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Day 8.1 Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

Hallmarks of cancerous cells

A 
Evade apop
self-sufficient growth signals
insensitive to anti-growth signals
sustained angiogenesis
limitless replication
tsu invasion
metastasis
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2
Q

hyperplasia

A

increased # of cells

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3
Q

dysplasia

A

abn prolif of cells w loss of size/shape/orientation

commonly pre-neoplastic

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4
Q

anaplasia

A

abn cells lacking differentiation. don’t resemble original cell at all, bc have de-differentiated and lost characteristics
when cells are anaplastic, it is hard to identify where they came from.

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5
Q

in-situ carcinoma

A

pre-invasive
neoplastic cells have not invaded BM
have a high nuclear:cytoplasmic ration and clumped chromatin
neoplastic cells encompass entire thickness of the area
tumor cells are mono-clonal

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6
Q

Invasive carcinoma

A

cells have invaded BM using collagenases and hydrolases

if they reach a lymph vessel or blood vessel, they can metastasize

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7
Q

Metastasis

A

spread to distant organ via blood (mesenchymal) or lymph (epithelial)
must survive immune attack
seed/soil theory- must deposit, adhere, develop own blood supply
angiogenesis allows for tumor survival
decreased cadherin,
increased laminin,
increased integrin receptors

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8
Q

metaplasia

A

one adult cell type is replaced by another cell type
often secondary to irritation/env exposure
eg smokers get squamous cell metaplasia in trachea, bronchi

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9
Q

neoplasia

A

clonal proliferation of cells that is uncontrolled and excessive

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10
Q

desmoplasia

A

fibrous tsu formation in response to neoplasm

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11
Q

do cancers become less differentiated or more differentiated as they grow?

A

LESS differentiated.

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12
Q

hamartoma

A

mass of mature tsu that is endogenous to the site where it’s found.
like hyperplasia.

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13
Q

features of anaplastic cells

A

high nucleus to cytoplasm ratio
prominent nucleoli
nuclear chromatin clumping
many mitotic figures

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14
Q

tumor grade

A

degree of cellular differentiation dep on histological appearance
grade is 1-4 based on how much differentiation and number of mitoses.
grade 4 is the least differentiated (worst)
grade = character of tumor itself
(stage = spread)

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15
Q

tumor stage

A 
stage = spread
degree of localization/spread based on site/size of primary lesion, spread to regional lymph nodes, presence of metastases
TNM:
T= size of Tumor
N= Node involvment
M= Metastases
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16
Q

Which is more prognostic, tumor grade or stage?

A

Stage

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17
Q

How do epithelial tumors spread? Mesenchymal tumors?

A

Mesenchymal (loose CT) tumors spread thru blood

Epithelial tumors spread thru lymph

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18
Q

Classify: osteoma

A

benign bone tumor

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19
Q

classify: angiosarcoma

A

malignant blood vessel tumor

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20
Q

classify: rhabdomyoma

A

benign skel musc tumor

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21
Q

classify: papillary carcinoma

A

malignant epithelial cell tumor

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22
Q

classify: leiomyosarcoma

A

malignant smooth musc tumor

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23
Q

classify: leukemia

A

malignant blood cell tumor

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24
Q

classify: lipoma

A

benign fat tumor

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25
classify: osteosarcoma
malignant bone tumor
26
classify: hemangioma
benign blood vessel tumor
27
classify: adenoma
benign epithelial cell tumor
28
classify: leiomyoma
benign smooth musc cell tumor | uterine fibroids
29
classify: papilloma
benign epithelial cell tumor
30
classify: adenocarcinoma
malignant epithelial cell tumor
31
classify: lymphoma
malignant blood cell tumor
32
classify: lipsarcoma
malignant fat cell tumor
33
classify: multiple myeloma
malignant blood cell (b cell) tumor
34
classify: rhabdomyoma
benign skel musc tumor
35
Tumors w >1 cell type
benign: mature teratoma (women) aka dermoid tumor malignant: mature teratoma (men) or immature teratoma
36
What is the difference between carcinoma and sarcoma?
Carcinoma = epithelial origin Sarcoma = mesenchymal origin BUT both are malignant.
37
T/F most mesenchymal tumors do NOT go from benign to malignant tumors
True
38
Benign v Malignant tumor differences
Benign = well differentiated (mature, resemble tsu they come from), slow well-organized growth, well demarcated- no BM invasion, and no metastasis Malignant - poorly differentiated (aka anaplastic), erratic growth, local invasion, diffuse, may mestastasize
39
Stain for connective tsu
vimentin
40
Stain for neuroglia
GFAP
41
Stain for epithelial cells
cytokeratin
42
Stain for muscle
desmin
43
stain for neurons
Neurofilaments (that's the name of the stain)
44
Stain for carcinoma (and some sarcomas)
Cytokeratin (stains epithel cells)
45
Stain for Rhabdomyosarcoma
Desmin (Stains muscle)
46
Stain for Sarcomas (and some carcinomas)
Vimentin (stains conenective tsu)
47
Stain for leiomyosarcoma
Desmin (stains muscle)
48
Stain for adrenal neuroblastoma
Neurofilaments
49
Stain for primitive neuroectodermal tumor
Neurofilaments (Stains neurons)
50
Neoplasm in Down syndrome
ALL (we ALL fall DOWN) | AML
51
Neoplasm in xeroderma pigmentosum (thymidine dimer repair defect) and albinism
melanoma basal cell carcinoma sq cell carcinoma of the skin (esp this one)
52
Neoplasem in chronic atrophic gastritis, pernicious anemia, or post-surgical gastric remnants
Gastric adenocarcinoma
53
neoplasm in Tuberous sclerosis (facial angiofibroma, seizures, MR, ash leaf spots)
astrocytoma (10% of pts) angiomyolipoma cardiac rhabdomyoma (2/3 of pts!!)
54
Neoplasm in actinic keratosis (sandpaper lesions on sun-exposed skin)
sq cell carcinoma of the skin
55
neoplasm in barrett's esophagous (chronic GI reflux)
esophageal adenocarcinoma
56
Neoplasm in plummer-vinson syndrome (atrophic glossitis/smooth tongue, esophg webs (causing aphagia), anemia- all d/t iron def)
sq cell carcinoma of the esophg
57
Neoplasm assoc w cirrhosis (alcoholic, hep B or hep C)
hepatocellular carcinoma (screen all pts w aFP)
58
neoplasm in ulcerative colitis (and crohns, but less so)
colonic adenocarcinoma
59
neoplasm in paget's dz of bone
secondary osteosarcoma and fibrosarcoma
60
neoplasm in immunodeficiency states
malignant lymphomas
61
neoplasm in AIDS pts
aggressive malignant lymphomas (non-hodgkin's) | kaposi's sarcoma
62
neoplasm in autoimmune dz (eg hashimoto's thyroiditis, myasthenia gravis)
Lymphoma
63
Neoplasm in acanthosis nigricans (hyperpigmentation and epidermal thickening)
visceral malignancy (stomach, lung, breast, uterus)
64
neoplasm in dysplastic nevus
malignant melanoma
65
neoplasm in radiation exposure
sarcoma, papillary thyroid cancer
66
Neoplasm in ataxia-telangiectasia (DNA repair defect)
Lymphomas | Acute leukemias
67
Neoplasm in Sjogren's syndrome (dry mouth, dry eyes)
B cell lymphoma
68
Rx for actinic keratosis (sandpaper lesions on skin)
5-fluoruracil cream (turns the spots beefy red)
69
What does acanthosis nigricans usu indicate?
Diabetes | But, if it's NEW ac nig in pt >40yo, 50% of the time it will be d/t visceral cancer.
70
neoplasm in achalasia (narrowing of LES)
sq cell carcinoma of the esphg
71
What are oncogenes?
Genes that, when mutated, cause a GAIN of function, and therefore cause cancer. Only need damage to ONE allele since it gains fn by mutation.
72
List the oncogenes
``` abl c-myc bcl-2 erb-B2 ras (K-ras, N-ras, H-ras) L-myc N-myc ret c-kit ```
73
Oncogene abl a/w which tumor?
CML | gene product is a non-receptor tyrosine kinase
74
Oncogene c-myc a/w which tumor?
Burkitt's lymphoma
75
Oncogene bcl-2 a/w which tumor?
follicular and undifferentiated lymphomas (inhibits apoptosis)
76
Oncogene erb-B2 a/w which tumors?
breast, ovarian, and gastric carcinoma
77
Oncogene L-myc a/w which tumor?
Lung tumors- esp small cell lung cancer
78
Oncogene N-myc a/w which tumor
Neuroblastoma (adrenal!)
79
What histology is seen in adrenal neuroblastoma?
Homer-Wright rosettes
80
Oncogene c-kit is a/w which tumor?
GIST: gastrointestinal stromal tumor
81
Oncogene ret is assoc w which tumors?
MEN 2A and 2B medullary carcinoma of the thyroid papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
82
Oncogene Ras is a/w which tumors?
Follicular thyroid carcinoma H-ras: bladder and kidney tumors K-ras: Kolon, lung, panKreatic tumors N-ras: melanomas, hematologic malignancies
83
What is a tumor supressor gene?
Usually suppresses tumors, mutation means LOSS of function. Have to lose BOTH alleles before there is dz, since if you lose one, the other is still working to suppress.
84
List the TSGs
``` Rb BRCA1, BRCA2 p53 p16 APC WT1 NF1, NF2 DPC, DCC ```
85
TSG Rb a/w which tumor?
Retinoblastoma | and (!) osteosarcoma
86
TSGs BRCA1 and BRCA2 a/w which tumors?
BRCA1- breast and ovarian cancer | BRCA2- breast cancer
87
TSG p53 is a/w which tumors?
Most human cancers | Li-Fraumeni syndrome
88
TSG p16 is a/w which tumor?
Melanoma
89
TSG APC is a/w which tumor?
``` Colorectal cancer (a/w FAP) Gardner's syndrome ```
90
TSG WT1 a/w which tumor?
Wilms' tumor
91
TSGs NF1 and NF2 a/w which tumor
Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (von Recklinghausen) | Neurofibromatosis Type 2 (bilateral acoustic schwanomas)
92
TSGs DPC and DCC a.w which tumors?
``` DPC = Deleted in Pancreatic Cancer DCC = Deleted in Colon Cancer ```
93
T/F the best way to dx is by tumor marker
False. Do not dx. Only confirm, monitor for tumor recurrence, monitor response to therapy.
94
PSA
Prostate-specific Ag Used to screen for prostate carcinoma But, is elevated in any prostate pathology- BPH, prostatitis, etc.
95
Prostatic acid phosphatase
Tumor marker for prostate carcinoma
96
CEA
Carcinoembryonic Ag Tumor marker- v non-specific, but made by 70% of colorectal and pancreatic cancers. Also made by gastric and breast carcinoma
97
alpha-Feto Protein
Normally made by fetus Used as a tumor marker for hepatocellular carcinomas (screen HBV and HCV pts for aFP) Also marker for non-seminomatous germ cell tumors of the testis (eg yolk sac tumor, aka endodermal sinus tumor)
98
B-hCG
Normal in pregnancy | Tumor marker for hydatidiform moles and choriocarcinomas (and molar pregnancy is a precursor to choriocarcinoma)
99
CA-125
Tumor marker for ovarian and malignant epithelial tumors. | Any peritoneal irritation will cause increased CA-125, so not good for screening for ovarian, but ovarian might have it.
100
S-100
Tumor marker for: melanoma neural tumors astrocytoma (in tuberous sclerosis)
101
Alk Phos
alkaline phosphatase | Tumor marker for metastases to bone, obstructive biliary dz, or paget's dz or bone
102
Bombesin
Tumor marker for neuroblastoma (adrenal), lung, and gastric cancer
103
TRAP
Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase. Tumor marker for hairy cell leukemia (B cell neoplasm) TRAP the HAIRY animal.
104
CA-19-9
Tumor marker for pancreatic adenocarcinoma
105
HTLV-1 is assoc w which cancer?
Human Tcell Leukemia/Lymphoma-1
106
HBV and HCV are a/w which cancer?
``` Hepatocellular carcinoma (see increased aFP) HCV is also assoc w papillary thyroid carcinoma ```
107
EBV is a/w which cancer?
Burkitt's lymphoma Nasopharyngeal carcinoma Hodgkin's lymphoma Oral hairy leukoplakia
108
HPV is a/w which cancer?
``` Cervical carcinoma (16, 18) Penile/anal carcinoma Vulvar epithelial carcinoma, vulvar cancer ```
109
HHV-8 is a/w which cancer?
Body cavity fluid B-cell lymphoma | Kaposi's sarcoma
110
Aspergilis aflatoxin a/w which cancer?
Hepatocellular carcinoma
111
Vinyl chloride exposure is a.w which cancer?
Angiosarcoma in the liver (blood vessels of liver)
112
CCl4 is a/w neoplasm in what organ?
Liver- centrolobular necrosis, fatty chg)
113
Nitrosamines from smoked foods cause neoplasms in what organs?
Esophg, Stomach
114
Cigarette smoke is a carcinogen to which organs?
Larynx (sq cell carcinoma) Lung (sq cell and sml cell carcinoma) Kidney (renal cell carcinoma) Bladder (transitional cell carcinoma)
115
Asbestos causes which cancer?
Lung cancer: Brochogenic carcinoma Mesothelioma
116
Arsenic causes which cancer?
Skin- sq cell carcinoma | Liver- angiosarcoma (blood vessels of liver)
117
Naphthalene (aniline) dyes a/w which cancer?
Bladder- transitional cell carcinoma | Napthalene is found in moth balls too.
118
Alkylating agents (cancer drugs) can cause which cancer?
Blood cancers- leukemia
119
Radon (coal mines, basements) causes which cancer?
Lung cancer
120
What cancer does Schistosoma cause?
sq cell carcinoma of the bladder (transitional epithelium)
121
What cancer is a/w H. pylori?
Gastric adenocarcinoma and lymphoma
122
What cancer is a/w HIV?
Primary CNS lymphoma | note: Kaposi's is in AIDS pts, but it's caused by HHV-8
123
What cancers cause increased ADH, leading to SIADH?
``` small cell lung carcinoma and intracranial neoplasms (or any CNS disorder) Causes hyponatremia (bc holding in too much water, so diluted), and decreased serum osmolarity ```
124
What cancers cause increased ACTH or ACTH-like peptide?
small cell lung carcinoma | The increased ACTH causes increased cortisol and Cushing's syndrome.
125
What cancers cause increased PTH-rp (related protein), which leads to hypercalcemia, and also increases TGF-B, TNF, and IL-1
small cell lung carcinoma, renal cell carcinoma, breast carcinoma, and multiple myeloma
126
What are the neoplasms that increase EPO, leading to polycythemia?
Renal cell carcinoma, hemangioblastoma, hepatacellular carcinoma, and pheochromocytoma
127
Which cancers cause Ab against presynaptic channels at the NMJ?
Thymomas and small cell lung carcinomas. The Ab cause Lambert-Easton syndrome (muscle weakness that gets better with use)- it's difficult to generate muscle contractions bc you can't rls NT (Ca2+)
128
What cancers cause hyperuricemia d/t excess nucleic acid turnover (i.e. cytotoxic therapy)?
Leukemias and Lymphoma. | The hyperuricemia leads to gout and urate nephropathy.
129
When are psamomma bodies seen?
``` PSaMMoma: Papillary adenocarcinoma of the thyroid Serous cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary Meningioma Malignant Mesotheioma ``` Psammoma bodies are laminated, concentric, calcific spherules. Looks like tree trunk rings.
130
When is ESR increased?
``` Infection Inflammation (e.g temporal arteritis) Cancer Pregnancy SLE ``` good for ruling out osteomyelitis
131
When is ESR decreased?
Sickle cell (altered shape) Polycythemia (too many) CHF
132
What is ESR?
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Products of inflam (like fibrinogen) coat RBCs and cause aggregation. When they are aggregated, they settle faster in a test tube.
133
What primary cancers cause metastasis to the brain?
``` Lots of Bad Stuff Kills Gila: Lung Breast Skin (melanoma) Kidney (renal cell carcinoma) GI 50% of brain tumors come from metastases. There are usu multiple well-circumscribed tumors at the gray-white border. ```
134
What primary cancers cause metastases to the liver
``` Cancer Sometimes Penetrates Benign Liver: Colon Stomach Pancreas Breast Lung ``` Liver and lung are the most common sites of metastases (after lymph nodes). Liver cancer is much more likely to be from metastasis than from a primary tumor.
135
What primary cancers cause metastasis to the bone?
``` Peanut Butter, Tater Tots- Kids Love: Prostate Breast Testes Thyroid Kidney Lung ``` ``` Lung = lytic Prostate = blastic (bone building) Breast = both lytic and blastic ``` More common for a bone cancer to be from metastases than from primary bone cancer.
136
Male cancer incidence: Top 3 cancers | Male cancer mortality: Top 4 cancers
Incidence: 1. prostate 2. lung 3. colon/rectum Mortality 1. lung 2. prostate 3. colon/rectal 4. pancreatic
137
Female cancer incidence: Top 5 | Female cancer mortality: Top 3
Incidence: 1. Breast 2. Lung 3. Colon/rectal 4. Uterine 5. Ovary Mortality: 1. Lung 2. Breast 3. Colorectal Deaths from lung cancer have plateaued in males but continue to rise in females.
138
Leading causes of death in US (overall)- top 4
1. heart dz 2. cancer 3. stroke 4. COPD
139
Retinoblastoma: inherited vs sporadic
In order for Retinoblastoma to occur, there must be mutations in both Rb alleles. Inherited Retinoblastoma = one mutation comes from parent, other is sporadic Sporadic Retinoblastoma = both mutations are sporadic.
140
Px of Retinoblastoma
Most are unilateral and d/t sporadic mutations | See white reflex in pics (instead of red like normal)
141
Anti-cancer drug that forms a complex b/t topoisomerase II and DNA
Etoposide (VP-16) | eTOPoside for TOPoisomerase
142
Anticancer drug that alkylates DNA and can cause pulmonary fibrosis
Busulfan
143
Anticancer drug that fragments DNA and can cause pulmonary fibrosis
Bleomycin
144
Anti cancer drug that blocks purine synthesis and is metabolized by xanthine oxidase
6-MP | aka 6-MercaptoPurine
145
Anti cancer drug that cross-links DNA and is both nephrotoxic and ototoxic
Cisplatin, Carboplatin
146
Anticancer drug and folic acid analog that inhibits DHF reductase (dihydrofolate reductase)
MTX (methotrexate)
147
Anticancer drug that prevents tubulin dis-assembly
Paclitaxel, other taxols (they hyperstabilize the polymerized microtubules in the M phase so that the mitotic spindle can't break down (so anaphase can't occur and mitosis is interrupted). It is TAXing to stay polymerized.
148
Anticancer drug that inhibits thymidylate synthase, causing decreased nucleotide synthesis
5-FU aka 5-fluorouracil decreases production of dTMP, so decreased DNA and decreased protein synth.
149
Anti cancer drug that is a SERM- blocks estrogen binding to estrogen receptor + cells
Tamoxifen, raloxifene | Tamoxifen can incrs risk of endometrial cancer.
150
Anticancer drug w similar mechanism to that of antivirals acyclovir and foscarnet
Cytarabine. Cytarabine is a pyrimidine antagonist which inhibits DNA polymerase. Acyclovir and Foscarnet are similar bc they inhibit (viral) DNA polymerase.
151
Anticancer drug w mechanism similar to fluroquinolones
Etoposide. eTOPoside inhibits TOPoisomerase II, which leads to increased DNA degredation. Fluroquinolone (abx) also inhibit topoisomerase II and are used for gram-neg rods of urinary and GI tracts, neisseria, and some gram+ note: topoisomerase II = DNA gyrase (same thing)
152
Anticancer drug w mechanism similar to trimethoprim (TMP)
MTX (methotrexate) Both MTX and TMP block DHF reductase, decreasing dTMP and therefore decreasing DNA and protein synthesis
153
Anticancer drug that is a monoclonal Ab against HER-2 (erb-B2)
Trastuzumab (Herceptin)
154
Anti cancer drug that causes free radical formation, which induces DNA strand breakage
Doxorubicin and Daunorubicin | Bleomycin
155
Anti cancer drug that inhibits PRPP synthetase
6-MP | aka 6-MercaptoPurine
156
Anticancer drug that is reversible w leucovorin
MTX (methotrexate)
157
Anticancer drug that is used to treat choriocarcinoma (placenta cancer)
MTX (methotrexate) | Vincristine, Vinblastine
158
Anti cancer drug used to treat AML
Cytarabine (ara-C)
159
Anti cancer drug used to treat CML
Busulfan Hydroxurea Imatinib
160
Anticancer drug that can prevent breast cancer
Tamoxifen, Raloxifene | in pts w BRCA mutation
161
Anticancer drug that treats testicular cancer
Eradicate Ball Cancer Etoposide Bleomycin Cisplatin
162
Anticancer drug that can be applied topically for Actinic Keratosis and basal cell carcinoma
5-FU (flurouracil) | inhibits thyidylate synthase
163
Anticancer drug used to treat childhood tumors- Wilm's, Ewing's sarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma
Dactinomycin | kids ACT out
164
Anticancer drug that inhibits ribonucleotide reductase
Hydroxyurea
165
Anticancer drug w the side effect of hemorrhagic cystitis
cyclophosphamide | ifosfamide
166
Anticancer drug w Ab against the Philadelphia chromosome
Imatinib
167
Side effects of prednisone?
``` A Cush HIP HOP Cat: Acne Cushing-like symptoms HTN Immunosuppression Peptic ulcers Hyperglycemia Osteoporosis Psychosis Cataracts ```
168
What is the SERM used for breast cancer? for osteoporosis?
BC - tamoxifen (sometimes toremifene) | Osteoporosis- raloxifene
169
What drugs inhibit DHF reductase?
MTX and TMP
170
What drugs cause pulmonary fibrosis as a side effect?
Bleomycin (anti-cancer) Busulfan (anti-cancer) Amiodarone (anti-arrhythmic)
171
What is cyclophosphamide used to treat?
Non-hodgkin's lymphoma Breast and ovarian carcinomas + Used for immunosuppression- wegener's granulomatosis, polyarteritis nodosa
172
5 kinds of drugs that interfere w microtubules
Vincristine, vinblastine (anticancer, stop MT formation) Taxols, Paclitaxel (anti-cancer: hyperstblz MT so it can't break down) Anti-helminthic (bendazoles) Griseofulvin (anti-fungal) Colchicine (for gout)
173
Drugs that are both nephrotoxic and ototoxic
Cisplatin (anti-cancer) Vancomycin (abx) Aminoglycosides (abx) Loop diuretics
174
Anti-cancer drugs that are cardiotoxic
Traztuzumab Doxorubicin Daunorubicin
175
Anti cancer drug that is a nitrogen mustard, alkylates DNA (electophil that binds DNA)
Cyclophosphamide
175
Anti cancer drug that is a nitrogen mustard, alkylates DNA (electophil that binds DNA)
Cyclophosphamide
176
Anticancer drug that intercalates DNA, produces O2 free radicals, and is cardiotoxic
Doxorubicin, Daunorubicin
176
Anticancer drug that intercalates DNA, produces O2 free radicals, and is cardiotoxic
Doxorubicin, Daunorubicin
177
Anticancer drug that is a DNA alkylating agent used in brain cancer
``` Nitrosureas (the -mustines) Brain stuff: -cross BBB -treat brain tumors -cause CNS toxicity (dizziness, ataxia) ```
177
Anticancer drug that is a DNA alkylating agent used in brain cancer
``` Nitrosureas (the -mustines) Brain stuff: -cross BBB -treat brain tumors -cause CNS toxicity (dizziness, ataxia) ```
178
Anticancer drug that prevents tubulin assembly
Vincristine, vinblastine
178
Anticancer drug that prevents tubulin assembly
Vincristine, vinblastine
179
Somatosensory info from body --> medial lemniscus and spinothalamic tract --> which thalamic nucleus?
VPL
179
Somatosensory info from body --> medial lemniscus and spinothalamic tract --> which thalamic nucleus?
VPL
180
Communications w the prefrontal cortex go thru which thalamic nucleus?
Mediodorsal nucleus
180
Communications w the prefrontal cortex go thru which thalamic nucleus?
Mediodorsal nucleus
181
List all of the thalamic nuclei
``` Anterior nuclear group Mediodorsal nucleus VA and VL (motor) VPL and VPM (sensory- body and face) LGN, MGN Pulvinar ```
181
List all of the thalamic nuclei
``` Anterior nuclear group Mediodorsal nucleus VA and VL (motor) VPL and VPM (sensory- body and face) LGN, MGN Pulvinar ```
182
What is the blood supply to the thalamus?
``` Posterior communicating (PComm) Posterior cerebral (PCA) Internal carotid (the anterior choroidal arteries come off of the ICA and supply it) ```
182
What is the blood supply to the thalamus?
``` Posterior communicating (PComm) Posterior cerebral (PCA) Internal carotid (the anterior choroidal arteries come off of the ICA and supply it) ```
183
The cerebellum (dentate nucleus) and basal ganglia send info to the motor cortex through which thalamic nucleus?
VL ventral lateral
183
The cerebellum (dentate nucleus) and basal ganglia send info to the motor cortex through which thalamic nucleus?
VL ventral lateral
184
The trigeminothalamic and taste pathways pass thru which thalamic nucleus to get to the somatosensory cortex?
VPM
184
The trigeminothalamic and taste pathways pass thru which thalamic nucleus to get to the somatosensory cortex?
VPM
185
The Retina sends info to the occipital lobe thru which thalamic cortex?
LGN | L for Light- retina
185
The Retina sends info to the occipital lobe thru which thalamic cortex?
LGN | L for Light- retina
186
The basal ganglia send info to the prefronal, premotor, and orbital cortices thru which thalamic nuclei?
VA ventral anterior
186
The basal ganglia send info to the prefronal, premotor, and orbital cortices thru which thalamic nuclei?
VA ventral anterior
187
The mamillothalamic tract sends info thru which thalamic tract to the cingulate cyrus (part of the papez circuit)?
Anterior nuclear group
187
The mamillothalamic tract sends info thru which thalamic tract to the cingulate cyrus (part of the papez circuit)?
Anterior nuclear group
188
Which thalamic nucleus integrates visual, auditory, and somesthetic input?
Pulvinar
188
Which thalamic nucleus integrates visual, auditory, and somesthetic input?
Pulvinar
189
Memory loss is cause by destruction of which thalamic nucleus?
Mediodorsal nucleus
189
Memory loss is cause by destruction of which thalamic nucleus?
Mediodorsal nucleus
190
Auditory info comes from the brachium of the inferior colliculus and goes to the primary auditory cortex after passing thru which thalamic nuclei?
MGN | M = music (hearing)
190
Auditory info comes from the brachium of the inferior colliculus and goes to the primary auditory cortex after passing thru which thalamic nuclei?
MGN | M = music (hearing)
191
The basal ganglia send info thru which thalamic nuclei?
the VA (ventral anterior) and VL (ventral lateral). both carry motor info. From VA goes to the prefrontal, premotor, and orbital corticies. From VL goes to the motor cortex.
191
The basal ganglia send info thru which thalamic nuclei?
the VA (ventral anterior) and VL (ventral lateral). both carry motor info. From VA goes to the prefrontal, premotor, and orbital corticies. From VL goes to the motor cortex.
192
VPL (thalamus)
the spinothalamic (P/T) and dorsal columns medial lemniscus (prs/vib/touch/prop) carry sensory info from the body to the VPL, which relays it to the primary somatosensory cortex.
192
VPL (thalamus)
the spinothalamic (P/T) and dorsal columns medial lemniscus (prs/vib/touch/prop) carry sensory info from the body to the VPL, which relays it to the primary somatosensory cortex.
193
VPM (thalamus)
The trigeminal nerve (facial sensation) and the gustatory pathway (taste) carry info to the VPM, which gives it to the primary somatosensory cortex.
193
VPM (thalamus)
The trigeminal nerve (facial sensation) and the gustatory pathway (taste) carry info to the VPM, which gives it to the primary somatosensory cortex.
194
LGN (thalamus)
``` CN II (optic nerve) carries vision info to the LGN, which sends it to the calcarine sulcus L - light (vision) ```
194
LGN (thalamus)
``` CN II (optic nerve) carries vision info to the LGN, which sends it to the calcarine sulcus L - light (vision) ```
195
MGN (thalamus)
The superior olive and the inferior colliculus carry auditory info to the MGN, which send it to the auditory cortex of the temporal lobe M- music (hearing)
195
MGN (thalamus)
The superior olive and the inferior colliculus carry auditory info to the MGN, which send it to the auditory cortex of the temporal lobe M- music (hearing)
196
Anti cancer drug that is a nitrogen mustard, alkylates DNA (electophil that binds DNA)
Cyclophosphamide
196
Anti cancer drug that is a nitrogen mustard, alkylates DNA (electophil that binds DNA)
Cyclophosphamide
197
Anticancer drug that intercalates DNA, produces O2 free radicals, and is cardiotoxic
Doxorubicin, Daunorubicin
197
Anticancer drug that intercalates DNA, produces O2 free radicals, and is cardiotoxic
Doxorubicin, Daunorubicin
198
Anticancer drug that is a DNA alkylating agent used in brain cancer
``` Nitrosureas (the -mustines) Brain stuff: -cross BBB -treat brain tumors -cause CNS toxicity (dizziness, ataxia) ```
198
Anticancer drug that is a DNA alkylating agent used in brain cancer
``` Nitrosureas (the -mustines) Brain stuff: -cross BBB -treat brain tumors -cause CNS toxicity (dizziness, ataxia) ```
199
Anticancer drug that prevents tubulin assembly
Vincristine, vinblastine
199
Anticancer drug that prevents tubulin assembly
Vincristine, vinblastine
200
Somatosensory info from body --> medial lemniscus and spinothalamic tract --> which thalamic nucleus?
VPL
200
Somatosensory info from body --> medial lemniscus and spinothalamic tract --> which thalamic nucleus?
VPL
201
Communications w the prefrontal cortex go thru which thalamic nucleus?
Mediodorsal nucleus
201
Communications w the prefrontal cortex go thru which thalamic nucleus?
Mediodorsal nucleus
202
List all of the thalamic nuclei
``` Anterior nuclear group Mediodorsal nucleus VA and VL (motor) VPL and VPM (sensory- body and face) LGN, MGN Pulvinar ```
202
List all of the thalamic nuclei
``` Anterior nuclear group Mediodorsal nucleus VA and VL (motor) VPL and VPM (sensory- body and face) LGN, MGN Pulvinar ```
203
What is the blood supply to the thalamus?
``` Posterior communicating (PComm) Posterior cerebral (PCA) Internal carotid (the anterior choroidal arteries come off of the ICA and supply it) ```
203
What is the blood supply to the thalamus?
``` Posterior communicating (PComm) Posterior cerebral (PCA) Internal carotid (the anterior choroidal arteries come off of the ICA and supply it) ```
204
The cerebellum (dentate nucleus) and basal ganglia send info to the motor cortex through which thalamic nucleus?
VL ventral lateral
204
The cerebellum (dentate nucleus) and basal ganglia send info to the motor cortex through which thalamic nucleus?
VL ventral lateral
205
The trigeminothalamic and taste pathways pass thru which thalamic nucleus to get to the somatosensory cortex?
VPM
205
The trigeminothalamic and taste pathways pass thru which thalamic nucleus to get to the somatosensory cortex?
VPM
206
The Retina sends info to the occipital lobe thru which thalamic cortex?
LGN | L for Light- retina
206
The Retina sends info to the occipital lobe thru which thalamic cortex?
LGN | L for Light- retina
207
The basal ganglia send info to the prefronal, premotor, and orbital cortices thru which thalamic nuclei?
VA ventral anterior
207
The basal ganglia send info to the prefronal, premotor, and orbital cortices thru which thalamic nuclei?
VA ventral anterior
208
The mamillothalamic tract sends info thru which thalamic tract to the cingulate cyrus (part of the papez circuit)?
Anterior nuclear group
208
The mamillothalamic tract sends info thru which thalamic tract to the cingulate cyrus (part of the papez circuit)?
Anterior nuclear group
209
Which thalamic nucleus integrates visual, auditory, and somesthetic input?
Pulvinar
209
Which thalamic nucleus integrates visual, auditory, and somesthetic input?
Pulvinar
210
Memory loss is cause by destruction of which thalamic nucleus?
Mediodorsal nucleus
210
Memory loss is cause by destruction of which thalamic nucleus?
Mediodorsal nucleus
211
Auditory info comes from the brachium of the inferior colliculus and goes to the primary auditory cortex after passing thru which thalamic nuclei?
MGN | M = music (hearing)
211
Auditory info comes from the brachium of the inferior colliculus and goes to the primary auditory cortex after passing thru which thalamic nuclei?
MGN | M = music (hearing)
212
The basal ganglia send info thru which thalamic nuclei?
the VA (ventral anterior) and VL (ventral lateral). both carry motor info. From VA goes to the prefrontal, premotor, and orbital corticies. From VL goes to the motor cortex.
212
The basal ganglia send info thru which thalamic nuclei?
the VA (ventral anterior) and VL (ventral lateral). both carry motor info. From VA goes to the prefrontal, premotor, and orbital corticies. From VL goes to the motor cortex.
213
VPL (thalamus)
the spinothalamic (P/T) and dorsal columns medial lemniscus (prs/vib/touch/prop) carry sensory info from the body to the VPL, which relays it to the primary somatosensory cortex.
213
VPL (thalamus)
the spinothalamic (P/T) and dorsal columns medial lemniscus (prs/vib/touch/prop) carry sensory info from the body to the VPL, which relays it to the primary somatosensory cortex.
214
VPM (thalamus)
The trigeminal nerve (facial sensation) and the gustatory pathway (taste) carry info to the VPM, which gives it to the primary somatosensory cortex.
214
VPM (thalamus)
The trigeminal nerve (facial sensation) and the gustatory pathway (taste) carry info to the VPM, which gives it to the primary somatosensory cortex.
215
LGN (thalamus)
``` CN II (optic nerve) carries vision info to the LGN, which sends it to the calcarine sulcus L - light (vision) ```
215
LGN (thalamus)
``` CN II (optic nerve) carries vision info to the LGN, which sends it to the calcarine sulcus L - light (vision) ```
216
MGN (thalamus)
The superior olive and the inferior colliculus carry auditory info to the MGN, which send it to the auditory cortex of the temporal lobe M- music (hearing)
216
MGN (thalamus)
The superior olive and the inferior colliculus carry auditory info to the MGN, which send it to the auditory cortex of the temporal lobe M- music (hearing)

* DIT each session (34 decks)

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