Cutaneous Immunology Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the inflammatory mediators of innate immunity response?

A

mast cells and eosinophils

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2
Q

What are the phagocytic cells of the innate immunity response?

A

neutrophils and macrophages

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3
Q

how long does initial stimulation of the adaptive immune response take?

A

7-14 days

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4
Q

what cytokines do TH1 cells release?

A

IFN-y and TNF

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5
Q

What do IFN-y and TNF do?

A

activate macrophages, dendritic cells, neutrophils and cytotoxic T cells

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6
Q

What do TH1 cells direct their attack against?

A

viruses, tumors, and intracellular pathogens

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7
Q

Which cells are responsible for delayed (Type IV) hypersensitivity?

A

Th1 cells

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8
Q

What do Th2 cells release?

A

IL-4, IL-5 and IL-10

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9
Q

What do IL-4, IL-5 and IL-10 do?

A

activate eospinophils and plasma cells and lead to IgE production

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10
Q

What do Th2 cells attack against?

A

parasites and extracellular microbes

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11
Q

What cells stimulate humoral immunity?

A

Th2

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12
Q

Which cells are implicated in the development of autoimmune diseases?

A

Th17

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13
Q

Th1 cells are linked to what 3 pathologies?

A

Allergic contact dermatitis
Psoriasis
Drug eruptions

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14
Q

What 3 pathologies are Th2 cells linked to?

A

Atopic Dermatitis
Uticaria
Asthma

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15
Q

What are 5 common allergens?

A
Poison Ivy/oak
nickel
fragrances
preservatives
topical antibiotics
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16
Q

What is patch testing used for?

A

To detect common allergens that could be causing allergic contact dermatitis

17
Q

What are haptens?

A

molecules that are too small to be recognized independently but are capable of stimulating the immune system after binding native proteins

18
Q

Where does atopic dermatitis affect infants?

A

face, scalp and extensor aspects of the extremities

19
Q

Where does atopic dermatitis affect older children and adults?

A

flexural regions and face

20
Q

colonization of what bacteria can contribute to atopic dermatitis?

A

staph aureus

21
Q

what is the genetic defect associated with atopic dermatitis?

A

filaggrin

22
Q

What is a good treatment for prevention of atopic dermatitis flares?

A

bleach baths–> kills colonization of staph areus

23
Q

What viral infection are those with atopic dermatitis at risk of contraction?

A

eczema herpeticum (due to impaired cell-mediated immunity

24
Q

What syndrome is associated with destructive arthritis?

A

psoriasis

25
Q

What is keobnerization?

A

trauma to the skin that leads to more inflammation (scratching)

26
Q

What is guttate psoriasis?

A

presents with small round papules and plaques; often precipitated by strep infection

27
Q

What is the defining histological characteristic of psoriasis?

A

presence of neutrophils

28
Q

What disease presents with angioedema?

A

Urticaria

29
Q

What is angioedema?

A

affects the deep dermis and causes painful swelling often of the lips and face

30
Q

What is the most defining feature of urticaria?

A

evanesence–> symptoms resolve after 24 hours

31
Q

Urticaria is a ____ type hypersensitivity

A

type I

32
Q

What is dermatographism?

A

when light scratching results in itchy linear wheals that can be “read” minutes later

33
Q

What causes Dermatographism?

A

very excitable mast cells

34
Q

What medications most commonly cause drug eruptions?

A

antibiotics, anticonvulsants and NSAIDS

35
Q

what is the systemic parallel of allergic contact dermatitis?

A

Exanthematous drug eruption

36
Q

What is DRESS?

A

DRug Eruption with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms; characterized by exanthematous eruption with fever, lymphadenopathy, and facial edema

37
Q

When is the onset of DRESS

A

15-40 days after initial stimuli

38
Q

When does ACE-inhibitor angioedema occur?

A

days to YEARS after exposure

39
Q

Describe some common features of Steven-Johnson Syndrome/ Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis.

A

Immune system activates a cascade of apoptosis –> widespread epidermal necrosis
characterized by erythematous and dusky macules
fever and systemic syndromes
PAINFUL