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NBEO Part 2 > Cumulative > Flashcards

Cumulative Flashcards

1
Q

Carotid cavernous fistula is caused by?
And what is the triad?

A

Closed head trauma, spontaneous ruptured carotid aneurysm and high pressure blood from carotid posterior to globe

Triad
1) chemosis
2) pulsatile proptosis
3) ocular bruit

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2
Q

Hyperthyroid systemic symptoms

A

Heat intolerance
Weight loss
Palpitations
sweating
Irritability

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3
Q

Thyroid function tests

A

TSH
T4
T3
TSI

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4
Q

Which hormones are increased in hyperthyroidism?

A

T3 & T4
TSI

T3: triiodothyronine
T4: thyroxine (total and free)
TSI: thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin

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5
Q

True or false
TSH is high in hyperthyroidism

A

FALSE!!!
* TSH is low while T3, T4 and TSI are high

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6
Q

NO SPECS is a mnemonic for the eye findings in which disease?

A

Grave’s disease

NO SPECS
N: no signs or symptoms
O: only signs
S: soft tissue involvement (s/s)
P: proptosis
E: extra ocular muscle involvement
C: corneal involvement (SLK)
S: sight loss (optic nerve compression)

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7
Q

TED mostly affects what age and gender?

A

females 30-40 years old

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8
Q

True or false
Tolosa hunt syndrome leads to painful external ophthalmoplegia

A

TRUE
*inflammation of the orbital apex and anterior cavernous sinus

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9
Q

Dalrymple’s sign

A

Widened palpebral fissure due to upper eyelid retraction in thyroid disease

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10
Q

Globe lags behind upper lid on up gaze in thyroid disease

A

Kocher’s sign

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11
Q

Lid lag on down gaze in thyroid disease

A

Von Graefe’s sign

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12
Q

TED ocular signs (name at least 5)

A

Eyelid retraction
Edema
Lagophthalmos
Lid lag
Reduced blinking
Superficial keratopathy
Conjunctival injection
Exophthalmos
EOM limitations
(+) forced duction
Decreased VA
Decreased color vision
RAPD
VF defects

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13
Q

Tx for optic neuropathy secondary to Grave’s disease

A

Immediate treatment with oral steroids

Orbital decompression for compressive optic neuropathy
* performed by oculoplastic surgeon

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14
Q

Tolosa-hunt syndrome

A

Rare, idiopathic orbital inflammation of cavernous sinus + superior orbital fissure = acute painful external ophthalmoplegia

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15
Q

Tx for corneal exposure due to eyelid retraction, lagophthalmos and reduced blink rate in TED

A
  • AT’s up to q1h
  • Ointment QHS
  • lid taping or moisture chamber goggles at bedtime
  • punctal occlusion for severe dry eyes
  • permanent lateral tarsorryhaphy or canthorrhaphy for lateral chemosis or widened lateral palpebral fissure
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16
Q

Steven Johnson syndrome is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type 4

  • hypersensitivity to drug/infectious agent
  • sulfonamides= pseudoblistering of conjunctiva (BM intact, inflammation below)
  • amoxicillin and Augmentin can cause SJS
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17
Q

Basal cell carcinoma is more common in males or females?

A

Males
* fair skin
* UV exposure

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18
Q

Pt with hx of chronic unilateral chalazia should be evaluated for what?

A

Sebaceous gland carcinoma
* F>M
* malignancy of sebaceous glands, highly infiltrative + inflammatory, high mortality rate

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19
Q

What is the most lethal primary skin cancer of the melanocytes?

A

Malignant melanoma

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20
Q

True or false SCC is more aggressive than BCC

A

TRUE
* 2nd most common eyelid malignancy
* M>F

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21
Q

What conjunctival lesion is the precursor to SCC of the conjunctiva?

A

Conjunctival intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)
* looks gelatinous and white near limbus
* can lead to SCC
* mostly in elderly white males, heavy smokers, UV radiation, HPV

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22
Q

Phlyctenules are what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type 4!!
* in teenage girls
* located at limbus
* ask about Hx TB
* hypersensitivity reaction to staph blepharitis, goes away in ~14 days
* associated with rosacea

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23
Q

Yoked and Fresnel prisms are for near or distance?

A

Near

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24
Q

Reverse telescopes are used for?

A

Ambulating
*increase field of view

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25
Q

Patient wants to be able to read 20/40 letters on a bus, what is the most appropriate power of a telescope to meet this goal?

OD: +4.00 -2.00 x090 distance 20/100, near 20/100 @ 40cm

OS: +4.00 -2.00 x 000 VA 20/400 distance, near 20/400 @ 40cm

A

2.5X telescope

Steps to solve:
1) take denominator of can read and divide it by want to read
100/40 =2.5

2) 2.5X telescope will allow pt to see 20/40 without decrease in FOV

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26
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Coat’s disease?

A

None,
It’s idiopathic, non-hereditary

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27
Q

S/S of Coats disease (name at least 3)

A

Leukocoria
Strabismus
Nystagmus
Decreased VA
Pain
Iris heterochromia (because of NVI)

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28
Q

If Coat’s disease is left untreated, how would the disease progress?

A
  1. Lead to end stage total exudative RD and neovascular glaucoma
  2. Can cause blind and painful eye
  3. Enucleation
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29
Q

Coats disease can lead to what type of retinal detachment?

A

Exudative RD

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30
Q

What is an adverse prognostic factor related to histological features in choroidal melanomas?

A

Large number of epithelioid cells (vs. spindle cells)

Epithelioid cells are associated with a worse prognosis compared to spindle cells.

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31
Q

What pigmentation characteristic is associated with a worse prognosis in choroidal melanomas?

A

Lack of pigmentation

Tumors that lack pigmentation tend to be more aggressive.

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32
Q

Why will an RD located superiorly be more likely to spread than an RD located inferiorly?

A

Because of gravity
* emergency! Refer to retinal specialist ASAP

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33
Q

At what gestational age does the retinal vasculature reach the nasal periphery?

A

8 months gestation

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34
Q

At what age does the retinal vasculature reach the temporal periphery in normal gestation?

A

1 month after birth

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35
Q
A

Choroidal melanoma

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36
Q
A

Choroidal nevus

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37
Q

Myelinated nerve fiber layer can be associated with what ocular conditions?

A

Amblyopia
Strabismus
Nystagmus
Myopia
Optic neuritis
Neovascularization of the retina

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38
Q

Tx for toxocariasis

A

Prednisone
* Tx intraocular inflammation caused by death of toxocara larva and eye reaction immunologically to the antigens released

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39
Q

What lab tests helps confirm toxocariasis?

A

ELISA
* toxocara ELISA testing

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40
Q

Inheritance pattern of Stargardt

A

Autosomal recessive

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41
Q

ERG and EOG in best disease

A

Normal ERG
Abnormal EOG

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42
Q

What does EOG measure?

A

Potential between bruch’s membrane (RPE) and cornea

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43
Q

ERG and EOG in Stargardt

A

Normal ERG and EOG

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45
Q

GPC shows what two types of hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Type I and Type IV

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46
Q

GPC symptoms

A

Contact lens intolerance
Blurred vision
Excessive lens movement with blinking
Pruritis and mucous production
* general discomfort develops 2-3 years after previously tolerating contacts well

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47
Q

GPC diagnosis is characterized by the presence of?

A

Large papillae located on the upper tarsal conjunctiva
*associated with Hx of CL wear

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48
Q

What is the pathophysiology of GPC?

A

Immune reaction to denatured protein deposits
Mechanical irritation for the superior tarsal conjunctiva

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49
Q

Tx and RTC for GPC

A
  1. Discontinue CL wear
  2. Mast cell stabilizer example: oloptadine 1 gtt OU bid for 2 weeks

RTC 2-4 weeks

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50
Q

Tx for contact dermatitis

A
  1. Determine and remove offending agent (ex: new make up, eye cream, lotion)
  2. Cool compress
  3. PF AT’s and topical antihistamine/ mast cell stabilizer combo
  4. Topical steroid cream for eyelids (dexamethasone 0.05% bid or tid for 5 days)
    * oral antihistamine like Benadryl can be added
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51
Q

RTC for contact dermatitis

A

1 week

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52
Q

What skin lesion is a precursor to SCC of the eyelids?

A

Actinic keratosis
* occur on inferior eyelid/ sun exposed areas of skins
* older white patients

*squamous cell carcinoma occurs due to excessive proliferation of the stratum spinosum (cell division should not occur at this layer, that’s why SCC is more invasive than BCC)

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53
Q

What are the layers of the skin epidermis from superficial to deep?

A

Superficial
Stratum corneum
Stratum lucidum
Stratum granulosum
Stratum spinosum (abnormal for cell division, SCC occurs in this layer)
Stratum basale (normal for cell division, BCC occurs in this layer)
Deep

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54
Q

What does a positive Jones 1 test mean?

A

Patent punctum and no blockage

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55
Q

If Jones 1 is negative what is the next step?

A

Irrigate with saline

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56
Q

Saline irrigation in Jones 2 demonstrates reflux of fluid through the same punctum, where is the blockage?

A

Upper/lower canaliculus blockage

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57
Q

Saline irrigation in Jones 2 shows retrograde flow through opposite canaliculus, where is the blockage?

A

Nasolacrimal duct

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58
Q

Saline irrigation in Jones 2 patient tastes saline/ recover in nose, what does that mean?

A

Blockage is cleared

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59
Q

HSV dosage for acyclovir

A

400mg po 5x/day for 7 days

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60
Q

HZO dose for acyclovir

A

800mg 5x/day for 7 days

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61
Q

HSV dosage for valacyclovir

A

500mg TID po for 7 days

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62
Q

HZO dose for valacyclovir

A

1000 mg po TID for 7 days

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63
Q

AIDS medication Retrovir may cause what ocular conditions?

A

Amblyopia
Macular edema

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64
Q

Causes of whorl keratopathy

A

CHAI T

Chloroquine
Hydroxychloroquine
Amiodarone
Indomethacin
Tamoxifen

And Fabry’s disease

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65
Q

Which drugs can cause NAION? (4)

A

Amiodarone
Imitrex
Vardenafil
Viagra

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66
Q

Causes of bull’s eye maculopathy

A

Chloroquine
Hydroxychloroquine
Progressive cone dystrophy
Stargardt’s disease
Thioridazine

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67
Q

Name 2 commonly used aminoglycosides

A

Tobramycin
Gentamicin

68
Q

Dosage for besifloxacin

A

TID to q1h

69
Q

Name 2 commonly used macrolides

A

Azithromycin
Erythromycin

70
Q

Cyclosporine drug class
(Restasis)

A

Immunomodulator

71
Q

Keflex drug class

A

Cephalosporins
* Keflex is brand name for cephalexin

72
Q

Tx for endogenous endophthalmitis caused by fungal Candida

A
  • Systemic antifungal
  • If moderate to severe inflammation: pars plana vitrectomy and intraocular injection of antifungal and steroid
  • topical steroid and cycloplegic
  • medical consultation
73
Q

Fungal infections such as candidiasis mostly occur in what type of patients?

A

Immunocompromised
IV drug abusers

74
Q

RTC for candidiasis

75
Q

Oral antibiotics used to treat MRSA

A
  • Bactrim (trimethoprim + sulfamethoxazole)
  • Doxycycline
  • Clindamycin
76
Q

Intravenous antibiotics used to treat severe MRSA infections

A

Vancomycin

77
Q

Bacteria that invades intact corneal epithelium

A

Corynebacterium diptheriae
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Haemophilus
Listeria

Canadian National Hockey League invades intact corneal epithelium

78
Q

Etiology of acanthamoeba keratitis

A

Contact lens wearers using nonsterile water or have poor CL cleaning habits
* patients who wore CL while in fresh water environments like lakes or in a hot tub

79
Q

Signs for acanthamoeba keratitis

A

Early
1. Mild SPK, pseudo dendrite (will stain with FL)
*misdiagnosed as herpes simplex!

Late stages (3-8 weeks)
2. Ring ulcer and corneal melt

80
Q

Tx for acanthamoeba keratitis

A
  1. Discontinue CL wear
  2. Polyhexamethylene biguanide q1h, chlorhexidine q1h, propamidine isethionate q1h or dibromopropamidine isethionate ointment
  3. Can also use antifungal
  4. Topical cycloplegic and oral NSAID for pain

RTC 1-4 days, then 1-3 weeks
Treatment for 3-12 months

81
Q

What does ERG measure?

A

Electrical currents across the eye

*Cornea is positive relative to RPE
*when retina is stimulated, specific retinal cells become excited and firm the electrical wave that creates ERG

82
Q

What is ocular histoplasmosis?

A

A retinal condition linked to a type of fungus known as Histoplasma capsulatum

83
Q

What type of organism causes ocular histoplasmosis?

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

84
Q

How is Histoplasma capsulatum contracted?

A

Through inhalation

85
Q

Multiple sclerosis s/s

A

S/S:
Numbness
Fatigue
Muscle weakness
Optic neuritis

86
Q

Syndrome with optic atrophy in one eye and disc edema in the fellow eye

A

Foster-Kennedy syndrome

*vision loss from intracranial mass compressing optic nerve, and papilledema in the other eye due to increased intracranial pressure

87
Q

Tx for optic neuritis associated with MS

A

IV steroids
Followed by oral steroids along with interferon beta-1a treatment

*stabilize condition and reduced risk of progression of optic neuropathy for 2-3 years

88
Q

What VF defects can optic neuritis cause?

A

Altitudinal defect
Overall depression central 30 degrees
Central/centrocecal scotoma

89
Q

Demographic for MS

A

18-45 females
Raised in northern hemisphere

90
Q

Hutchinson sign

A

Herpes zoster lesion on tip or side of nose
*signal development of ocular involvement

91
Q

Shafer’s sign

A

Release of pigment into the vitreous chamber from retinal tear
* noted with sudden increase in floaters

92
Q

Psoriasis Skin scale is removed and pinpoint bleeding occurs

A

Auspitz sign

93
Q

What diagnostic testing do you order if you suspect ankylosing spondylitis?

A

1) CBC
2) ESR
3) HLA-B27
4) Sacroiliac spine radiograph

94
Q

In which layer of the cornea do deposits accumulate in whorl keratopathy?

A

Epithelium
*yellow/brown or white
*located inferior to visual axis, spins outward

Associated with drug use:
amiodarone class 3 anti-arrhythmic
Chloroquine
Hydroxychloroquine
Indomethacin
Tamoxifen

95
Q

Red cap desaturation test procedure

A
  1. Pt wears best near correction, fully lit room
  2. Better seeing eye is tested first, occlude weaker eye
  3. Show patient red cap bottle and tell them this is 100%, then switch to weaker eye
  4. Ask patient to compare level of saturation of red between the two eyes as a percentage from 100%
  • perceived difference between the eyes of 20% or more = APD likely
96
Q

True or false
Aspirin can make symptoms of tinnitus worse

A

TRUE
* tinnitus is caused by damage to hair cells in inner ear from exposure to excessive noise, medications (aspirin), aging and diseases

97
Q

DBL + A =?

98
Q

Minimum blank size equation

A

MBS = ED + TLD

ED: effective diameter
TLD: total lens decentration (TLD = |(A + DBL) - distance PD)

99
Q

Which layer of the cornea is affected in acute hydrops in patients with keratoconus?

A

Descemet’s membrane

100
Q

Transpose plus cyl into minus cyl form
OD: - 4.25 + 0.75 x 077
OS: - 4.00 + 1.00 x 098

A

OD: -3.50 - 0.75 x 167
OS: -3.00 - 1.00 x 008

101
Q

What is the average annual progression rate for childhood myopia?

A

0.3 to 0.5 diopters per year

102
Q

Is Positive relative accommodation indirect or direct measure of accommodation?

A

Indirect
* measures ability to increase accommodation while maintaining a clear, single binocular vision
* how much negative lens power tolerate before blur occurs at near target

Normal PRA -3.00
low PRA (early blur) = reduced accommodative ability (accommodative insufficiency or convergence excess)
High PRA (excessive minus tolerated) = overactive accommodation or accommodative spasm

103
Q

Neomycin + poly B + dexamethasone

104
Q

Which IOP lowering drug class is contraindicated in patients with sickle cell?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
*because they can cause metabolic acidosis, increase risk for hypoxia and exacerbate sickle cell retinopathy

105
Q

Can a patient with sickle cell use acetazolamide to lower IOP?

A

NO!!!
Because it can cause metabolic acidosis
*this would make blood pH acidic and promotes red blood cell sickling

106
Q

What is the Americans with Disabilities Act? (ADA)

A

Civil rights law that prohibits discrimination against individuals with disabilities. Ensures equal opportunities and access to public spaces, employment, and transportation.

107
Q

Which drugs should be avoided in children and pregnant women because they damage blood marrow?

A

Methotrexate (immunomodulator)
Pyrimethamine (tx toxo)
Trimethoprim (+ sulfamethazine = Bactrim)

108
Q

Methotrexate is used to treat what autoimmune and inflammatory diseases?
(MOA: folate antagonist)

A

Rheumatoid arthritis
Psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis
Inflammatory bowel disease
Lupus
Uveitis and scleritis

*can also be used as cancer treatment for lymphomas and leukemias

109
Q

Which infectious disease is caused by inhalation of fungal spores from bird and bat droppings?

A

Histoplasmosis

110
Q

What conditions can cause both unilateral and bilateral swollen nerves?

A
  • Sarcoidosis
  • TB
  • Syphilis
  • Lupus

These conditions affect the optic nerves.

111
Q

What are the causes of premature cataracts?

A

Atopic Dermatitis, Diabetes, Myotonic Dystrophy, and Wilson’s Disease

Mnemonic: Wilson is MAD about early cataracts
M: myotonic dystrophy
A: atopic dermatitis
D: Diabetes

These conditions can lead to early cataract formation.

112
Q

How can swollen nerves be categorized?

A

Based on if the swelling is unilateral or bilateral

This classification helps in diagnosis.

113
Q

What causes bilateral swollen optic nerves (papilledema)?

A

Increased intracranial pressure

This can be due to various systemic conditions.

114
Q

What causes unilateral swollen nerves (papillitis)?

A

Complications anterior to the optic chiasm such as:
* Vascular (Diabetes, Central Retinal Vein Occlusions)
* Ischemic (NAION, AION)
* Compressive (Thyroid)
* Optic Disc Drusen

These factors lead to localized nerve swelling.

115
Q

What medications can cause Pseudotumor Cerebri?

A

Accutane, Idiopathic, Nalidixic Acid, Oral Contraceptives, Tetracyclines, and Vitamin A

These substances are linked to increased intracranial pressure.

116
Q

What causes retinal neovascularization and subsequent tractional retinal detachments?

A

Diabetic retinopathy, ocular ischemic syndrome, retinopathy of prematurity, sickle cell retinopathy, and vein occlusions

These conditions lead to abnormal blood vessel growth in the retina.

117
Q

What are the causes of transillumination defects?

A
  • Pigment dispersion syndrome
  • pseudoexfoliation syndrome
  • albinism
  • herpetic uveitis
  • trauma
  • PCIOL intraocular surgery
118
Q

What causes whorl keratopathy?

A

Amiodarone, Chloroquine, Hydroxychloroquine, Fabry’s Disease, Indomethacin, and Tamoxifen

These substances can lead to characteristic corneal changes.

119
Q

What are the causes of hypopyon?

A

Bechet’s Disease, VKH Syndrome, Endophthalmitis, Bacterial Keratitis, and Blebitis

Retinoblastoma may also cause a pseudohypopyon.

120
Q

Which bacteria can invade the intact corneal epithelium?

A

Corynebacterium diphtheria, Haemophilus, Listeria, Neisseria gonorrhea, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa

These pathogens can lead to serious ocular infections.

121
Q

Nalidixic acid MOA

A

Inhibits DNA gyrase
* can cause increased intracranial pressure —> pseudotumor cerebri

122
Q

DEPRIVENS is the mnemonic for diseases that can cause cystoid macular edema, name them.

A

D: Diabetes
E: Epinephrine
P: Pars Planitis
R: Retinitis pigmentosa
I: Irvine-Gas’s
V: Vein Occlusions
E: E2-Prostaglandin
N: Nicotinic acid and Niacin
S: Surgery

123
Q

Imitrex drug class, MOA, indication and ocular sequelae

A

Serotonin receptor agonists

MOA: vasoconstrictor of cranial blood vessels

Indicators for migraines and cluster headaches

Can cause NAION

125
Q

What are the risk factors for retinal breaks?

A

High myopia, lattice degeneration, aphakia/pseudophakia, and trauma

These factors increase the likelihood of retinal detachment.

126
Q

What mnemonic can be used to remember the causes of Angioid Streaks?

A

PEPSI: Pseudoxanthoma Elasticum, Ehlers Danlos, Paget’s, Sickle Cell Disease, Idiopathic

Each letter of PEPSI corresponds to a specific condition that causes Angioid Streaks.

127
Q

What are the causes of blue sclera?

A
  • Minocycline
  • Ehlers Danlos Syndrome
  • Rheumatoid Arthritis
  • Scleritis

Blue sclera can be indicative of various underlying conditions.

128
Q

Name some causes of exudative retinal detachments.

A
  • Central Serous Retinopathy
  • VKH Syndrome
  • Optic Pits
  • Morning-Glory Syndrome
  • Coats Disease

Exudative retinal detachments can result from several syndromes and diseases.

129
Q

What can cause bull’s eye maculopathy?

A
  • Chloroquine
  • Hydroxychloroquine
  • Progressive Cone Dystrophy
  • Stargardt’s Disease
  • Thioridazine

Bull’s eye maculopathy is associated with drug toxicity and genetic conditions.

130
Q

List some causes of keratoconus.

A
  • Down’s Syndrome
  • Ehlers Danlos Syndrome
  • Marfan’s Syndrome
  • Osteogenesis Imperfecta
  • Turner Syndrome

Keratoconus is a progressive eye disease that can be associated with these syndromes.

131
Q

What are the causes of lens subluxation?

A
  • Blunt trauma
  • Marfan’s Syndrome
  • Homocystinuria
  • Ectopia Lentis et Pupillae
  • Hyperlysinemia
  • Microspherophakia
  • Sulfite Oxidase Deficiency
  • Simple Ectopia Lentis

Lens subluxation can occur due to genetic conditions or trauma.

132
Q

What can lead to macular thickening?

A
  • Chronic intraocular inflammation
  • Intraocular surgery
  • Intraocular tumor
  • BRVO
  • Best’s disease
  • Retinitis pigmentosa
  • Neuroretinitis

Rhegmatogenous retinal detachments do NOT cause macular thickening.

133
Q

What are the causes of Nyctalopia?

A
  • Thioridazine Retinopathy
  • Retinitis Pigmentosa
  • Gyrate Atrophy
  • Enhanced S-Cone Syndrome/Goldmann-Favre Syndrome
  • Choroideremia

Nyctalopia, or night blindness, can be caused by various retinal conditions.

134
Q

What can cause papillae?

A
  • Allergies
  • Bacteria
  • Idiopathic

The presence of papillae can be due to allergic reactions or infections.

135
Q
A

Capillary hemangioma
* most common BENIGN orbital tumors in children
* will spontaneously resolve/disappear by the patient turns 10

137
Q

Patient unhappy with vision through new glasses, what is the FIRST thing you should do?

A

Verify the prescription is correct via lensometer

138
Q

Inheritance pattern for juvenile retinoschisis

A

X-linked recessive
*mostly affects males, females are carriers

139
Q

4.5 year old white male
OD: +0.75 DS
OS: +1.00 DS
BCVA 20/50 OD, OS

A

Juvenile retinoschisis
* X-linked recessive

140
Q

Pathophysiology of retinoschisis

A

Separation of nerve fiber layer from outer retinal layers

141
Q

True or false
Highest incidence of retinoschisis is in African Americans

A

FALSE
highest incidence in caucasians

142
Q

What are some causes of photophobia?

A
  • Albinism
  • Aniridia
  • Aphakia/Pseudophakia
  • Cataracts
  • Macular degeneration
  • Retinitis pigmentosa

Photophobia, or light sensitivity, can arise from various ocular conditions.

143
Q

What is the legal doctrine known as respondeat superior?

A

A doctrine meaning ‘let the master answer’ where an employer is responsible for the actions of an employee.

144
Q

Can a patient sue an optometrist directly for breaching confidentiality?

A

Yes, a patient can sue the optometrist for breaching confidentiality even if an employee made the disclosure.

145
Q

What federal act can a patient file a complaint under for a violation of confidentiality?

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA)

146
Q

True or False: Patients can file private lawsuits under HIPAA.

147
Q

Who may pursue a claim against an optometrist’s office for a HIPAA violation?

A

The federal government

148
Q

What may some states do in response to professional misconduct by an optometrist?

A

Take action against the optometrist personally.

149
Q

What should be done if a breach of patient confidentiality occurs?

A

Get immediate legal counsel.

150
Q

What is the best treatment for CME s/p yag cap

A

Topical steroid + topical NSAID

Example: 1 gtts ketorolac QID and 1 gtts prednisone acetate QID

151
Q

What is the fluorescein angiography pattern for CME?

A

Small HYPERfluorescent spots in early phase with “flower petal” pattern of HYPERfluorescent in late stage

152
Q

Chronic long standing CME can lead to?

A

Lamellar hole
*small fluid filled cystic spaces may fuse to form larger fovea cysts and coalesce and form a lamellar macular hole
* lamellar hole has poorer acuity and worse prognosis because it can cause irreversible damage to central vision

153
Q

White without pressure is commonly observed in which region of the retina?

A

Inferior temporal
*at the location of the vitreous base and Ora serrata

154
Q

Retinal dialysis

A

Retina torn from its insertion site at the Ora serrata

155
Q

Signs of blunt trauma to eye

A

Retinal dialysis
Choroidal rupture
Commotio retinae
Berlin’s edema
Hyphema

156
Q

Which population has the highest occurrence of white without pressure?

A

African Americans

157
Q

Which ancillary procedure should be performed if you have a patient that has white without pressure?

A

Scleral depression
*check for retinal holes, tears, or retinal detachments

158
Q

Cobblestone degeneration commonly found in which area of the retina?

A

Inferior temporal

160
Q

Potential surgical treatments for keratoconus

A

Corneal cross-linking
Penetrating keratopasty
Deep anterior lamellar keratoplasty

161
Q

Initial management of acute hydrops

A

1) Cycloplegic (reduce pain/photophobia)
2) Antibiotic (prophylactic to prevent infection)
3) hypertonic solution (reduce corneal edema)

atropine
ciprofloxacin
** sodium chloride (use once defect has healed)**

162
Q

Tx interstitial keratitis

A

Strong steroid (Pred acetate)

*If herpes simplex keratitis treat with topical antiviral like trifluridine

163
Q

Ocular HTN

A
  • IOP > 21 mmHg with open angle + without optic neuropathy
164
Q

Fill in the blank: The American Optometric Association (AOA) states that a breach of patient confidentiality can be the basis for a _______.

A

malpractice claim

NBEO Part 2 (23 decks)

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