Mesenchymal (loose CT) tumors spread thru blood

Epithelial tumors spread thru lymph

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18
Q

Classify: osteoma

A

benign bone tumor

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19
Q

classify: angiosarcoma

A

malignant blood vessel tumor

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20
Q

classify: rhabdomyoma

A

benign skel musc tumor

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21
Q

classify: papillary carcinoma

A

malignant epithelial cell tumor

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22
Q

classify: leiomyosarcoma

A

malignant smooth musc tumor

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23
Q

classify: leukemia

A

malignant blood cell tumor

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24
Q

classify: lipoma

A

benign fat tumor

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25
Q

classify: osteosarcoma

A

malignant bone tumor

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26
Q

classify: hemangioma

A

benign blood vessel tumor

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27
Q

classify: adenoma

A

benign epithelial cell tumor

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28
Q

classify: leiomyoma

A

benign smooth musc cell tumor

uterine fibroids

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29
Q

classify: papilloma

A

benign epithelial cell tumor

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30
Q

classify: adenocarcinoma

A

malignant epithelial cell tumor

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31
Q

classify: lymphoma

A

malignant blood cell tumor

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32
Q

classify: lipsarcoma

A

malignant fat cell tumor

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33
Q

classify: multiple myeloma

A

malignant blood cell (b cell) tumor

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34
Q

classify: rhabdomyoma

A

benign skel musc tumor

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35
Q

Tumors w >1 cell type

A

benign: mature teratoma (women) aka dermoid tumor
malignant: mature teratoma (men) or immature teratoma

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36
Q

What is the difference between carcinoma and sarcoma?

A

Carcinoma = epithelial origin
Sarcoma = mesenchymal origin
BUT both are malignant.

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37
Q

T/F most mesenchymal tumors do NOT go from benign to malignant tumors

A

True

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38
Q

Benign v Malignant tumor differences

A

Benign = well differentiated (mature, resemble tsu they come from), slow well-organized growth, well demarcated- no BM invasion, and no metastasis

Malignant - poorly differentiated (aka anaplastic), erratic growth, local invasion, diffuse, may mestastasize

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39
Q

Stain for connective tsu

A

vimentin

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40
Q

Stain for neuroglia

A

GFAP

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41
Q

Stain for epithelial cells

A

cytokeratin

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42
Q

Stain for muscle

A

desmin

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43
Q

stain for neurons

A

Neurofilaments (that’s the name of the stain)

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44
Q

Stain for carcinoma (and some sarcomas)

A

Cytokeratin (stains epithel cells)

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45
Q

Stain for Rhabdomyosarcoma

A

Desmin (Stains muscle)

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46
Q

Stain for Sarcomas (and some carcinomas)

A

Vimentin (stains conenective tsu)

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47
Q

Stain for leiomyosarcoma

A

Desmin (stains muscle)

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48
Q

Stain for adrenal neuroblastoma

A

Neurofilaments

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49
Q

Stain for primitive neuroectodermal tumor

A

Neurofilaments (Stains neurons)

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50
Q

Neoplasm in Down syndrome

A

ALL (we ALL fall DOWN)

AML

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51
Q

Neoplasm in xeroderma pigmentosum (thymidine dimer repair defect) and albinism

A

melanoma
basal cell carcinoma
sq cell carcinoma of the skin (esp this one)

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52
Q

Neoplasem in chronic atrophic gastritis, pernicious anemia, or post-surgical gastric remnants

A

Gastric adenocarcinoma

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53
Q

neoplasm in Tuberous sclerosis (facial angiofibroma, seizures, MR, ash leaf spots)

A

astrocytoma (10% of pts)
angiomyolipoma
cardiac rhabdomyoma (2/3 of pts!!)

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54
Q

Neoplasm in actinic keratosis (sandpaper lesions on sun-exposed skin)

A

sq cell carcinoma of the skin

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55
Q

neoplasm in barrett’s esophagous (chronic GI reflux)

A

esophageal adenocarcinoma

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56
Q

Neoplasm in plummer-vinson syndrome (atrophic glossitis/smooth tongue, esophg webs (causing aphagia), anemia- all d/t iron def)

A

sq cell carcinoma of the esophg

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57
Q

Neoplasm assoc w cirrhosis (alcoholic, hep B or hep C)

A

hepatocellular carcinoma (screen all pts w aFP)

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58
Q

neoplasm in ulcerative colitis (and crohns, but less so)

A

colonic adenocarcinoma

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59
Q

neoplasm in paget’s dz of bone

A

secondary osteosarcoma and fibrosarcoma

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60
Q

neoplasm in immunodeficiency states

A

malignant lymphomas

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61
Q

neoplasm in AIDS pts

A

aggressive malignant lymphomas (non-hodgkin’s)

kaposi’s sarcoma

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62
Q

neoplasm in autoimmune dz (eg hashimoto’s thyroiditis, myasthenia gravis)

A

Lymphoma

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63
Q

Neoplasm in acanthosis nigricans (hyperpigmentation and epidermal thickening)

A

visceral malignancy (stomach, lung, breast, uterus)

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64
Q

neoplasm in dysplastic nevus

A

malignant melanoma

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65
Q

neoplasm in radiation exposure

A

sarcoma, papillary thyroid cancer

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66
Q

Neoplasm in ataxia-telangiectasia (DNA repair defect)

A

Lymphomas

Acute leukemias

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67
Q

Neoplasm in Sjogren’s syndrome (dry mouth, dry eyes)

A

B cell lymphoma

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68
Q

Rx for actinic keratosis (sandpaper lesions on skin)

A

5-fluoruracil cream (turns the spots beefy red)

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69
Q

What does acanthosis nigricans usu indicate?

A

Diabetes

But, if it’s NEW ac nig in pt >40yo, 50% of the time it will be d/t visceral cancer.

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70
Q

neoplasm in achalasia (narrowing of LES)

A

sq cell carcinoma of the esphg

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71
Q

What are oncogenes?

A

Genes that, when mutated, cause a GAIN of function, and therefore cause cancer.
Only need damage to ONE allele since it gains fn by mutation.

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72
Q

List the oncogenes

A 
abl
c-myc
bcl-2
erb-B2
ras (K-ras, N-ras, H-ras)
L-myc
N-myc
ret
c-kit
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73
Q

Oncogene abl a/w which tumor?

A

CML

gene product is a non-receptor tyrosine kinase

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74
Q

Oncogene c-myc a/w which tumor?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

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75
Q

Oncogene bcl-2 a/w which tumor?

A

follicular and undifferentiated lymphomas (inhibits apoptosis)

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76
Q

Oncogene erb-B2 a/w which tumors?

A

breast, ovarian, and gastric carcinoma

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77
Q

Oncogene L-myc a/w which tumor?

A

Lung tumors- esp small cell lung cancer

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78
Q

Oncogene N-myc a/w which tumor

A

Neuroblastoma (adrenal!)

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79
Q

What histology is seen in adrenal neuroblastoma?

A

Homer-Wright rosettes

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80
Q

Oncogene c-kit is a/w which tumor?

A

GIST: gastrointestinal stromal tumor

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81
Q

Oncogene ret is assoc w which tumors?

A

MEN 2A and 2B
medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
papillary carcinoma of the thyroid

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82
Q

Oncogene Ras is a/w which tumors?

A

Follicular thyroid carcinoma
H-ras: bladder and kidney tumors
K-ras: Kolon, lung, panKreatic tumors
N-ras: melanomas, hematologic malignancies

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83
Q

What is a tumor supressor gene?

A

Usually suppresses tumors, mutation means LOSS of function. Have to lose BOTH alleles before there is dz, since if you lose one, the other is still working to suppress.

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84
Q

List the TSGs

A 
Rb
BRCA1, BRCA2
p53
p16
APC
WT1
NF1, NF2
DPC, DCC
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85
Q

TSG Rb a/w which tumor?

A

Retinoblastoma

and (!) osteosarcoma

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86
Q

TSGs BRCA1 and BRCA2 a/w which tumors?

A

BRCA1- breast and ovarian cancer

BRCA2- breast cancer

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87
Q

TSG p53 is a/w which tumors?

A

Most human cancers

Li-Fraumeni syndrome

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88
Q

TSG p16 is a/w which tumor?

A

Melanoma

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89
Q

TSG APC is a/w which tumor?

A 
Colorectal cancer (a/w FAP)
Gardner's syndrome
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90
Q

TSG WT1 a/w which tumor?

A

Wilms’ tumor

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91
Q

TSGs NF1 and NF2 a/w which tumor

A

Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (von Recklinghausen)

Neurofibromatosis Type 2 (bilateral acoustic schwanomas)

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92
Q

TSGs DPC and DCC a.w which tumors?

A 
DPC = Deleted in Pancreatic Cancer
DCC = Deleted in Colon Cancer
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93
Q

T/F the best way to dx is by tumor marker

A

False. Do not dx. Only confirm, monitor for tumor recurrence, monitor response to therapy.

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94
Q

PSA

A

Prostate-specific Ag
Used to screen for prostate carcinoma
But, is elevated in any prostate pathology- BPH, prostatitis, etc.

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95
Q

Prostatic acid phosphatase

A

Tumor marker for prostate carcinoma

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96
Q

CEA

A

Carcinoembryonic Ag
Tumor marker- v non-specific, but made by 70% of colorectal and pancreatic cancers. Also made by gastric and breast carcinoma

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97
Q

alpha-Feto Protein

A

Normally made by fetus
Used as a tumor marker for hepatocellular carcinomas (screen HBV and HCV pts for aFP)
Also marker for non-seminomatous germ cell tumors of the testis (eg yolk sac tumor, aka endodermal sinus tumor)

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98
Q

B-hCG

A

Normal in pregnancy

Tumor marker for hydatidiform moles and choriocarcinomas (and molar pregnancy is a precursor to choriocarcinoma)

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99
Q

CA-125

A

Tumor marker for ovarian and malignant epithelial tumors.

Any peritoneal irritation will cause increased CA-125, so not good for screening for ovarian, but ovarian might have it.

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100
Q

S-100

A

Tumor marker for:
melanoma
neural tumors
astrocytoma (in tuberous sclerosis)

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101
Q

Alk Phos

A

alkaline phosphatase

Tumor marker for metastases to bone, obstructive biliary dz, or paget’s dz or bone

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102
Q

Bombesin

A

Tumor marker for neuroblastoma (adrenal), lung, and gastric cancer

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103
Q

TRAP

A

Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase.
Tumor marker for hairy cell leukemia (B cell neoplasm)
TRAP the HAIRY animal.

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104
Q

CA-19-9

A

Tumor marker for pancreatic adenocarcinoma

105
Q

HTLV-1 is assoc w which cancer?

A

Human Tcell Leukemia/Lymphoma-1

106
Q

HBV and HCV are a/w which cancer?

A 
Hepatocellular carcinoma (see increased aFP)
HCV is also assoc w papillary thyroid carcinoma
107
Q

EBV is a/w which cancer?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Oral hairy leukoplakia

108
Q

HPV is a/w which cancer?

A 
Cervical carcinoma (16, 18)
Penile/anal carcinoma
Vulvar epithelial carcinoma, vulvar cancer
109
Q

HHV-8 is a/w which cancer?

A

Body cavity fluid B-cell lymphoma

Kaposi’s sarcoma

110
Q

Aspergilis aflatoxin a/w which cancer?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

111
Q

Vinyl chloride exposure is a.w which cancer?

A

Angiosarcoma in the liver (blood vessels of liver)

112
Q

CCl4 is a/w neoplasm in what organ?

A

Liver- centrolobular necrosis, fatty chg)

113
Q

Nitrosamines from smoked foods cause neoplasms in what organs?

A

Esophg, Stomach

114
Q

Cigarette smoke is a carcinogen to which organs?

A

Larynx (sq cell carcinoma)
Lung (sq cell and sml cell carcinoma)
Kidney (renal cell carcinoma)
Bladder (transitional cell carcinoma)

115
Q

Asbestos causes which cancer?

A

Lung cancer:
Brochogenic carcinoma
Mesothelioma

116
Q

Arsenic causes which cancer?

A

Skin- sq cell carcinoma

Liver- angiosarcoma (blood vessels of liver)

117
Q

Naphthalene (aniline) dyes a/w which cancer?

A

Bladder- transitional cell carcinoma

Napthalene is found in moth balls too.

118
Q

Alkylating agents (cancer drugs) can cause which cancer?

A

Blood cancers- leukemia

119
Q

Radon (coal mines, basements) causes which cancer?

A

Lung cancer

120
Q

What cancer does Schistosoma cause?

A

sq cell carcinoma of the bladder (transitional epithelium)

121
Q

What cancer is a/w H. pylori?

A

Gastric adenocarcinoma and lymphoma

122
Q

What cancer is a/w HIV?

A

Primary CNS lymphoma

note: Kaposi’s is in AIDS pts, but it’s caused by HHV-8

123
Q

What cancers cause increased ADH, leading to SIADH?

A 
small cell lung carcinoma and intracranial neoplasms (or any CNS disorder)
Causes hyponatremia (bc holding in too much water, so diluted), and decreased serum osmolarity
124
Q

What cancers cause increased ACTH or ACTH-like peptide?

A

small cell lung carcinoma

The increased ACTH causes increased cortisol and Cushing’s syndrome.

125
Q

What cancers cause increased PTH-rp (related protein), which leads to hypercalcemia, and also increases TGF-B, TNF, and IL-1

A

small cell lung carcinoma, renal cell carcinoma, breast carcinoma, and multiple myeloma

126
Q

What are the neoplasms that increase EPO, leading to polycythemia?

A

Renal cell carcinoma, hemangioblastoma, hepatacellular carcinoma, and pheochromocytoma

127
Q

Which cancers cause Ab against presynaptic channels at the NMJ?

A

Thymomas and small cell lung carcinomas.
The Ab cause Lambert-Easton syndrome (muscle weakness that gets better with use)- it’s difficult to generate muscle contractions bc you can’t rls NT (Ca2+)

128
Q

What cancers cause hyperuricemia d/t excess nucleic acid turnover (i.e. cytotoxic therapy)?

A

Leukemias and Lymphoma.

The hyperuricemia leads to gout and urate nephropathy.

129
Q

When are psamomma bodies seen?

A 
PSaMMoma:
Papillary adenocarcinoma of the thyroid
Serous cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary
Meningioma
Malignant Mesotheioma

Psammoma bodies are laminated, concentric, calcific spherules. Looks like tree trunk rings.

130
Q

When is ESR increased?

A 
Infection
Inflammation (e.g temporal arteritis)
Cancer
Pregnancy
SLE

good for ruling out osteomyelitis

131
Q

When is ESR decreased?

A

Sickle cell (altered shape)
Polycythemia (too many)
CHF

132
Q

What is ESR?

A

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
Products of inflam (like fibrinogen) coat RBCs and cause aggregation. When they are aggregated, they settle faster in a test tube.

133
Q

What primary cancers cause metastasis to the brain?

A 
Lots of Bad Stuff Kills Gila:
Lung
Breast
Skin (melanoma)
Kidney (renal cell carcinoma)
GI
50% of brain tumors come from metastases.
There are usu multiple well-circumscribed tumors at the gray-white border.
134
Q

What primary cancers cause metastases to the liver

A 
Cancer Sometimes Penetrates Benign Liver:
Colon
Stomach
Pancreas
Breast
Lung

Liver and lung are the most common sites of metastases (after lymph nodes). Liver cancer is much more likely to be from metastasis than from a primary tumor.

135
Q

What primary cancers cause metastasis to the bone?

A 
Peanut Butter, Tater Tots- Kids Love:
Prostate
Breast
Testes
Thyroid
Kidney
Lung
Lung = lytic
Prostate = blastic (bone building)
Breast = both lytic and blastic

More common for a bone cancer to be from metastases than from primary bone cancer.

136
Q

Male cancer incidence: Top 3 cancers

Male cancer mortality: Top 4 cancers

A

Incidence:

  1. prostate
  2. lung
  3. colon/rectum

Mortality

  1. lung
  2. prostate
  3. colon/rectal
  4. pancreatic
137
Q

Female cancer incidence: Top 5

Female cancer mortality: Top 3

A

Incidence:

  1. Breast
  2. Lung
  3. Colon/rectal
  4. Uterine
  5. Ovary

Mortality:

  1. Lung
  2. Breast
  3. Colorectal

Deaths from lung cancer have plateaued in males but continue to rise in females.

138
Q

Leading causes of death in US (overall)- top 4

A
  1. heart dz
  2. cancer
  3. stroke
  4. COPD
139
Q

Retinoblastoma: inherited vs sporadic

A

In order for Retinoblastoma to occur, there must be mutations in both Rb alleles.
Inherited Retinoblastoma = one mutation comes from parent, other is sporadic
Sporadic Retinoblastoma = both mutations are sporadic.

140
Q

Px of Retinoblastoma

A

Most are unilateral and d/t sporadic mutations

See white reflex in pics (instead of red like normal)

141
Q

Anti-cancer drug that forms a complex b/t topoisomerase II and DNA

A

Etoposide (VP-16)

eTOPoside for TOPoisomerase

142
Q

Anticancer drug that alkylates DNA and can cause pulmonary fibrosis

A

Busulfan

143
Q

Anticancer drug that fragments DNA and can cause pulmonary fibrosis

A

Bleomycin

144
Q

Anti cancer drug that blocks purine synthesis and is metabolized by xanthine oxidase

A

6-MP

aka 6-MercaptoPurine

145
Q

Anti cancer drug that cross-links DNA and is both nephrotoxic and ototoxic

A

Cisplatin, Carboplatin

146
Q

Anticancer drug and folic acid analog that inhibits DHF reductase (dihydrofolate reductase)

A

MTX (methotrexate)

147
Q

Anticancer drug that prevents tubulin dis-assembly

A

Paclitaxel, other taxols
(they hyperstabilize the polymerized microtubules in the M phase so that the mitotic spindle can’t break down (so anaphase can’t occur and mitosis is interrupted).
It is TAXing to stay polymerized.

148
Q

Anticancer drug that inhibits thymidylate synthase, causing decreased nucleotide synthesis

A

5-FU
aka 5-fluorouracil
decreases production of dTMP, so decreased DNA and decreased protein synth.

149
Q

Anti cancer drug that is a SERM- blocks estrogen binding to estrogen receptor + cells

A

Tamoxifen, raloxifene

Tamoxifen can incrs risk of endometrial cancer.

150
Q

Anticancer drug w similar mechanism to that of antivirals acyclovir and foscarnet

A

Cytarabine.
Cytarabine is a pyrimidine antagonist which inhibits DNA polymerase.
Acyclovir and Foscarnet are similar bc they inhibit (viral) DNA polymerase.

151
Q

Anticancer drug w mechanism similar to fluroquinolones

A

Etoposide.
eTOPoside inhibits TOPoisomerase II, which leads to increased DNA degredation.
Fluroquinolone (abx) also inhibit topoisomerase II and are used for gram-neg rods of urinary and GI tracts, neisseria, and some gram+
note: topoisomerase II = DNA gyrase (same thing)

152
Q

Anticancer drug w mechanism similar to trimethoprim (TMP)

A

MTX (methotrexate)

Both MTX and TMP block DHF reductase, decreasing dTMP and therefore decreasing DNA and protein synthesis

153
Q

Anticancer drug that is a monoclonal Ab against HER-2 (erb-B2)

A

Trastuzumab (Herceptin)

154
Q

Anti cancer drug that causes free radical formation, which induces DNA strand breakage

A

Doxorubicin and Daunorubicin

Bleomycin

155
Q

Anti cancer drug that inhibits PRPP synthetase

A

6-MP

aka 6-MercaptoPurine

156
Q

Anticancer drug that is reversible w leucovorin

A

MTX (methotrexate)

157
Q

Anticancer drug that is used to treat choriocarcinoma (placenta cancer)

A

MTX (methotrexate)

Vincristine, Vinblastine

158
Q

Anti cancer drug used to treat AML

A

Cytarabine (ara-C)

159
Q

Anti cancer drug used to treat CML

A

Busulfan
Hydroxurea
Imatinib

160
Q

Anticancer drug that can prevent breast cancer

A

Tamoxifen, Raloxifene

in pts w BRCA mutation

161
Q

Anticancer drug that treats testicular cancer

A

Eradicate Ball Cancer
Etoposide
Bleomycin
Cisplatin

162
Q

Anticancer drug that can be applied topically for Actinic Keratosis and basal cell carcinoma

A

5-FU (flurouracil)

inhibits thyidylate synthase

163
Q

Anticancer drug used to treat childhood tumors- Wilm’s, Ewing’s sarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma

A

Dactinomycin

kids ACT out

164
Q

Anticancer drug that inhibits ribonucleotide reductase

A

Hydroxyurea

165
Q

Anticancer drug w the side effect of hemorrhagic cystitis

A

cyclophosphamide

ifosfamide

166
Q

Anticancer drug w Ab against the Philadelphia chromosome

A

Imatinib

167
Q

Side effects of prednisone?

A 
A Cush HIP HOP Cat:
Acne
Cushing-like symptoms
HTN
Immunosuppression
Peptic ulcers
Hyperglycemia
Osteoporosis
Psychosis
Cataracts
168
Q

What is the SERM used for breast cancer? for osteoporosis?

A

BC - tamoxifen (sometimes toremifene)

Osteoporosis- raloxifene

169
Q

What drugs inhibit DHF reductase?

A

MTX and TMP

170
Q

What drugs cause pulmonary fibrosis as a side effect?

A

Bleomycin (anti-cancer)
Busulfan (anti-cancer)
Amiodarone (anti-arrhythmic)

171
Q

What is cyclophosphamide used to treat?

A

Non-hodgkin’s lymphoma
Breast and ovarian carcinomas
+
Used for immunosuppression- wegener’s granulomatosis, polyarteritis nodosa

172
Q

5 kinds of drugs that interfere w microtubules

A

Vincristine, vinblastine (anticancer, stop MT formation)
Taxols, Paclitaxel (anti-cancer: hyperstblz MT so it can’t break down)
Anti-helminthic (bendazoles)
Griseofulvin (anti-fungal)
Colchicine (for gout)

173
Q

Drugs that are both nephrotoxic and ototoxic

A

Cisplatin (anti-cancer)
Vancomycin (abx)
Aminoglycosides (abx)
Loop diuretics

174
Q

Anti-cancer drugs that are cardiotoxic

A

Traztuzumab
Doxorubicin
Daunorubicin

175
Q

Anti cancer drug that is a nitrogen mustard, alkylates DNA (electophil that binds DNA)

A

Cyclophosphamide

175
Q

Anti cancer drug that is a nitrogen mustard, alkylates DNA (electophil that binds DNA)

A

Cyclophosphamide

176
Q

Anticancer drug that intercalates DNA, produces O2 free radicals, and is cardiotoxic

A

Doxorubicin, Daunorubicin

176
Q

Anticancer drug that intercalates DNA, produces O2 free radicals, and is cardiotoxic

A

Doxorubicin, Daunorubicin

177
Q

Anticancer drug that is a DNA alkylating agent used in brain cancer

A 
Nitrosureas (the -mustines)
Brain stuff:
-cross BBB
-treat brain tumors
-cause CNS toxicity (dizziness, ataxia)
177
Q

Anticancer drug that is a DNA alkylating agent used in brain cancer

A 
Nitrosureas (the -mustines)
Brain stuff:
-cross BBB
-treat brain tumors
-cause CNS toxicity (dizziness, ataxia)
178
Q

Anticancer drug that prevents tubulin assembly

A

Vincristine, vinblastine

178
Q

Anticancer drug that prevents tubulin assembly

A

Vincristine, vinblastine

179
Q

Somatosensory info from body –> medial lemniscus and spinothalamic tract –> which thalamic nucleus?

A

VPL

179
Q

Somatosensory info from body –> medial lemniscus and spinothalamic tract –> which thalamic nucleus?

A

VPL

180
Q

Communications w the prefrontal cortex go thru which thalamic nucleus?

A

Mediodorsal nucleus

180
Q

Communications w the prefrontal cortex go thru which thalamic nucleus?

A

Mediodorsal nucleus

181
Q

List all of the thalamic nuclei

A 
Anterior nuclear group
Mediodorsal nucleus
VA and VL (motor)
VPL and VPM (sensory- body and face)
LGN, MGN
Pulvinar
181
Q

List all of the thalamic nuclei

A 
Anterior nuclear group
Mediodorsal nucleus
VA and VL (motor)
VPL and VPM (sensory- body and face)
LGN, MGN
Pulvinar
182
Q

What is the blood supply to the thalamus?

A 
Posterior communicating (PComm)
Posterior cerebral (PCA)
Internal carotid (the anterior choroidal arteries come off of the ICA and supply it)
182
Q

What is the blood supply to the thalamus?

A 
Posterior communicating (PComm)
Posterior cerebral (PCA)
Internal carotid (the anterior choroidal arteries come off of the ICA and supply it)
183
Q

The cerebellum (dentate nucleus) and basal ganglia send info to the motor cortex through which thalamic nucleus?

A

VL ventral lateral

183
Q

The cerebellum (dentate nucleus) and basal ganglia send info to the motor cortex through which thalamic nucleus?

A

VL ventral lateral

184
Q

The trigeminothalamic and taste pathways pass thru which thalamic nucleus to get to the somatosensory cortex?

A

VPM

184
Q

The trigeminothalamic and taste pathways pass thru which thalamic nucleus to get to the somatosensory cortex?

A

VPM

185
Q

The Retina sends info to the occipital lobe thru which thalamic cortex?

A

LGN

L for Light- retina

185
Q

The Retina sends info to the occipital lobe thru which thalamic cortex?

A

LGN

L for Light- retina

186
Q

The basal ganglia send info to the prefronal, premotor, and orbital cortices thru which thalamic nuclei?

A

VA ventral anterior

186
Q

The basal ganglia send info to the prefronal, premotor, and orbital cortices thru which thalamic nuclei?

A

VA ventral anterior

187
Q

The mamillothalamic tract sends info thru which thalamic tract to the cingulate cyrus (part of the papez circuit)?

A

Anterior nuclear group

187
Q

The mamillothalamic tract sends info thru which thalamic tract to the cingulate cyrus (part of the papez circuit)?

A

Anterior nuclear group

188
Q

Which thalamic nucleus integrates visual, auditory, and somesthetic input?

A

Pulvinar

188
Q

Which thalamic nucleus integrates visual, auditory, and somesthetic input?

A

Pulvinar

189
Q

Memory loss is cause by destruction of which thalamic nucleus?

A

Mediodorsal nucleus

189
Q

Memory loss is cause by destruction of which thalamic nucleus?

A

Mediodorsal nucleus

190
Q

Auditory info comes from the brachium of the inferior colliculus and goes to the primary auditory cortex after passing thru which thalamic nuclei?

A

MGN

M = music (hearing)

190
Q

Auditory info comes from the brachium of the inferior colliculus and goes to the primary auditory cortex after passing thru which thalamic nuclei?

A

MGN

M = music (hearing)

191
Q

The basal ganglia send info thru which thalamic nuclei?

A

the VA (ventral anterior) and VL (ventral lateral). both carry motor info.
From VA goes to the prefrontal, premotor, and orbital corticies.
From VL goes to the motor cortex.

191
Q

The basal ganglia send info thru which thalamic nuclei?

A

the VA (ventral anterior) and VL (ventral lateral). both carry motor info.
From VA goes to the prefrontal, premotor, and orbital corticies.
From VL goes to the motor cortex.

192
Q

VPL (thalamus)

A

the spinothalamic (P/T) and dorsal columns medial lemniscus (prs/vib/touch/prop) carry sensory info from the body to the VPL, which relays it to the primary somatosensory cortex.

192
Q

VPL (thalamus)

A

the spinothalamic (P/T) and dorsal columns medial lemniscus (prs/vib/touch/prop) carry sensory info from the body to the VPL, which relays it to the primary somatosensory cortex.

193
Q

VPM (thalamus)

A

The trigeminal nerve (facial sensation) and the gustatory pathway (taste) carry info to the VPM, which gives it to the primary somatosensory cortex.

193
Q

VPM (thalamus)

A

The trigeminal nerve (facial sensation) and the gustatory pathway (taste) carry info to the VPM, which gives it to the primary somatosensory cortex.

194
Q

LGN (thalamus)

A 
CN II (optic nerve) carries vision info to the LGN, which sends it to the calcarine sulcus
L - light (vision)
194
Q

LGN (thalamus)

A 
CN II (optic nerve) carries vision info to the LGN, which sends it to the calcarine sulcus
L - light (vision)
195
Q

MGN (thalamus)

A

The superior olive and the inferior colliculus carry auditory info to the MGN, which send it to the auditory cortex of the temporal lobe
M- music (hearing)

195
Q

MGN (thalamus)

A

The superior olive and the inferior colliculus carry auditory info to the MGN, which send it to the auditory cortex of the temporal lobe
M- music (hearing)

196
Q

Anti cancer drug that is a nitrogen mustard, alkylates DNA (electophil that binds DNA)

A

Cyclophosphamide

196
Q

Anti cancer drug that is a nitrogen mustard, alkylates DNA (electophil that binds DNA)

A

Cyclophosphamide

197
Q

Anticancer drug that intercalates DNA, produces O2 free radicals, and is cardiotoxic

A

Doxorubicin, Daunorubicin

197
Q

Anticancer drug that intercalates DNA, produces O2 free radicals, and is cardiotoxic

A

Doxorubicin, Daunorubicin

198
Q

Anticancer drug that is a DNA alkylating agent used in brain cancer

A 
Nitrosureas (the -mustines)
Brain stuff:
-cross BBB
-treat brain tumors
-cause CNS toxicity (dizziness, ataxia)
198
Q

Anticancer drug that is a DNA alkylating agent used in brain cancer

A 
Nitrosureas (the -mustines)
Brain stuff:
-cross BBB
-treat brain tumors
-cause CNS toxicity (dizziness, ataxia)
199
Q

Anticancer drug that prevents tubulin assembly

A

Vincristine, vinblastine

199
Q

Anticancer drug that prevents tubulin assembly

A

Vincristine, vinblastine

200
Q

Somatosensory info from body –> medial lemniscus and spinothalamic tract –> which thalamic nucleus?

A

VPL

200
Q

Somatosensory info from body –> medial lemniscus and spinothalamic tract –> which thalamic nucleus?

A

VPL

201
Q

Communications w the prefrontal cortex go thru which thalamic nucleus?

A

Mediodorsal nucleus

201
Q

Communications w the prefrontal cortex go thru which thalamic nucleus?

A

Mediodorsal nucleus

202
Q

List all of the thalamic nuclei

A 
Anterior nuclear group
Mediodorsal nucleus
VA and VL (motor)
VPL and VPM (sensory- body and face)
LGN, MGN
Pulvinar
202
Q

List all of the thalamic nuclei

A 
Anterior nuclear group
Mediodorsal nucleus
VA and VL (motor)
VPL and VPM (sensory- body and face)
LGN, MGN
Pulvinar
203
Q

What is the blood supply to the thalamus?

A 
Posterior communicating (PComm)
Posterior cerebral (PCA)
Internal carotid (the anterior choroidal arteries come off of the ICA and supply it)
203
Q

What is the blood supply to the thalamus?

A 
Posterior communicating (PComm)
Posterior cerebral (PCA)
Internal carotid (the anterior choroidal arteries come off of the ICA and supply it)
204
Q

The cerebellum (dentate nucleus) and basal ganglia send info to the motor cortex through which thalamic nucleus?

A

VL ventral lateral

204
Q

The cerebellum (dentate nucleus) and basal ganglia send info to the motor cortex through which thalamic nucleus?

A

VL ventral lateral

205
Q

The trigeminothalamic and taste pathways pass thru which thalamic nucleus to get to the somatosensory cortex?

A

VPM

205
Q

The trigeminothalamic and taste pathways pass thru which thalamic nucleus to get to the somatosensory cortex?

A

VPM

206
Q

The Retina sends info to the occipital lobe thru which thalamic cortex?

A

LGN

L for Light- retina

206
Q

The Retina sends info to the occipital lobe thru which thalamic cortex?

A

LGN

L for Light- retina

207
Q

The basal ganglia send info to the prefronal, premotor, and orbital cortices thru which thalamic nuclei?

A

VA ventral anterior

207
Q

The basal ganglia send info to the prefronal, premotor, and orbital cortices thru which thalamic nuclei?

A

VA ventral anterior

208
Q

The mamillothalamic tract sends info thru which thalamic tract to the cingulate cyrus (part of the papez circuit)?

A

Anterior nuclear group

208
Q

The mamillothalamic tract sends info thru which thalamic tract to the cingulate cyrus (part of the papez circuit)?

A

Anterior nuclear group

209
Q

Which thalamic nucleus integrates visual, auditory, and somesthetic input?

A

Pulvinar

209
Q

Which thalamic nucleus integrates visual, auditory, and somesthetic input?

A

Pulvinar

210
Q

Memory loss is cause by destruction of which thalamic nucleus?

A

Mediodorsal nucleus

210
Q

Memory loss is cause by destruction of which thalamic nucleus?

A

Mediodorsal nucleus

211
Q

Auditory info comes from the brachium of the inferior colliculus and goes to the primary auditory cortex after passing thru which thalamic nuclei?

A

MGN

M = music (hearing)

211
Q

Auditory info comes from the brachium of the inferior colliculus and goes to the primary auditory cortex after passing thru which thalamic nuclei?

A

MGN

M = music (hearing)

212
Q

The basal ganglia send info thru which thalamic nuclei?

A

the VA (ventral anterior) and VL (ventral lateral). both carry motor info.
From VA goes to the prefrontal, premotor, and orbital corticies.
From VL goes to the motor cortex.

212
Q

The basal ganglia send info thru which thalamic nuclei?

A

the VA (ventral anterior) and VL (ventral lateral). both carry motor info.
From VA goes to the prefrontal, premotor, and orbital corticies.
From VL goes to the motor cortex.

213
Q

VPL (thalamus)

A

the spinothalamic (P/T) and dorsal columns medial lemniscus (prs/vib/touch/prop) carry sensory info from the body to the VPL, which relays it to the primary somatosensory cortex.

213
Q

VPL (thalamus)

A

the spinothalamic (P/T) and dorsal columns medial lemniscus (prs/vib/touch/prop) carry sensory info from the body to the VPL, which relays it to the primary somatosensory cortex.

214
Q

VPM (thalamus)

A

The trigeminal nerve (facial sensation) and the gustatory pathway (taste) carry info to the VPM, which gives it to the primary somatosensory cortex.

214
Q

VPM (thalamus)

A

The trigeminal nerve (facial sensation) and the gustatory pathway (taste) carry info to the VPM, which gives it to the primary somatosensory cortex.

215
Q

LGN (thalamus)

A 
CN II (optic nerve) carries vision info to the LGN, which sends it to the calcarine sulcus
L - light (vision)
215
Q

LGN (thalamus)

A 
CN II (optic nerve) carries vision info to the LGN, which sends it to the calcarine sulcus
L - light (vision)
216
Q

MGN (thalamus)

A

The superior olive and the inferior colliculus carry auditory info to the MGN, which send it to the auditory cortex of the temporal lobe
M- music (hearing)

216
Q

MGN (thalamus)

A

The superior olive and the inferior colliculus carry auditory info to the MGN, which send it to the auditory cortex of the temporal lobe
M- music (hearing)

* DIT each session (34 decks)

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