Cyber Vista Exam Missed Questions Flashcards
Which of the following statements can be CORRECT regarding the utility of a service?
1.
It is the functionality offered by a product or service to meet a particular need.
2.
It can be summarized as “what the service does.”
3.
It can be used to determine whether a service is “fit for purpose.”
4.
It can support the performance of the consumer.
5.
It can remove the constraints from the consumer.
A)
2 and 3
B)
1 and 2
C)
All of these statements are true
D)
1, 2, and 4
C)
All of these statements are true
Explanation
All of these statements are correct regarding the utility of a service. Utility is the functionality offered by a product or service to meet a particular need. Utility is “what the service does.”This term is often used to determine whether a service is “fit for purpose.” To have utility, a service can support the consumer’s performance or remove consumer constraints. Many services do both.
What term is commonly used to refer to a situation where part of the output of an activity isused for new input?
A)
Feedback loop
B)
Service value chain
C)
Continual improvement
D)
Value stream
A)
Feedback loop
Explanation
A feedback loop is defined as a situation where part of the output of an activity is used for anew input. In a well-functioning organization, feedback is actively collected and processed along the value chain.
A value stream is defined as a series of steps an organization undertakes to create and deliver products and services to consumers.
A service value chain is defined as an operating model that outlines the key activities required to respond to demand and facilitate value realization through the creation and management of products and services.
Continual improvement is defined as the practice of aligning an organization’s practices and services with changing business needs with the ongoing identification and improvement of all elements involved in the effective management of products and services.
Which practice can uncover issues that are managed through Continual improvement?
A)
Service level management
B)
Incident management
C)
Problem management
D)
Knowledge management
Problem management
Explanation
Problem management makes a special contribution to Continual improvement by uncovering issues that can be managed through Continual improvement. Problem management is the practice of reducing the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of incidents and managing workarounds and known errors.
Knowledge management is the practice of maintaining and improving the effective, efficient, and convenient use of information and knowledge across an organization.
Incident management is the practice of minimizing the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible.
Service level management is the practice of setting clear business-based targets for service performance so that the delivery of a service can be properly assessed, monitored, and managed against these targets.
When applying the Collaborate and promote visibility guiding principle, which advice should be considered?
1.
Collaboration does not mean consensus.
2.
Communicate in a way the audience can hear.
3.
Decisions can only be made on visible data.
A)
None of the options
B)
3 only
C)
2 only
D)
1 only
E)
All of the options
The correct answer is that all of the options should be considered. To correctly apply the guiding principle of Collaborate and promote visibility, the following should be considered:
1.
Collaboration does not mean consensus – Requiring or recommending to reach a consensus of everyone involved before proceeding is not always the best course.
2.
Communicate in a way the audience can hear – Ensuring the right message and method is delivered for each audience is important key to success.
3.
Decisions can only be made on visible data – Another important aspect to consider is that decisions should be made based on data that is transparent and available.
Which of the following are examples of release policies?
1.
The number of releases that should occur per year.
2.
The frequency of releases that occur.
3.
The maximum size of releases that occur.
A)
All of the options
B)
Options 1 and 2
C)
Options 1 and 3
D)
Options 2 and 3
Explanation
Release policies that can be deployed include the number of releases that should occur per year, the frequency of releases that occur, and the maximum size of releases that occur.
In addition, you could also establish release policies that limit when releases can be deployed, such as only allowing releases to be deployed when workload is lower.
Identify the missing word(s) from the following sentence.
To help manage incidents, some organizations utilize _____________, which involves manydifferent stakeholders initially working together until it becomes clear which of them is bestsuited for resolving the issues.
A)
Service desks
B)
Swarming
C)
Support team
D)
Disaster recovery plans
To help manage incidents, some organizations utilize swarming. Swarming involves many different stakeholders initially working together until there is clarity on who is best suited to address the issues. The other stakeholders are then released to go back to their regular duties. Swarming is both defined as a process for identifying the responsible team for next steps, as well as for the actual “swarm” who are assigned the responsibility to resolve an issue or come up with a solution. One of the differences between swarms and a support team is that the older model of support was escalation-based, whereas the new model of swarming is considered collaboration-based.
Disaster recovery plans are a set of clearly defined plans related to how an organization will recover from a disaster as well as how to return to a pre-disaster condition, considering the four dimensions of service management.
A Service desk serves as the point of communication between the service provider and all of its users.
A Support team is a set, dedicated team comprised of those responsible for resolving incidents, addressing user issues, and managing normal operations. As noted above, a support team is escalation-based, whereas a swarm team would be collaboration-based.
Which ITIL management practice monitors and develops reports to deliver the agreed level of service?
A)
Capacity and Performance Management
B)
Availability management
C)
Service catalogue management
D)
Service level management
The Service level management practice monitors and develops reports to deliver the agreed upon level of service. The following are the primary objectives of Service level management:
Define, document, agree, monitor, measure, report, and review the level of IT services provided.
Provide and improve the relationship and communication with the business and customers.
Ensure that specific and measurable targets are developed for all IT services.
Monitor and improve customer satisfaction with the quality of service delivered.
Ensure that IT and the customers have a clear and unambiguous expectation of the level of service to be delivered.
Ensure that proactive measures to improve the levels of service delivered are implemented wherever it is cost-justifiable to do so.
The Service level management and Service request management practices review underpinning contracts on a regular basis.
The Capacity and performance management practice ensures services reach expected performance in a cost-effective manner.
The Availability management practice ensures the delivery of agreed-upon levels of availability to meet the needs of users and customers.
The Service catalogue management practice provides a single source of consistent information on all of the agreed-upon services. Moreover, Service catalogue management ensures the availability of the source of information to approved users.
Which concept of service management is based on customer perceptions?
A)
Resource
B)
Utility
C)
Capability
D)
Warranty
Utility is the functionality offered by a service or product to meet a need and is considered a concept of service management based on customer perceptions. Utility is what the service does and can be used for fitness for purpose.
Warranty is an assurance that a service or product will meet the agreed-upon requirements. Warranty is used to determine fitness for use.
Resources are an entity or person required for the implementation of an activity or achievement of an objective and not considered a concept of service management.
Capabilities are the ability of an organization, process, person, configuration item, IT service, or application to implement an activity and not considered a concept of service management.
Identify the missing word(s) from the following sentence.
___________ is/are a repeatable method to the management of a particular type of change.
A change model is a repeatable method to the management of a particular type of change. Depending on the type of change that occurs, the change model would include those authorized to make decisions for each type of change, along with the process for how that particular change would need to be addressed.
Due diligence is defined as “reasonable steps taken by a person in order to satisfy a legal requirement, especially in buying or selling something.”
A normal change is a type of change, not an approach to managing change. A normal change needs to be scheduled, assessed, and authorized after conducting a process. Assessment and authorization for these changes depend on change models
.
A change schedule is a calendar that shows planned and historical changes.
Which set of functions, processes, methods, roles, and activities of a service provider providevalue to the customer?
A)
service management
B)
customer relationship management
C)
good practice
D)
infrastructure management
Service management is, according to ITIL 4, “a set of specialized organizational capabilities for enabling value to customers in the form of services.” To provide value to customers these specialized organizational capabilities include the following components of a service provider: functions, process, methods, roles, and activities.
Good practice refers to a way of doing things effectively.
Customer relationship management is management of customers’ records and relation ships using technology.
Infrastructure management is management of organizational infrastructure assets including hardware, software, data, and resources.
Which statement is true of traditional/waterfall/predictive environments but NOT true ofAgile/DevOps environments?
A)
There is no review process.
B)
There is no release plan.
C)
Release management and deployment are a single process.
D)
Release management and deployment are two separate processes.
In traditional/waterfall/predictive environments, Release management and deployment maybe combined and executed as a single process.
Both environments include release plans and a review process. In Agile/DevOps environments, Release management and deployment are two separate processes.
A recent security breach on a single computer at your organization has resulted in the need to deploy a security fix on several computers. You develop a procedure for deploying the fix on the computers and record everything in the Configuration management system (CMS). Of which of the following items is this example?
A)
Request
B)
Problem
C)
Incident
D)
Change
This is an example of a change because a procedure has been developed and recorded in the Configuration management system (CMS). There are three types of change: standard change, normal change, and emergency change. Standard changes are pre-approved and have an already established procedure. Normal changes follow the full Change enablement process. Emergency changes are time critical and do not require the full Change enablement process. All processes related to changes of any type fall under the Change enablement practice.
The initial security breach is an example of an incident. But the entire process defined goes beyond the initial incident.
Multiple incidents would result in a problem. In this case, the security fix was discovered before the incident developed into a problem.
A request is an application from a user for information or a change.
Which entity is used to store and protect the authorized versions of all media configurationitems (CIs)?
A)
Definitive media library (DML)
B)
Configuration management system (CMS)
C)
Configuration management database (CMDB)
D)
Business impact analysis (BIA)
The Definitive media library (DML) is used to store and protect authorized versions of media configuration items (CIs). In ITIL version 4, it is important to note that available deployment components should be maintained in one or more secure locations to prevent pre-deployment modifications. The locations for these components are collectively referred to as a Definitive media library for documentation and software, as well as a definitive hardware store for hardware components. The DML is part of the CMS.
Business impact analysis (BIA) is an activity in the service continuity management practice that pinpoints critical business functions and their dependencies.
Configuration management system (CMS) is defined as a set of information, data, and tools used to support service configuration management.
Configuration management database (CMDB) is a database that stores configuration records throughout their lifecycle and maintains configuration record relationships.
Identify the missing word.
Fulfillment of service requests may include changes to services or their components. Usuallythese are ______________ changes.
A)
Standard
B)
Normal
C)
None of these options
D)
Emergency
Fulfillment of service requests may include changes to services or their components; usually these are standard changes. Because service requests are pre-defined and pre-agreed as a normal part of service delivery, they can be formalized with a clear and standard procedure for initiation, approval, fulfillment, and management. A standard change is a low risk, pre-authorized, and fully documented change. They can be implemented without needing additional authorization, and are often initiated as service requests, but can also be operational changes.
A normal change is not reflective of this type of change. A normal change is a change that needs to be scheduled, assessed, and authorized following a process. Assessment and authorization for these changes depend on change models. Normal changes can be low to high risk.
An emergency change is also not reflective of this type of change. An emergency change is a change that must be implemented as soon as possible. These are usually implemented to resolve incidents or implement security patches. These changes are not scheduled, and assessment and authorizations are expedited so the change can be implemented as quickly as possible.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the guiding principles?
A)
Certain principles will have a different level of relevance depending on the organization.
B)
They interact with and depend upon each other.
C)
The guiding principles are reflected in many other frameworks.
D)
They are recommendations that guide organizations in all circumstances.
It is not correct that certain principles will have a different level of relevance depending on the organization. Rather, each guiding principle will have the same level of relevance across each organization.
According to ITIL, a guiding principle is “a recommendation that guides an organization in all circumstances, regardless of changes in its goals, strategies, type of work, or management structure.”
The guiding principles interact with and depend upon each other.
These principles are also reflected in many other frameworks, methods, standards, philosophies, and/or bodies of knowledge, such as Lean, Agile, DevOps, and COBIT. This universal acknowledgement of the guiding principles allows organizations to effectively integrate the use of multiple methods into an overall approach to service management.
__________ enables organizations to assess their offerings against their activities to ensure full value realization.
A)
Environmental architecture
B)
Service architecture
C)
Technology architecture
D)
Information systems architecture
E)
Business architecture
Explanation
Business architecture enables organizations to assess their offerings against their activities to ensure full value is being realized for the organization and their customer base. A gap analysis can then be generated to current vs. future state needs, followed by the creation of a roadmap to detail the steps that the organization will take in order to achieve their goals of moving from current to future state.
Information systems architecture includes application and data architectures, which detail the physical and logical data assets and data management resources of an organization.
Environmental architecture details the change drivers and external factors of an organization. In addition, environmental architecture describes the types, aspects, and environmental control levels of an organization.
Technology architecture describes the hardware and software infrastructure required for supporting an organization’s portfolio of services and products.
Service architecture allows organizations to see all services being provided, including how the service components fit as a whole, along with the interactions, flow of resources and activities of each service.
Which of the following events is an example of a service request?
A)
A server is not functioning properly.
B)
An incorrect password is used.
C)
A new application needs to be installed on a computer.
D)
A network cable is unplugged, causing several computers to be disconnected from thenetwork.
An example of a service request is when a new application needs to be installed on a computer. A service request usually involves little risk and is considered a normal occurrence. The Service request management practice handles all user service requests.
An incorrect password being used is an example of an event.
A server not functioning properly is an example of an incident.
A network cable being unplugged, causing several computers to be disconnected from the network is an example of a problem.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the Configuration management database(CMDB) and the Asset Register?
1.
The Asset Register is a listing of all assets, including ownership and financial value.
2.
Assets are part of the CMDB only if they are service-related assets.
3.
The CMDB is a listing of configuration items (CIs) and their relationships.
A)
All of the options
B)
Options 2 and 3
C)
Options 1 and 2
D)
Options 1 and 3
All of the statements regarding the CMDB and Asset Register are true. The Asset Register is a listing of all assets, including ownership and financial value. Assets are part of the CMDB only if they are service-related assets. The CMDB is a listing of CIs and their relationships.
CIs include assets, service components, or other items or devices that are under the control of Configuration Management. Typically, the decision on what should be the lowest level of CI recorded is influenced mostly by the level at which components will be independently changed. A CI can exist as part of any number of other CIs at the same time. Choosing the right CI level is a matter of achieving a balance between information availability and the right level of control. The relationships between CIs describe how the CIs work together to deliver the services.
The CMDB typically holds information that will be useful to the majority of Service management practices. The CMDB is part of the Configuration management system (CMS).The CMS supports service configuration management.
Which of the following service value system components encompasses the creation oforganizational resources to reach an objective or conduct work?
A)
Service value chain
B)
Continual improvement
C)
Governance
D)
Guiding principles
E)
Practices
Practices, one of five service value system components, encompasses the creation of organizational resources to reach an objective or conduct work. The five service value components work together with an organization’s activities as part of the service value system to create the outcome of value creation. The ITIL service value system details how an organization’s activities and components work together as a single system to create value. As the SVS of each organization interact with other organizations, this can lead to further add value to their stakeholders and customers as well.
The other four service value system components are:
Governance – A system or framework used to control and manage activities in an organization.
Guiding principles – These help direct an organization, even through any changes to its management structure, work, goals, or other areas.
Service value chain – Organizational activities used to implement a service or product to promote value realization.
Continual improvement – Reoccurring organizational activities that help meet stakeholders’ expectations.
What is defined as “a model for enabling on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable computing resources that can be rapidly provided with minimal management effort or provider interaction”?
A)
Optimization
B)
Cloud computing
C)
Automation
D)
Guiding principles
Cloud computing is defined as “a model for enabling on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable computing resources that can be rapidly provided with minimal management effort or provider interaction.”
Guiding principles refer to the recommendations that guide an organization in all circumstances, regardless of changes to its goals, strategies, types of work, or management structure.
Automation refers to the use of technology to perform a step or series of steps correctly and consistently with limited or no human intervention.
Optimization means to make something as effective and useful as it needs to be.
A __________ describes a set of activities, which may be interrelated or interacting, that convertsinputs into outputs.
A)
service
B)
value stream
C)
value chain
D)
process
A process is a set of activities, which may be interrelated or interacting, that converts inputs into outputs. Processes can improve productivity and describe the steps to accomplish a goal or objective in a set of procedures. Processes help to define what is involved, who is involved, and detail instructions on how a process should be implemented.
A service is a means of delivering value to customers by facilitating outcomes that customers want to achieve without the ownership of specific costs and risks.
The ITIL service value chain is an operating model for service providers. It covers all the key activities required to effectively manage products and services.
A value stream is a series of steps an organization uses to create and deliver products and services to a service consumer. A value stream is a combination of an organization’s value chain activities.
Which statement regarding IT asset management is INCORRECT?
A)
IT asset management develops and manages appropriate Operational LevelAgreements (OLAs).
B)
IT asset management assists with optimizing resources.
C)
IT asset management contains data about assets, along with their related costs andcontracts.
D)
IT asset management keeps inventory data in an asset register.
IT asset management does not develop and manage appropriate Operational Level Agreements (OLAs). Rather, this activity is managed through Service level management. An IT asset is defined as a component that is financially viable and can add value to the delivery of an IT service or product. IT asset management, as a practice, is to manage and plan the IT asset lifecycle to help organizations control costs, maximize value, meet requirements, manage risk, and support asset-related decision-making.
IT asset management normally involves the following tasks:
Supplying legacy and current reports, support, and data about IT assets
Defining and managing the content and structure of the asset register, as well as the facilities for assets and media
Monitoring the asset lifecycle and documenting asset changes
Auditing media and assets and undertaking corrective actions and improvements
Organizations may have a central IT asset management team, or teams that may only manage the assets they support. As inventory management is contained in the IT asset register, it is typically combined with data stored in a configuration management system.
Which of the following are considered examples of configuration items (CIs)?
1.
Applications
2.
Hardware
3.
Contracts
4.
Personnel
Explanation
All of the given options are considered examples of configuration items (CIs), which include applications, hardware, contracts, and personnel. A CI is defined as any asset or component that is under the control of Configuration Management. Other items that can be considered CIs include software, network infrastructure, buildings, documentation, and suppliers. In addition, services are types of CIs and can help organizations comprehend how they work together.
CIs have attributes. Attributes are qualities of a CI that can be used to help differentiate it. Valid attributes of a hardware CI include the supplier’s part number, the cost of the item, and a manufacturer’s serial number.
To record relationships between CIs, you could assess the impact and cause of incidents and problems, assess the impact of proposed change, plan and design a change to an existing service, and plan a technology refresh or software upgrade.
What term refers to the act of sharing awareness or transferring ownership of an issue or awork item?
A)
Swarming
B)
Escalation
C)
Incident management
D)
Flagging
Escalation refers to the act of sharing awareness or transferring ownership of an issue or awork item. The routing typically depends on the incident category, which should help to identify the correct team.
Incident management as a whole is a practice to minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible.
Escalation is a term used within Incident management.
Flagging is defined as marking an item for attention or treatment in a specified way. While some incidents will be flagged, not every incident will be important enough to be flagged by the incident response team.
Swarming is an Incident management technique used by organizations. It involves many different stakeholders initially working together until there is clarity about who should help resolve the issue.
__________ includes application and data architectures that detail physical and logical dataassets.
A)
Technology architecture
B)
Business architecture
C)
Information systems architecture
D)
Environmental architecture
E)
Service architecture
Information systems architecture includes application and data architectures, which detail the physical and logical data assets and data management resources of an organization. As information offers great value to an organization, it should be accessible, accurate, and complete. Information architecture demonstrates how resources are managed and shared within organizations.
Business architecture enables organizations to assess their offerings against their activities toensure full value is being realized for the organization and their customer base.
Environmental architecture details the change drivers and external factors of an organization. In addition, environmental architecture describes the types, aspects, and environmental control levels of an organization.
Technology architecture describes the hardware and software infrastructure required for supporting an organization’s portfolio of services and products.
Service architecture allows organizations to see all services being provided, including how theservice components fit as a whole, along with the interactions, flow of resources andactivities of each service.
Which ITIL management practice monitors and develops reports to deliver the agreed level ofservice?
A)
Availability management
B)
Capacity and Performance Management
C)
Service catalogue management
D)
Service level management
The Service level management practice monitors and develops reports to deliver the agreed upon level of service.
The following are the primary objectives of Service level management:
Define, document, agree, monitor, measure, report, and review the level of IT services provided.
Provide and improve the relationship and communication with the business and customers.
Ensure that specific and measurable targets are developed for all IT services.
Monitor and improve customer satisfaction with the quality of service delivered.
Ensure that IT and the customers have a clear and unambiguous expectation of the level of service to be delivered.
Ensure that proactive measures to improve the levels of service delivered are implemented wherever it is cost-justifiable to do so.
The Service level management and Service request management practices review underpinning contracts on a regular basis.
The Capacity and performance management practice ensures services reach expected performance in a cost-effective manner.
The Availability management practice ensures the delivery of agreed-upon levels of availability to meet the needs of users and customers.
The Service catalogue management practice provides a single source of consistent information on all of the agreed-upon services. Moreover, Service catalogue management ensures the availability of the source of information to approved users.
A user sends a complaint about the slow performance of an application. Which of the following BEST categorizes the user’s complaint?
A)
Problem
B)
Change request
C)
Incident
D)
Alert
When a user sends a complaint about the slow performance of an application, this is considered an incident. Incidents are events that disrupt IT services or cause performance declines. Incidents can be reported by both authorized users and technical staff. Incidents are managed by using an incident management system.
Alerts are notifications to the responsible person(s) that either a threshold has been reached, a failure has occurred, or something has changed. The person(s) responsible should have the required skills and take steps to handle the event in the stipulated time frame.
A change request is a common user request for a new feature in a current service. A problemis an unknown cause of an incident.
Which of the following ITIL management practices is responsible for preventing recurringincidents?
A)
Problem management
B)
Incident management
C)
Information security management
D)
Monitoring and event management
The Problem management practice is responsible for preventing recurring incidents. This practice must identify and prevent problems and their resulting incidents and minimize the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented.
The objectives of Problem management include the following:
Eliminating recurring incidents
Minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented
Preventing problems and resulting incidents from happening
Managing problems throughout their lifecycle
Preventing problems and their resultant incidents
Minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented
Problem management works with Change enablement, Incident management, and Availability management on a regular basis. A problem record should be created when technical management identifies a permanent resolution to a number of recurring incidents.
The Monitoring and event management practice uses a management tool or agent to indicate when an abnormal operation, such as an incorrect password, has occurred. This practice detects and analyzes events and determines the appropriate action to take.
The Incident management practice handles all incidents, including failures and user queries. This practice is responsible for ensuring that an affected service recovers as quickly as possible to minimize its impact on the business.
The Information security management practice ensures risks are managed when it comes to the confidentiality, integrity, and authentication of information. While this practice also involves topics related to the availability of information, it is concerned more with the security of data than with the availability of data. The availability of data is covered in the Availability management practice.
The steps involved in Problem management are:
1.
Detect the problem.
2.
Log the problem.
3.
Categorize the problem.
4.
Prioritize the problem.
5.
Investigate and diagnose the problem.
6.
Deploy workaround.
7.
Raise a Known Error Record.
8.
Resolve the problem.
9.
Close the problem.
Once a problem is closed, you may need to perform a major problem review. During this review, you should identify the following:
Things that were done correctly
Things that were done incorrectly
Ways to prevent recurrence
What could be done better in the future
Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding outputs of services?
A)
They can be an intangible delivery of an activity.
B)
There can be multiple outputs of a single service.
C)
They are a result for a stakeholder.
D)
They can be a tangible delivery of an activity.
Outputs of services are NOT a result for a stakeholder. An output is defined as a tangible or intangible deliverable of an activity. There can be multiple outputs from a single service. An example of an output is a car-based dog harness that is comfortable, safe, and comes in many colors.
An outcome is defined as a result for a stakeholder created by one or more outputs. Examples of outcomes related to the output example above are ease of travel for short and long car trips and improved car ride safety.
What is the first dimension of service management?
A)
Organizations and people
B)
Information and technology
C)
Partners and suppliers
D)
Value streams and processes
Organizations and people is the first dimension of service management. Next is information and technology, then partners and suppliers, and lastly value streams and processes.
The organizations and people dimension includes organizational culture, leadership, workforce competency, and all personnel. The organizations and people dimension ensures that that the way the organization is structured and managed (along with its roles, responsibilities, and systems of authority and communication) is well-defined and supports its overall strategy and operating model.
The partners and suppliers dimension deals with an organization’s relationships with others involved with the design, development, deployment, delivery, support, and/or continual improvement of services. In addition, it incorporates contracts and other agreements between the organization and its partners and suppliers.
The value streams and processes dimension involves how the various parts of an organization work in an integrated and coordinated way to enable value creation through products and services. This dimension focuses on organizational activities and how they are organized, as well as how the organization ensures effective and efficient value creation for all stakeholders.
Which of the following options should be eliminated if they do not provide a useful outcome?
1.
Process
2.
Service
3.
Data
4.
Action
5.
Metric
A)
1, 2, 3, and 4
B)
All of the options
C)
1, 2, 3, and 5
D)
1, 2, 4, and 5
E)
1 and 2
According to the Keep it simple and practical guiding principle, if a process, service, action, or metric fails to produce a useful outcome, it should be eliminated. According to ITIL 4, this principle is frequently ignored, regardless of how obvious it is, which can result in unnecessary complexity hindering positive cost and other outcomes.
Data should never be eliminated, regardless of outcome.
Which of the following is/are NOT part of a type of cost that a consumer needs to consider when assessing the value of a service?
A)
Security breaches
B)
Procurement
C)
Technology
D)
Staff
Security breaches are NOT part of a type of cost that a consumer needs to consider when assessing the value of a service. A security breach is not a cost, but rather a risk. A risk is a possible event that could cause harm or loss or make it more difficult to achieve objectives. A service provider could experience a security breach which could affect the consumer monetarily, though it is still not a direct cost of the service. There are two types of costs involved in service relationships: costs removed from the consumer by the service and costs imposed on the consumer by the service.
Technology and staff are both costs removed from consumers by a service, as the consumer does not provide them.
Procurement could be a cost imposed on a consumer by a service.
Your organization is concerned with the lack of trend analysis of incident records. With which management practice would this cause an issue?
A)
Service level management
B)
Monitoring and event management
C)
Problem management
D)
Incident management
Performing trend analysis of incident records is a problem identification activity. This falls under Problem management. Lack of trend analysis would cause an issue with Problem management.
Incident management as a whole is a practice to minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible.
Monitoring and event management is the practice of systematically observing service components and recording and reporting selected changes of state identified as events.
Service level management is the practice of setting clear business-based targets for service performance so that the delivery of a service can be properly assessed, monitored, and managed against these targets.
Which of the following is NOT a cost a consumer needs to consider when assessing the value ofa service?
A)
Security breaches
B)
Staff
C)
Procurement
D)
Technology
As this is a negatively worded question, the correct answer is that security breaches are not a consumer needs to consider when assessing the value of a service. A security breach is not a cost, but rather a risk. A risk is a possible event that could cause harm or loss or make it more difficult to achieve objectives. A service provider could experience a security breach which could affect the consumer monetarily, though it is still not a direct cost of the service. There are two types of costs involved in service relationships: costs removed from thec onsumer by the service and costs imposed on the consumer by the service.
Technology and staff are both costs removed from consumers by a service, as the consumer does not provide them.
Procurement could be a cost imposed on a consumer by a service.
Which of the following is NOT part of service consumption?
A)
None of the options.
B)
Management of the consumer’s resources needed for the service.
C)
Fulfillment of the agreed-upon service activities.
D)
The receiving of goods.
The fulfillment of agreed-upon service activities is NOT part of service consumption. This activity is part of service provision.
Service consumption is defined as activities performed by an organization to consume services. Service consumption includes:
Management of the consumer’s resources needed for the service.
Service tasks performed by users, such as using the provider’s resources and requesting service tasks to be fulfilled.
Service consumption may also include the acquiring or receiving of goods.
Which of the following service value system components consists of reoccurring organizational activities that help meet stakeholders’ expectations?
A)
Guiding principles
B)
Governance
C)
Service value chain
D)
Continual improvement
E)
Practices
Continual improvement, one of five service value system components, consists of reoccurring organizational activities that help meet stakeholders’ expectations. The five service value components work together with an organization’s activities as part of the service value system to create the outcome of value creation. The ITIL service value system details how an organization’s activities and components work together as a single system to create value. As the SVS of each organization interact with other organizations, this can lead to further add value to their stakeholders and customers as well.
The other four service value system components are:
Governance – A system or framework used to control and manage activities in an organization.
Guiding principles – These help direct an organization, even through any changes to its management structure, work, goals, or other areas.
Service value chain – Organizational activities used to implement a service or product to promote value realization.
Practices – Organizational resources created to reach an objective or conduct work.
Which option(s) is an
objective
example of customer experience (CX)?
A)
None of these options.
B)
On-time delivery of what was ordered.
C)
All of these options.
D)
The layout of the service provider’s website.
E)
The friendliness of the customer service representative
Explanation
On-time delivery of a product/service is an
objective example of customer experience. The success or failure of on-time delivery of a product/service is objectively measurable. Customer experience can be
objective
or
subjective
.
Objective
aspects of customer experience are objectively measurable, such as the delivery ofa product at the promised price and delivery time.
Subjective
aspects of customer experience depend on the customer’s own tastes andexpectations, such as the design of the packaging for a product or the “coziness” of theservice provider’s store.
The layout of the service provider’s website is a
subjective
example of customer experience,as one customer may like the layout of the website while another customer might dislike it.
The friendliness of the customer service representative is also another
subjective
example ofcustomer experience, as one customer may really like the representative, while anothercustomer may find them rude or unhelpful.
Objective:
Which ITIL management practice adds value to the business by ensuring that services are
published in a consistent manner during a service, resource, or other type of transition?
A) Service conguration management
B) Service validation and testing
C) Deployment management
D) Change enablement
The Deployment management practice adds value to the business by helping to move
modified or new software, hardware, processes, documentation, or other components to live
environments. This practice works with Change control and Release management and a
number of approaches may be used, including:
Continuous integration, testing, and deployment of components for regular customer
feedback.
Simultaneous, or big bang, deployment of changed or new components all at once to
account for dependencies.
New or changed components deployed in a phased manner to minimize risk.
New or changed software deployed in a pull manner to allow software to be requested
on an as-needed basis.
The Change enablement practice is concerned with ensuring that changes are deployed in a
consistent and controlled manner. The Change enablement practice involves assessing risks,
authorizing changes to proceed, and managing change schedules to maximize the number of
successful product and service changes.
The Service configuration management practice is responsible for ensuring reliable and
accurate information about the configuration of services and supported items are available
where and when needed. This practice is also responsible for modeling the IT services,
components, and infrastructure. This is a logical model that includes all components of the IT
infrastructure. This practice adds value by increasing the visibility and performance of an IT
service.
The Service validation and testing practice is concerned with validating and testing services to
ensure they meet defined requirements. This practice provides value to the business by
helping to prevent service interruptions.
Which of the following service value system components consists of reoccurring organizational
activities that help meet stakeholders’ expectations?
A) Guiding principles
B) Governance
C) Service value chain
D) Continual improvement
E) Practices
Continual improvement, one of five service value system components, consists of reoccurring
organizational activities that help meet stakeholders’ expectations. The five service value
components work together with an organization’s activities as part of the service value
system to create the outcome of value creation. The ITIL service value system details how an
organization’s activities and components work together as a single system to create value. As
the SVS of each organization interact with other organizations, this can lead to further add
value to their stakeholders and customers as well.
The other four service value system components are:
Governance – A system or framework used to control and manage activities in an
organization.
Guiding principles – These help direct an organization, even through any changes to its
management structure, work, goals, or other areas.
Service value chain – Organizational activities used to implement a service or product
to promote value realization.
Practices – Organizational resources created to reach an objective or conduct work.
Which of the following is NOT part of service provision?
A) Fullling agreed-upon service tasks.
B) Enabling continual improvement and Service level management.
C) Managing consumer’s resources needed for the service.
D) Ensuring user access to resources.
Managing the consumer’s resources needed for the service is NOT part of service provision.
This activity is part of service consumption, as it is inclusive of the tasks that an organization
undertakes to consume services. Service consumption activities also include, but are not
limited to, service action requests and the acquisition of goods.
Service provision is defined as activities performed by an organization to provide services.
Service provision activities include:
Managing provider’s resources to deliver the service.
Ensuring user access to resources.
Fulfilling agreed-upon service tasks.
Enabling continual improvement and Service level management.
Supplying of goods, as needed.
Which of the following is NOT one of the three technical management practices modified and
adapted from technology management domains by focusing on IT services?
A) Software development and management
B) Infrastructure and platform management
C) Release management
D) Deployment and management
Release management is not one of the three technical management practices of ITIL service
value management. Release management is one of the 17 service management practices.
Management practices, in ITIL, consist of organizational resources created to conduct work or
achieve an objective. The three overarching practices include general management practices,
service management practices, and technical management practices.
The three technical management practices of ITIL service value management include:
Deployment and management
Infrastructure and platform management
Software development and management
All of these practices interact with value chain activities in varying capacities and intensities.
Which statement is true regarding the relationship between Problem management activitiesand Incident management activities?
A)
They only complement each other.
B)
They only conflict with each other.
C)
There is no relationship between both activities.
D)
They can both complement or conflict with each other.
Problem management activities and Incident management activities can both complementand conflict with one another. Both activities are very closely related with one another. They need to be designed to work with one another within the value chain.
For example, identifying the causes of an incident is a Problem management activity that may lead to incident resolution. This is an example of how both activities could complement each other.
They can conflict with one another as well. For example, investigating the cause of an incident may delay actions needed to restore service.
Which concept of service management is based on customer perceptions?
A)
Capability
B)
Resource
C)
Utility
D)
Warranty
Utility is the functionality offered by a service or product to meet a need and is considered a concept of service management based on customer perceptions. Utility is what the service does and can be used for fitness for purpose.
Warranty is used to determine fitness for use.
Resources are an entity or person required for the implementation of an activity or achievement of an objective and not considered a concept of service management.
Capabilities are the ability of an organization, process, person, configuration item, IT service, or application to implement an activity and not considered a concept of service management.
reating the specialized capabilities for service management requires an understanding ofwhich of the following aspects? (Select as many as apply.)
A)
The configuration of resources created to offer consumer value.
B)
The scope and nature of involved stakeholders.
C)
How value creation is enabled.
D)
The nature of value.
The creation of specialized capabilities that an organization uses for enabling customer service value through the delivery of services is defined as service management. Creating the specialized capabilities that an organization uses for this purpose requires an understanding of how value creation is enabled, the scope and nature of all stakeholders involved (includingservice consumers and service providers), as well as the nature of value and value of co-creation.
The other option, which is the configuration of resources created to offer consumer value isnot required as part of understanding specialized capabilities for service management;rather, it is the definition of a product.
Which of the following is NOT part of service provision?
A)
Ensuring user access to resources.
B)
Managing consumer’s resources needed for the service.
C)
Enabling continual improvement and Service level management.
D)
Fulfilling agreed-upon service tasks.
Service providers must understand what is truly of value to the service consumer. Which of thefollowing do service providers need to know?
1.
Why a consumer uses the services.
2.
What the services help the service consumer to do.
3.
How the services help consumers achieve their goals.
4.
The role of cost/financial consequences for the service consumer.
5.
The risks involved for the service consumer.
A)
1, 2, and 3.
B)
None of them.
C)
All of them.
D)
3, 4, and 5.
What is a practice?
Which guiding principles should be most closely followed when applying the Optimize and automate guiding principle?
1. Focus on Value
2. Start where you are.
3. Progress iteratively with feedback
4. Collaborate and promote visibility
5. Think and work holistically.
6. Keep it simple and practical
1, 2, 3, 6,
Focus on Value
Start Where you are
Progress Iteratively with feedback
Keep it simple and practical
Which of the following is NOT one of the 14 general management practices that have been modified and adopted for service management?
1. Architecture management
2. Supplier Management
3. Risk Management
4. Service financial Management
5. Change enablement
6. Measurement and reporting
Change Enablement
