Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

NBEO Part 2 > Cumulative > Flashcards

Cumulative Flashcards

1
Q

Carotid cavernous fistula is caused by?
And what is the triad?

A

Closed head trauma, spontaneous ruptured carotid aneurysm and high pressure blood from carotid posterior to globe

Triad
1) chemosis
2) pulsatile proptosis
3) ocular bruit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hyperthyroid systemic symptoms

A

Heat intolerance
Weight loss
Palpitations
sweating
Irritability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Thyroid function tests

A

TSH
T4
T3
TSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which hormones are increased in hyperthyroidism?

A

T3 & T4
TSI

T3: triiodothyronine
T4: thyroxine (total and free)
TSI: thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

True or false
TSH is high in hyperthyroidism

A

FALSE!!!
* TSH is low while T3, T4 and TSI are high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

NO SPECS is a mnemonic for the eye findings in which disease?

A

Grave’s disease

NO SPECS
N: no signs or symptoms
O: only signs
S: soft tissue involvement (s/s)
P: proptosis
E: extra ocular muscle involvement
C: corneal involvement (SLK)
S: sight loss (optic nerve compression)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

TED mostly affects what age and gender?

A

females 30-40 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

True or false
Tolosa hunt syndrome leads to painful external ophthalmoplegia

A

TRUE
*inflammation of the orbital apex and anterior cavernous sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Dalrymple’s sign

A

Widened palpebral fissure due to upper eyelid retraction in thyroid disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Globe lags behind upper lid on up gaze in thyroid disease

A

Kocher’s sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Lid lag on down gaze in thyroid disease

A

Von Graefe’s sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

TED ocular signs (name at least 5)

A

Eyelid retraction
Edema
Lagophthalmos
Lid lag
Reduced blinking
Superficial keratopathy
Conjunctival injection
Exophthalmos
EOM limitations
(+) forced duction
Decreased VA
Decreased color vision
RAPD
VF defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Tx for optic neuropathy secondary to Grave’s disease

A
  1. Immediate treatment with oral steroids
  2. Orbital decompression for compressive optic neuropathy
    * performed by oculoplastic surgeon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Tolosa-hunt syndrome

A

Rare, idiopathic orbital inflammation of cavernous sinus + superior orbital fissure = acute painful external ophthalmoplegia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Tx for corneal exposure due to eyelid retraction, lagophthalmos and reduced blink rate in TED

A
  • AT’s up to q1h
  • Ointment QHS
  • lid taping or moisture chamber goggles at bedtime
  • punctal occlusion for severe dry eyes
  • permanent lateral tarsorryhaphy or canthorrhaphy for lateral chemosis or widened lateral palpebral fissure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Steven Johnson syndrome is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type 4

  • hypersensitivity to drug/infectious agent
  • sulfonamides= pseudoblistering of conjunctiva (BM intact, inflammation below)
  • amoxicillin and Augmentin can cause SJS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Basal cell carcinoma is more common in males or females?

A

Males
* fair skin
* UV exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pt with hx of chronic unilateral chalazia should be evaluated for what?

A

Sebaceous gland carcinoma
* F>M
* malignancy of sebaceous glands, highly infiltrative + inflammatory, high mortality rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the most lethal primary skin cancer of the melanocytes?

A

Malignant melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

True or false SCC is more aggressive than BCC

A

TRUE
* 2nd most common eyelid malignancy
* M>F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What conjunctival lesion is the precursor to SCC of the conjunctiva?

A

Conjunctival intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)
* looks gelatinous and white near limbus
* can lead to SCC
* mostly in elderly white males, heavy smokers, UV radiation, HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Phlyctenules are what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type 4!!
* in teenage girls
* located at limbus
* ask about Hx TB
* hypersensitivity reaction to staph blepharitis, goes away in ~14 days
* associated with rosacea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Yoked and Fresnel prisms are for near or distance?

A

Near

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Reverse telescopes are used for?

A

Ambulating
*increase field of view

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Patient wants to be able to read 20/40 letters on a bus, what is the most appropriate power of a telescope to meet this goal?

OD: +4.00 -2.00 x090 distance 20/100, near 20/100 @ 40cm

OS: +4.00 -2.00 x 000 VA 20/400 distance, near 20/400 @ 40cm

A

2.5X telescope

Steps to solve:
1) take denominator of can read and divide it by want to read
100/40 =2.5

2) 2.5X telescope will allow pt to see 20/40 without decrease in FOV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Coat’s disease?

A

None,
It’s idiopathic, non-hereditary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

S/S of Coats disease (name at least 3)

A

Leukocoria
Strabismus
Nystagmus
Decreased VA
Pain
Iris heterochromia (because of NVI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

If Coat’s disease is left untreated, how would the disease progress?

A
  1. Lead to end stage total exudative RD and neovascular glaucoma
  2. Can cause blind and painful eye
  3. Enucleation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Coats disease can lead to what type of retinal detachment?

A

Exudative RD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is an adverse prognostic factor related to histological features in choroidal melanomas?

A

Large number of epithelioid cells (vs. spindle cells)

Epithelioid cells are associated with a worse prognosis compared to spindle cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What pigmentation characteristic is associated with a worse prognosis in choroidal melanomas?

A

Lack of pigmentation

Tumors that lack pigmentation tend to be more aggressive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Why will an RD located superiorly be more likely to spread than an RD located inferiorly?

A

Because of gravity
* emergency! Refer to retinal specialist ASAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

At what gestational age does the retinal vasculature reach the nasal periphery?

A

8 months gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

At what age does the retinal vasculature reach the temporal periphery in normal gestation?

A

1 month after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
A

Choroidal melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
A

Choroidal nevus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Myelinated nerve fiber layer can be associated with what ocular conditions?

A

Amblyopia
Strabismus
Nystagmus
Myopia
Optic neuritis
Neovascularization of the retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Tx for toxocariasis

A

Prednisone
* Tx intraocular inflammation caused by death of toxocara larva and eye reaction immunologically to the antigens released

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What lab tests helps confirm toxocariasis?

A

ELISA
* toxocara ELISA testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Inheritance pattern of Stargardt

A

Autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

ERG and EOG in best disease

A

Normal ERG
Abnormal EOG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What does EOG measure?

A

Potential between bruch’s membrane (RPE) and cornea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

ERG and EOG in Stargardt

A

Normal ERG and EOG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

GPC shows what two types of hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Type I and Type IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

GPC symptoms

A

Contact lens intolerance
Blurred vision
Excessive lens movement with blinking
Pruritis and mucous production
* general discomfort develops 2-3 years after previously tolerating contacts well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

GPC diagnosis is characterized by the presence of?

A

Large papillae located on the upper tarsal conjunctiva
*associated with Hx of CL wear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the pathophysiology of GPC?

A

Immune reaction to denatured protein deposits
Mechanical irritation for the superior tarsal conjunctiva

Discontinue CL use
Tx with pataday, switch to dailies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Tx and RTC for GPC

A
  1. Discontinue CL wear
  2. Mast cell stabilizer example: oloptadine 1 gtt OU bid for 2 weeks
  3. Switch to dailies or hydrogen peroxide based solution for cleaning CLs

RTC 2-4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Tx for contact dermatitis

A
  1. Determine and remove offending agent (ex: new make up, eye cream, lotion)
  2. Cool compress
  3. PF AT’s and topical antihistamine/ mast cell stabilizer combo
  4. Topical steroid cream for eyelids (dexamethasone 0.05% bid or tid for 5 days)
    * oral antihistamine like Benadryl can be added
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

RTC for contact dermatitis

A

1 week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What skin lesion is a precursor to SCC of the eyelids?

A

Actinic keratosis
* occur on inferior eyelid/ sun exposed areas of skins
* older white patients

*squamous cell carcinoma occurs due to excessive proliferation of the stratum spinosum (cell division should not occur at this layer, that’s why SCC is more invasive than BCC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the layers of the skin epidermis from superficial to deep?

A

Superficial
Stratum corneum
Stratum lucidum
Stratum granulosum
Stratum spinosum (abnormal for cell division, SCC occurs in this layer)
Stratum basale (normal for cell division, BCC occurs in this layer)
Deep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What does a positive Jones 1 test mean?

A

Patent punctum and no blockage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

If Jones 1 is negative what is the next step?

A

Irrigate with saline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Saline irrigation in Jones 2 demonstrates reflux of fluid through the same punctum, where is the blockage?

A

Upper/lower canaliculus blockage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Saline irrigation in Jones 2 shows retrograde flow through opposite canaliculus, where is the blockage?

A

Nasolacrimal duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Saline irrigation in Jones 2 patient tastes saline/ recover in nose, what does that mean?

A

Blockage is cleared

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

HSV dosage for acyclovir

A

400mg po 5x/day for 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

HZO dose for acyclovir

A

800mg 5x/day for 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

HSV dosage for valacyclovir

A

500mg TID po for 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

HZO dose for valacyclovir

A

1000 mg po TID for 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

AIDS medication Retrovir may cause what ocular conditions?

A

Amblyopia
Macular edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Causes of whorl keratopathy

A

CHAI T

Chloroquine
Hydroxychloroquine
Amiodarone
Indomethacin
Tamoxifen

And Fabry’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which drugs can cause NAION? (4)

A

Amiodarone
Imitrex
Vardenafil
Viagra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Causes of bull’s eye maculopathy

A

Chloroquine
Hydroxychloroquine
Progressive cone dystrophy
Stargardt’s disease
Thioridazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Name 2 commonly used aminoglycosides

A

Tobramycin
Gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Dosage for besifloxacin

A

TID to q1h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Name 2 commonly used macrolides

A

Azithromycin
Erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Cyclosporine drug class
(Restasis)

A

Immunomodulator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Keflex drug class

A

Cephalosporins
* Keflex is brand name for cephalexin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Tx for endogenous endophthalmitis caused by fungal Candida

A
  • Systemic antifungal
  • If moderate to severe inflammation: pars plana vitrectomy and intraocular injection of antifungal and steroid
  • topical steroid and cycloplegic
  • medical consultation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Fungal infections such as candidiasis mostly occur in what type of patients?

A

Immunocompromised
IV drug abusers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

RTC for candidiasis

A

Daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Oral antibiotics used to treat MRSA

A
  • Bactrim (trimethoprim + sulfamethoxazole)
  • Doxycycline
  • Clindamycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Intravenous antibiotics used to treat severe MRSA infections

A

Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Bacteria that invades intact corneal epithelium

A

Corynebacterium diptheriae
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Haemophilus
Listeria

Canadian National Hockey League invades intact corneal epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Etiology of acanthamoeba keratitis

A

Contact lens wearers using nonsterile water or have poor CL cleaning habits
* patients who wore CL while in fresh water environments like lakes or in a hot tub

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Signs for acanthamoeba keratitis

A

Early
1. Mild SPK, pseudo dendrite (will stain with FL)
*misdiagnosed as herpes simplex!

Late stages (3-8 weeks)
2. Ring ulcer and corneal melt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Tx for acanthamoeba keratitis

A
  1. Discontinue CL wear
  2. Polyhexamethylene biguanide q1h, chlorhexidine q1h, propamidine isethionate q1h or dibromopropamidine isethionate ointment
  3. Can also use antifungal
  4. Topical cycloplegic and oral NSAID for pain

RTC 1-4 days, then 1-3 weeks
Treatment for 3-12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What does ERG measure?

A

Electrical currents across the eye

*Cornea is positive relative to RPE
*when retina is stimulated, specific retinal cells become excited and firm the electrical wave that creates ERG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is ocular histoplasmosis?

A

A retinal condition linked to a type of fungus known as Histoplasma capsulatum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What type of organism causes ocular histoplasmosis?

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How is Histoplasma capsulatum contracted?

A

Through inhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Multiple sclerosis s/s

A

S/S:
Numbness
Fatigue
Muscle weakness
Optic neuritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Syndrome with optic atrophy in one eye and disc edema in the fellow eye

A

Foster-Kennedy syndrome

*vision loss from intracranial mass compressing optic nerve, and papilledema in the other eye due to increased intracranial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Tx for optic neuritis associated with MS

A

IV steroids
Followed by oral steroids along with interferon beta-1a treatment

*stabilize condition and reduced risk of progression of optic neuropathy for 2-3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What VF defects can optic neuritis cause?

A

Altitudinal defect
Overall depression central 30 degrees
Central/centrocecal scotoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Demographic for MS

A

18-45 females
Raised in northern hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Hutchinson sign

A

Herpes zoster lesion on tip or side of nose
*signal development of ocular involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Shafer’s sign

A

Release of pigment into the vitreous chamber from retinal tear
* noted with sudden increase in floaters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Psoriasis Skin scale is removed and pinpoint bleeding occurs

A

Auspitz sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What diagnostic testing do you order if you suspect ankylosing spondylitis?

A

1) CBC
2) ESR
3) HLA-B27
4) Sacroiliac spine radiograph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

In which layer of the cornea do deposits accumulate in whorl keratopathy?

A

Epithelium
*yellow/brown or white
*located inferior to visual axis, spins outward

Associated with drug use:
amiodarone class 3 anti-arrhythmic
Chloroquine
Hydroxychloroquine
Indomethacin
Tamoxifen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Red cap desaturation test procedure

A
  1. Pt wears best near correction, fully lit room
  2. Better seeing eye is tested first, occlude weaker eye
  3. Show patient red cap bottle and tell them this is 100%, then switch to weaker eye
  4. Ask patient to compare level of saturation of red between the two eyes as a percentage from 100%
  • perceived difference between the eyes of 20% or more = APD likely
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

True or false
Aspirin can make symptoms of tinnitus worse

A

TRUE
* tinnitus is caused by damage to hair cells in inner ear from exposure to excessive noise, medications (aspirin), aging and diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

DBL + A =?

A

Frame PD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Minimum blank size equation

A

MBS = ED + TLD

ED: effective diameter
TLD: total lens decentration (TLD = |(A + DBL) - distance PD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Which layer of the cornea is affected in acute hydrops in patients with keratoconus?

A

Descemet’s membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Transpose plus cyl into minus cyl form
OD: - 4.25 + 0.75 x 077
OS: - 4.00 + 1.00 x 098

A

OD: -3.50 - 0.75 x 167
OS: -3.00 - 1.00 x 008

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the average annual progression rate for childhood myopia?

A

0.3 to 0.5 diopters per year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Is Positive relative accommodation indirect or direct measure of accommodation?

A

Indirect
* measures ability to increase accommodation while maintaining a clear, single binocular vision
* how much negative lens power tolerate before blur occurs at near target

Normal PRA -3.00
low PRA (early blur) = reduced accommodative ability (accommodative insufficiency or convergence excess)
High PRA (excessive minus tolerated) = overactive accommodation or accommodative spasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Neomycin + poly B + dexamethasone

A

Maxitrol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Which IOP lowering drug class is contraindicated in patients with sickle cell?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
*because they can cause metabolic acidosis, increase risk for hypoxia and exacerbate sickle cell retinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Can a patient with sickle cell use acetazolamide to lower IOP?

A

NO!!!
Because it can cause metabolic acidosis
*this would make blood pH acidic and promotes red blood cell sickling

106
Q

What is the Americans with Disabilities Act? (ADA)

A

Civil rights law that prohibits discrimination against individuals with disabilities. Ensures equal opportunities and access to public spaces, employment, and transportation.

107
Q

Which drugs should be avoided in children and pregnant women because they damage blood marrow?

A

Methotrexate (immunomodulator)
Pyrimethamine (tx toxo)
Trimethoprim (+ sulfamethazine = Bactrim)

108
Q

Methotrexate is used to treat what autoimmune and inflammatory diseases?
(MOA: folate antagonist)

A

Rheumatoid arthritis
Psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis
Inflammatory bowel disease
Lupus
Uveitis and scleritis

*can also be used as cancer treatment for lymphomas and leukemias

109
Q

Which infectious disease is caused by inhalation of fungal spores from bird and bat droppings?

A

Histoplasmosis

110
Q

What conditions can cause both unilateral and bilateral swollen nerves?

A
  • Sarcoidosis
  • TB
  • Syphilis
  • Lupus

These conditions affect the optic nerves.

111
Q

What are the causes of premature cataracts?

A

Atopic Dermatitis, Diabetes, Myotonic Dystrophy, and Wilson’s Disease

Mnemonic: Wilson is MAD about early cataracts
M: myotonic dystrophy
A: atopic dermatitis
D: Diabetes

These conditions can lead to early cataract formation.

112
Q

How can swollen nerves be categorized?

A

Based on if the swelling is unilateral or bilateral

This classification helps in diagnosis.

113
Q

What causes bilateral swollen optic nerves (papilledema)?

A

Increased intracranial pressure

This can be due to various systemic conditions.

114
Q

What causes unilateral swollen nerves (papillitis)?

A

Complications anterior to the optic chiasm such as:
* Vascular (Diabetes, Central Retinal Vein Occlusions)
* Ischemic (NAION, AION)
* Compressive (Thyroid)
* Optic Disc Drusen

These factors lead to localized nerve swelling.

115
Q

What medications can cause Pseudotumor Cerebri?

A

Accutane, Idiopathic, Nalidixic Acid, Oral Contraceptives, Tetracyclines, and Vitamin A

These substances are linked to increased intracranial pressure.

116
Q

What causes retinal neovascularization and subsequent tractional retinal detachments?

A

Diabetic retinopathy, ocular ischemic syndrome, retinopathy of prematurity, sickle cell retinopathy, and vein occlusions

These conditions lead to abnormal blood vessel growth in the retina.

117
Q

What are the causes of transillumination defects?

A
  • Pigment dispersion syndrome
  • pseudoexfoliation syndrome
  • albinism
  • herpetic uveitis
  • trauma
  • PCIOL intraocular surgery
118
Q

What causes whorl keratopathy?

A

Amiodarone, Chloroquine, Hydroxychloroquine, Fabry’s Disease, Indomethacin, and Tamoxifen, Amiodarone

These substances can lead to characteristic corneal changes.

119
Q

What are the causes of hypopyon?

A

Bechet’s Disease, VKH Syndrome, Endophthalmitis, Bacterial Keratitis, and Blebitis

Retinoblastoma may also cause a pseudohypopyon.

120
Q

Which bacteria can invade the intact corneal epithelium?

A

Corynebacterium diphtheria, Haemophilus, Listeria, Neisseria gonorrhea, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa

These pathogens can lead to serious ocular infections.

121
Q

Nalidixic acid MOA

A

Inhibits DNA gyrase
* can cause increased intracranial pressure —> pseudotumor cerebri

122
Q

DEPRIVENS is the mnemonic for diseases that can cause cystoid macular edema, name them.

A

D: Diabetes
E: Epinephrine
P: Pars Planitis
R: Retinitis pigmentosa
I: Irvine-Gas’s
V: Vein Occlusions
E: E2-Prostaglandin
N: Nicotinic acid and Niacin
S: Surgery

123
Q

Imitrex drug class, MOA, indication and ocular sequelae

A

Serotonin receptor agonists

MOA: vasoconstrictor of cranial blood vessels

Indicated for migraines and cluster headaches

Can cause NAION

124
Q

What are the risk factors for retinal breaks?

A

High myopia, lattice degeneration, aphakia/pseudophakia, and trauma

These factors increase the likelihood of retinal detachment.

125
Q

What mnemonic can be used to remember the causes of Angioid Streaks?

A

PEPSI: Pseudoxanthoma Elasticum, Ehlers Danlos, Paget’s, Sickle Cell Disease, Idiopathic

Each letter of PEPSI corresponds to a specific condition that causes Angioid Streaks.

126
Q

What are the causes of blue sclera? (4)

A
  • Minocycline
  • Ehlers Danlos Syndrome
  • Rheumatoid Arthritis
  • Scleritis

Blue sclera: scleral appears blue due to thinning and increased transparency of the scleral collagen, allowing the underlying darker choroid vasculature to show through

127
Q

Name some causes of exudative retinal detachments. (5)

A
  • Central Serous Retinopathy
  • VKH Syndrome
  • Optic Pits
  • Morning-Glory Syndrome
  • Coats Disease

Exudative retinal detachments can result from several syndromes and diseases.

128
Q

What can cause bull’s eye maculopathy?

A
  • Chloroquine
  • Hydroxychloroquine
  • Progressive Cone Dystrophy
  • Stargardt’s Disease
  • Thioridazine

Bull’s eye maculopathy is associated with drug toxicity and genetic conditions.

129
Q

List some causes of keratoconus.

A

T-DOME

  • Turner Syndrome
  • Down’s Syndrome
  • Osteogenesis Imperfecta
  • Marfan’s Syndrome
  • Ehlers Danlos Syndrome
  • Atopy, excessive eye rubbing

Keratoconus is a progressive eye disease that can be associated with these syndromes.

130
Q

What are the causes of lens subluxation? (Name 4)

A
  • Blunt trauma
  • Marfan’s Syndrome
  • Homocystinuria
  • Ectopia Lentis et Pupillae
  • Hyperlysinemia
  • Microspherophakia
  • Sulfite Oxidase Deficiency
  • Simple Ectopia Lentis

Lens subluxation can occur due to genetic conditions or trauma.

131
Q

What can lead to macular thickening?

A
  • Chronic intraocular inflammation
  • Intraocular surgery
  • Intraocular tumor
  • BRVO
  • Best’s disease
  • Retinitis pigmentosa
  • Neuroretinitis

Rhegmatogenous retinal detachments do NOT cause macular thickening.

132
Q

Name conditions associated with nyctalopia? (Name at least 3)

A
  • Choroideremia
  • Gyrate Atrophy
  • Enhanced S-Cone Syndrome/Goldmann-Favre Syndrome
  • Thioridazine Retinopathy
  • Retinitis Pigmentosa
  • Leber’s congenital amaurosis

Nyctalopia: night blindness

133
Q

What can cause papillae?

A
  • Allergies
  • Bacteria
  • Idiopathic

The presence of papillae can be due to allergic reactions or infections.

134
Q
A

Capillary hemangioma
* most common BENIGN orbital tumors in children
* will spontaneously resolve/disappear by when the patient turns 10

135
Q

Patient unhappy with vision through new glasses, what is the FIRST thing you should do?

A

Verify the prescription is correct via lensometer

136
Q

Inheritance pattern for juvenile retinoschisis

A

X-linked recessive
*mostly affects males, females are carriers

137
Q

4.5 year old white male
OD: +0.75 DS
OS: +1.00 DS
BCVA 20/50 OD, OS

A

Juvenile retinoschisis
* X-linked recessive

138
Q

Pathophysiology of retinoschisis

A

Separation of nerve fiber layer from outer retinal layers

139
Q

True or false
Highest incidence of retinoschisis is in African Americans

A

FALSE
highest incidence in caucasians

140
Q

What are some causes of photophobia?

A
  • Albinism
  • Aniridia
  • Aphakia/Pseudophakia
  • Cataracts
  • Macular degeneration
  • Retinitis pigmentosa

Photophobia, or light sensitivity, can arise from various ocular conditions.

141
Q

What is the legal doctrine known as respondeat superior?

A

A doctrine meaning ‘let the master answer’ where an employer is responsible for the actions of an employee.

142
Q

Can a patient sue an optometrist directly for breaching confidentiality?

A

Yes, a patient can sue the optometrist for breaching confidentiality even if an employee made the disclosure.

143
Q

What federal act can a patient file a complaint under for a violation of confidentiality?

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA)

144
Q

True or False: Patients can file private lawsuits under HIPAA.

145
Q

Who may pursue a claim against an optometrist’s office for a HIPAA violation?

A

The federal government

146
Q

What may some states do in response to professional misconduct by an optometrist?

A

Take action against the optometrist personally.

147
Q

What should be done if a breach of patient confidentiality occurs?

A

Get immediate legal counsel.

148
Q

What is the best treatment for CME s/p yag cap

A

Topical steroid + topical NSAID

Example: 1 gtts ketorolac QID and 1 gtts prednisone acetate QID

149
Q

What is the fluorescein angiography pattern for CME?

A

Small HYPERfluorescent spots in early phase with “flower petal” pattern of HYPERfluorescent in late stage

150
Q

Chronic long standing CME can lead to?

A

Lamellar hole
*small fluid filled cystic spaces may fuse to form larger fovea cysts and coalesce and form a lamellar macular hole
* lamellar hole has poorer acuity and worse prognosis because it can cause irreversible damage to central vision

151
Q

White without pressure is commonly observed in which region of the retina?

A

Inferior temporal
*at the location of the vitreous base and Ora serrata

152
Q

Retinal dialysis

A

Retina torn from its insertion site at the Ora serrata

153
Q

Signs of blunt trauma to eye

A

Retinal dialysis
Choroidal rupture
Commotio retinae
Berlin’s edema
Hyphema
Lens subluxation
Iridodialysis

154
Q

Which population has the highest occurrence of white without pressure?

A

African Americans

155
Q

Which ancillary procedure should be performed if you have a patient that has white without pressure?

A

Scleral depression
*check for retinal holes, tears, or retinal detachments

156
Q

Cobblestone degeneration commonly found in which area of the retina?

A

Inferior temporal

157
Q

Potential surgical treatments for keratoconus

A

Corneal cross-linking
Deep anterior lamellar keratoplasty
Penetrating keratopasty

158
Q

Initial management of acute hydrops

A

1) Cycloplegic (reduce pain/photophobia)
2) Antibiotic (prophylactic to prevent infection)
3) hypertonic solution (reduce corneal edema)

atropine
ciprofloxacin
sodium chloride (use once defect has healed)

159
Q

Tx interstitial keratitis

A

Strong steroid (Pred acetate)

*If herpes simplex keratitis treat with topical antiviral like trifluridine

160
Q

Ocular HTN

A
  • IOP > 21 mmHg with open angle + without optic neuropathy
161
Q

Fill in the blank: The American Optometric Association (AOA) states that a breach of patient confidentiality can be the basis for a _______.

A

malpractice claim

162
Q

What is MEGALOCORNEA?

A

Rare, x-linked condition in males with horizontal corneal diameter greater than 13 mm.

Common in Marfan’s syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos, osteogenesis imperfecta. Associated with myopia, lens subluxation, angle abnormalities (glaucoma).

163
Q

What is MICROCORNEA?

A

Rare, autosomal dominant condition with horizontal corneal diameter < 10 mm.

Associated with hyperopia and risk for angle closure.

164
Q

What characterizes CORNEA PLANA?

A

Corneal curvature equal to scleral curvature (K ~ 20-30 D).

Associated with hyperopia, shallow anterior chamber, sclerocornea.

165
Q

What is ANIRIDIA?

A

Partial or complete loss of iris tissue.

Associated with glaucoma, foveal hypoplasia, disc hypoplasia, choroidal coloboma.

166
Q

What are HAAB’S STRIAE?

A

Horizontal cracks in Descemet’s membrane due to congenital glaucoma.

Indicate increased intraocular pressure.

167
Q

What is AXENFELD-RIEGER SYNDROME?

A

Developmental arrest of neural crest mesectoderm affecting anterior segment structures.

Type 1 has iridocorneal adhesions; Type 2 has lenticular-corneal adhesions.

168
Q

What is POSTERIOR EMBRYOTOXON?

A

Anteriorly displaced Schwalbe’s line.

Found in up to 15% of normal eyes.

169
Q

What characterizes AXENFELD ANOMALY?

A

Posterior embryotoxon plus angle abnormalities.

Increases risk for glaucoma.

170
Q

What is RIEGER ANOMALY?

A

Posterior embryotoxon plus angle abnormalities and iris stromal hypoplasia.

May include polycoria, corectopia, anterior synechiae.

Polycoria: more than 1 pupillary opening
Corectopia: pupil displacement
Anterior synechiae: iris sticks to cornea

171
Q

What is RIEGER SYNDROME?

A

Rieger anomaly plus systemic deformities affecting face, teeth, and bones.

172
Q

What is PETER’S ANOMALY?

A

Autosomal recessive condition with white corneal opacities and iris adhesions.

Can lead to secondary glaucoma.

173
Q

What is DELLEN?

A

Area of poor wetting leading to stromal dehydration and corneal thinning.

Risk factors include contact lens wear and filtering bleb.

174
Q

What is EXPOSURE KERATOPATHY?

A

Condition resulting from eyelid issues such as Bell’s palsy or ectropion.
*lagophthalmos, incomplete eyelid closure

175
Q

What is FILAMENTARY KERATOPATHY?

A

Chronic irritation or dryness resulting in filaments formed by degenerated epithelial cells and mucous.

176
Q

What is THYGESON’S SPK?

A

Acute recurrent bilateral inflammation with raised central corneal lesions.

Typically seen in younger patients.

177
Q

What is NEUROTROPHIC KERATITIS?

A

Loss of corneal epithelial repair due to damage to the trigeminal nerve.

Conditions include HSV, HZO, and diabetes.

178
Q

What is RECURRENT CORNEAL EROSION (RCE)?

A

Condition often associated with corneal dystrophies and trauma.

179
Q

What causes THERMAL/UV KERATOPATHY?

A

Prolonged sun exposure or welding without protective eyewear.

Results in apoptosis of corneal cells.

180
Q

What is KERATOCONJUNCTIVITIS SICCA?

A

Dry eye disease characterized by decreased tear production.

181
Q

What is the Schirmer 1 test?

A

Measures basal + emotional + reflex aqueous secretions; < 10 mm in 5 min indicates dry eye.

182
Q

What is AQUEOUS DEFICIENT dry eye?

183
Q

What is EVAPORATIVE dry eye?

A

Condition characterized by meibomian gland dysfunction or low blink rate.

184
Q

What is SUPERIOR EPITHELIAL ARCUATE LESION (SEAL)?

A

Condition due to tight contact lenses causing upper lid chafing.

185
Q

What is DIMPLE VEILING?

A

Occurs with RGP lenses that have excess inferior edge lift.

186
Q

What is CL ACUTE RED EYE?

A

Inflammatory reaction to Gram-negative bacterial toxins.

187
Q

What is CORNEAL WARPAGE (OVERWEAR SYNDROME)?

A

Condition seen in long-term PMMA or RGP wearers with poorly fitting lenses.

188
Q

What is SUPERIOR LIMBIC KERATOCONJUNCTIVITIS (SLK)?

A

Condition due to contact lens hypersensitivity or poor fitting lenses.

189
Q

What is TIGHT LENS SYNDROME?

A

Condition where contact lenses do not move with blinking, leading to redness and edema.

190
Q

Which hypersensitivity reaction is Staph marginal keratitis?

A

Type 3
Ag-Ab complex—-> complement response

191
Q

Hudson-Stahli line is iron deposits in which layer of the cornea?

A

Epithelium
* horizontal corneal epithelial iron line at the inferior third of the cornea at the level of tear film caused by normal aging

192
Q

Reis-Buckler

A

Rare, autosomal dominant corneal dystrophy
* donut shaped gray reticular opacities, painful episodes of RCE
*honeycombs

193
Q

Cone dystrophy

A

Slow progressive decrease central vision
* severe photophobia
* blue/yellow color loss
* central geographic atrophy of RPE —> bulls eye maculopathy
* temporal ONH pallor

194
Q

Tx for IIH

A

If pt obese, initiate program for weight loss (5-10%)

195
Q

Tx papilledema

A

Oral acetazolamide 1000-2000 mg po QD in divided doses, up to 4000 mg qd

196
Q

Pseudotumor cerebri may be associated with what conditions/ medications?

A

Conditions:
Venous sinus thrombosis
COPD
Pregnancy

Medications:
Tetracyclines
Vitamin A
Isotrentinoin (Accutane)
Contraceptives
Fluoroquinolones
Levothyroxine
Nalidixic acid

197
Q

Malignant HTN

A

Systolic >180 mmHg
Diastolic > 120 mmHg

198
Q

What are the phases of FA?

199
Q

Parinaud’s oculoglandular syndrome

A

Unilateral conjunctivitis with conjunctival granulomas and preauricular or submandibular lymphadenopathy
*may have fever, malaise and rash
* caused by cat-scratch fever, TB, syphilis, Epstein-Barr Virus, fungi, sarcoidosis

200
Q

Cat scratch disease caused by?

A

Bartonella henselae infection

201
Q

Wilson’s disease pathophysiology

A

Abnormal accumulation of copper in body
*affects pt 5-40 years old
*hepatolenticular disease

202
Q

Signs of Wilson’s disease

A

Kayser-Fleischer ring (copper at descemet’s)
Sunflower cataract

203
Q

In which layer of the cornea is copper deposited in Kayser-Fleischer ring?

A

Descemet’s membrane

204
Q

Chronic Alcoholism ocular signs

A

1) Optic nerve pallor
2) Up and downbeat nystagmus due to nerve hydrocephalus and demyelination
*alcoholism leads to nutritional deficit

205
Q

True or false
Staph marginal keratitis is a type III hypersensitivity reaction

206
Q

What are the most common cancers in men?

A

Prostate, lung, colon

207
Q

Most common cancers that lead to death in men and women?

A

Men: lung, prostate, colon
Women: lung, breast, colon

208
Q

Randot stereoacuity of < 40 arcseconds

A

Normal binocular stereoacuity

209
Q

50-100 arc seconds in randot stereoacuity means?

A

Good stereo vision

210
Q

Randot stereoacuity of 100-400 arc seconds means?

A

Fair stereo vision, mild impairment

211
Q

> 400 arc seconds or unable to perceive on Randot stereoacuity means what?

A

Poor or absent stereo vision (possible strab or amblyopia)

212
Q

Reye syndrome ocular manifestations
(Brain swelling)

A
  1. Dilated pupils
  2. Cortical blindness
  3. Papilledema
213
Q

SEI

A

Subepithelial infiltrates

214
Q

Tx for SLK

A

Silver nitrate solution
Bandage CL
Mast cell stabilizer (cromolyn QID, olopatadine BID)

215
Q

Syphilis is caused by what organism?

A

Treponema pallidum

  • sphirochette bacteria
  • 3 stages
  • end stage: neurosyphilis
  • congenital or acquired
  • congenital (Hutchinson’s triad: peg-shaped teeth, deafness and interstitial keratitis)
  • interstitial keratitis is inflammation of corneal stroma without prior epi or endo involvement
216
Q

Pulfrich phenomenon

A

Perception of Stereopsis (elliptical motion of pendulum) caused by difference in nerve conduction times between eyes and cortex
*seen in multiple sclerosis

217
Q

What is the phenomenon where a patient perceives elliptical motion of a pendulum? It is associated with multiple sclerosis

A

Pulfrich phenomenon

218
Q

Visual field anomaly in which a moving object can be seen but not a static one

A

Riddoch phenomenon

219
Q

Hyper mature cortical cataract in which liquified cortex allows nucleus to sink inferiorly

A

Morgangnian cataract

220
Q

Increased pigmentation anterior to Schwalbe line in pseudoexfoliation syndrome

A

Sampaoelesi line

221
Q

Scheie line

A

Pigment on lens equator and posterior capsule in pigment dispersion syndrome

222
Q

Forced vergence fixation disparity curve for eso fixation disparity and show poor adaptation to BI

223
Q

Does this forced vergence fixation disparity curve show eso or exo?

224
Q

What is the purpose of forced vergence fixation disparity curves?

A

Evaluate the efficiency of a patient’s Vergence system by observing how fixation disparity changes when different amounts of base-in and base-out prisms are introduced to the eyes

225
Q

Fusional vergence dysfunction symptoms

A
  1. Asthenopia at near
  2. Eye strain and headaches after short periods of reading, blurred vision, difficulty concentrating, sleepiness when performing near tasks
226
Q

What condition does this patient have?

Decreased NRA and PRA
Decreased NFV and PFV
Deceased accommodative facility
Normal phorias at distance and near
Normal AC/A

A

Fusional vergence dysfunction

227
Q

Vision therapy Exercises for convergence insufficiency

A

Pencil push ups
Eccentric circles free-space fusional cards
Brock string

228
Q
A

Persistent pupillary membrane
*congenital
* remnants of anterior tunica vasculosa lentis (did not fully disintegrate)
* does not affect vision

229
Q

Which tests directly measure the accommodative system?

A

Monocular facility testing with +/- 2.00 lenses
Monocular estimation method
Monocular amplitudes

230
Q

BIM is hard for exo or eso?

A

ESO
* difficult to clear with base in and minus power lenses

231
Q

True or false
Lag on MEM in basic esophoria

232
Q

Inheritance pattern for osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Autosomal dominant
* congenital
* brittle bones because abnormal production of type 1 collagen
* blue sclera

233
Q

What is the most common accommodative dysfunction observed in the general population?

A

Accommodative insufficiency

234
Q

Herbert pits

A

Scarred limbal follicles
*chalmydial conjunctivitis

235
Q

What caution should be exercised when prescribing tiotropium (Spiriva)

A

Caution with narrow angles/ hyperopic patients
*because drug causes mydriasis and can lead to angle closure—> increase IOP —> glaucoma

236
Q

Tilted disc syndrome typically causes what visual field defect?

A

Bilateral superior temporal defects
*disc insertion at an oblique angle inferior nasal —> superior temporal defect that does not respect the midline

237
Q

Crouzon syndrome is associated with what optic nerve condition?

A

Tilted disc syndrome
* Crouzon syndrome is autosomal dominant, results in proptosis due to shallow ocular orbits, maxillary hypoplasia, abnormal craniofacial formation, hypertelorism, and strabismus
*monitor for exposure keratitis because all affected with proptosis

238
Q

Average axial length

239
Q

Ocular signs of isolated complete cranial nerve 3 palsy

A

EOM limitations in ALL fields of gaze except temporally

240
Q

Partial EOM limitation in all field of gaze except temporally described what external ophthalmoplegia?

A

Incomplete isolated cranial nerve 3 palsy

241
Q

What is 3 AND 9 O’CLOCK STAINING?

A

Common complication of GP lens wear due to low-riding lenses that leave parts of the cornea uncovered.

242
Q

What is the definition of external ophthalmoplegia?

A

Extraocular muscle impairment

This refers to the inability to move the eyes properly due to muscle dysfunction.

243
Q

What characterizes complete 3rd nerve palsy?

A

Extraocular muscle limitation in all fields of gaze except temporally

This means the patient cannot move their eyes in any direction except outward.

244
Q

What distinguishes incomplete 3rd nerve palsy from complete 3rd nerve palsy?

A

Partial extraocular muscle limitation in all fields of gaze except temporally

Incomplete palsy allows for some movement in certain directions.

245
Q

What is a superior division palsy?

A

Inability to look up only

This type of palsy affects the muscles responsible for upward eye movement.

246
Q

What is an inferior division palsy?

A

Inability to look nasally or inferiorly, with a dilated pupil

This indicates that the muscles controlling downward and inward movement are affected.

247
Q

What does internal ophthalmoplegia refer to?

A

Pupil reaction

This involves the response of the pupil to light and accommodation.

248
Q

What is a pupil-involving condition?

A

Fixed, dilated, poorly reactive pupillary response to light

This indicates significant nerve damage affecting pupillary function.

249
Q

What is a pupil-sparing condition?

A

Pupil is not dilated; normal response to light

This suggests that the pupil is functioning normally despite other symptoms.

250
Q

What characterizes a relative pupil-sparing condition?

A

Partially dilated pupil; sluggish reaction to light

This indicates some impairment in pupillary function, but not complete loss.

251
Q

What is the first step in evaluating patients with an acute isolated third nerve palsy?

A

Immediate CNS imaging should be completed

This is to rule out a space-occupying lesion or aneurysm.

252
Q

What type of third nerve palsy requires immediate CNS imaging?

A

Pupil-involving 3rd nerve palsies

This includes either relative or complete involvement.

253
Q

List the associated factors for pupil-sparing third nerve palsies that necessitate CNS imaging.

A
  • Patients <50 years old (unless long-standing diabetes or hypertension is present)
  • Incomplete third nerve palsies
  • Patients with additional cranial nerve abnormalities or neurologic symptoms
  • Children <10 years old (regardless of pupil status)

Incomplete palsies may evolve into complete pupil-involving palsies.

254
Q

What is a situation where prompt CNS imaging should be obtained?

A

When aberrant regeneration develops

This excludes regeneration in post-traumatic third nerve palsies.

255
Q

When should imaging be obtained for pupil-sparing third nerve palsies?

A

If they have not resolved within a period of 3 months

Close monitoring is necessary for signs or symptoms progression.

256
Q

Is imaging typically required for complete pupil-sparing third nerve palsy?

A

No, it is not typically required

Especially in patients >50 years old with a known history of vascular disease.

257
Q

In order to determine unknown etiology of anisocoria, which drop would you instill if anisocoria was greater in dim illumination?

A

10% cocaine
*will dilate normal pupils only

258
Q

In order to determine unknown etiology of anisocoria, which drop would you instill if anisocoria was greater in bright conditions?

A

0.125% pilocarpine
*check if enlarged pupil will constrict
*0.125% pilocarpine will not dilate normal pupil

259
Q

True or False: Imaging is required for all patients with third nerve palsy.

A

False

Imaging is not typically required for complete pupil-sparing third nerve palsies.

NBEO Part 2 (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions