CUC Solutions Flashcards

1
Q

What line of Cisco products enables real-time video communications?

A

Cisco Unified Video Advantage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the maximum number of IP phones supported on CME?

A

450

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name two examples of voice applications that use Tcl scripts.

A

Basic ACD and Cisco IP AutoAttendant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What CME feature provides support for third-party applications?

A

Cisco Telephony Application Programming Interface (TAPI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What two protocols does CME use to communicate with IP phones for call setup and signaling?

A

SIP and SCCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What router-based Cisco product provides IVR capabilities?

A

Cisco Unity Express

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What’s the name of the feature that allows CME admins to maintain contact information?

A

Directory services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What CME feature extends the product’s feature set to desktop applications?

A

Computer telephony integration (CTI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What two protocols can CME use to trunk voice calls over the WAN to CUCM?

A

H.323 and SIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe how Cisco Unity Express communicates with CME running on the same router.

A

It uses SIP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What voice codecs does Cisco Unity Express support?

A

G.711 only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How many unsecured IP phones can a CUCM cluster support?

A

30,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How many secured IP phones can a CUCM cluster support?

A

27,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What protocol does the CUCM Disaster Recovery System use to perform backups?

A

SFTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the make and model of the database used by CUCM?

A

IBM Informix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name the five Cisco platforms supported by the Cisco Unified Operating System.

A
Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Cisco Emergency Responder
Cisco Unity Connection
Cisco Unified Presence
Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the minimum CPU, RAM, and hard drive sizes for a CUCM installation on a physical server?

A

2 GHz CPU
2 GB RAM
72 GB hard drive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

With what CUCM version did Cisco begin supporting installations on VMs?

A

8.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How many end users can a CUCM installation support in a virtualized environment?

A

7,500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What Cisco Unified OS application is used to migrate CUCM from a physical server to a virtual server?

A

The Disaster Recovery Framework

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When CUCM is installed on a VM, what is used for the MAC address that’s required for licensing?

A

A hash of a set of data on the server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the maximum number of CallManager publishers and subscribers allowed in a CUCM cluster?

A

One publisher, eight subscribers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How many CUCM instances can be grouped together for IP phone registration redundancy?

A

Three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How many CallManager instances can an IP phone register with to maximize redundancy?

A

Four (three in a group, plus SRST)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Name the three factors that affect how many subscriber servers are added to a CUCM cluster.

A

Redunancy
Load sharing
Scalability (number of phones supported)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the user count threshold for when Cisco recommends a dedicated TFTP server?

A

1,250

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How many TFTP servers can be configured in a CUCM cluster?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the definition of a CUCM server cluster?

A

A group of servers that share the same SQL database

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which servers in a CUCM cluster have read-write copies of the SQL database?

A

Just the publisher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Give the two primary reasons CME steps out of the middle of the RTP stream between two phones.

A
  1. It eliminates the router as a point of failure.

2. It prevents the router from becoming a bottleneck.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Name the two form factors that CUE comes on and the two primary differences between them.

A

The Internal Services Module (ISM) and Services Module (SM). The ISM is installed inside the router and uses flash memory; the SM is installed from the outside and uses a hard drive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Name the two types of communication used within a CUCM cluster.

A

Intracluster Communication Signaling (ICCS), which shares device registrations, location bandwidth, and media resources.
2. CDRs/CMRs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What ports does ICCS use?

A

TCP 8002-8004

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What do CUCM subscribers do with CDRs and CMRs when the publisher is unreachable?

A

They are stored on the hard drive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where does the CUCM publisher store CDRs and CMRs?

A

In the CDR Analysis and Reporting database (CAR).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What protocol property do applications use to support advanced features while interoperating with less functional applications?

A

SIP protocol extensions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Name the two primary functions of the CUCM publisher.

A
  1. Maintain the SQL database

2. Respond to TFTP requests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Name the CUCM click-to-call application that allows users to place calls from their PCs using any supported phone device.

A

Cisco WebDialer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the minimum CPU, RAM, and hard drive sizes for a CUC installation?

A

2 GHz CPU
2 GB RAM
146 GB hard drive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What installation practice would allow upgrades to CUC without bringing down the server?

A

Dual partitions running CUC concurrently.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How many CUCM servers can a phone know about for redundancy purposes?

A

Three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

True or False: When the CUCM publisher is unavailable, subscribers copy user-facing data among themselves until the publisher returns.

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How many mailboxes can Cisco Unity Express support?

A

300

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Active/Active or Active/Standby: What type of redundancy does CUC use?

A

Active/Active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How many mailboxes can CUC support?

A

20,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What CUCM version permits CUC to be installed on the same physical server?

A

CUCM Business Edition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How many voice mail ports can a redundant CUC implementation support?

A

500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Name four types of calls whose frequency and duration should be considered when sizing CUC voice mail ports.

A
  1. Calls to the auto-attendant
  2. Checking voice mail
  3. Leaving voice mail
  4. MWI on/off
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How does CUC inform a phone user that he or she has a voice mail waiting?

A

It places a call to the MWI On extension on CUCM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How does CUC know which mailbox to send a message to when a call is routed to it after a phone user doesn’t pick up?

A

The call information coming from CUCM includes the called party.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

This set of Internet multimedia messaging protocols, including MIME, is supported by CUC for integration between several types of messaging platforms.

A

Voice Protocol for Internet Mail (VPIM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How is the CUC publisher chosen in an Active/Active server pairing?

A

It’s the first one installed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What CUPS structure enables an industry standard for collaboration between different user clients?

A

The Jabber Extensible Communications Platform (XCP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Name the two ways of determining current presence status.

A
  1. Automatic events (e.g., phone off hook)

2. Explicit settings (e.g., DND)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Name two protocols that XCP can use to interoperate with non-CUPS applications like Google Talk.

A
  1. SIP

2. Extensible Messaging and Presence Protocol (XMPP)

56
Q

Define “persistent chat.”

A

It’s a permanent chat session that users can join and see the conversation history.

57
Q

Name the two protocols that CUPS supports for encryption between itself and applications.

A
  1. IPSec

2. TLS

58
Q

What protocol is used for secure communication between CUPS and CUPC?

A

HTTPS

59
Q

What video codec is used by CUPC?

A

H.264

60
Q

What two protocols does CUPS support for presence and IM?

A
  1. SIP Instant Messaging and Presence Leveraging Extensions (SIMPLE)
  2. XMPP
61
Q

What protocol is used for presence notifications between CUCM and CUPS?

A

SIMPLE

62
Q

What key CUCM feature is not supported by CUCM Business Edition?

A

Redundancy

63
Q

How many call processing servers are supported in a CUCM cluster?

A

8

64
Q

Define “glare” in a telephony context. With what type of signaling does it occur?

A

Glare occurs when a user picks up a phone to make an outgoing call at the same time an incoming call arrives. It happens with loop start signaling.

65
Q

What type of analog signaling eliminates glare?

A

Ground start signaling

66
Q

How are loop start and ground start signaling different?

A

In loop start signaling, the circuit is opened when the phone is remove from the hook. In ground start signaling, the CPE sends a ground signal on the wiring to indicate to the CO that the circuit should be opened.

67
Q

What is the most common type of analog trunk?

A

E&M

68
Q

Name the three types of analog voice interfaces supported by Cisco gateways.

A

FXS, FXO, E&M

69
Q

What three items are provided to analog phones by FXS ports?

A

Dial tone, ring, voltage

70
Q

Of the two primary types of digital voice circuits, which uses “robbed bit” signaling?

A

Channel associated signaling (CAS)

71
Q

Of the two primary types of digital voice circuits, which uses a separate signaling channel?

A

Common channel signaling (CCS)

72
Q

In-band or out-of-band: What type of signaling does E&M use?

A

Out-of-band. (Its signaling paths are separate from the trunk audio.)

73
Q

Name the three types of digital voice circuits supported by Cisco.

A

T1
E1
BRI

74
Q

This type of device provides translation between different VoIP networks and VoIP or non-VoIP networks such as the PSTN.

A

Gateway

75
Q

In robbed-bit signaling, which bit(s) are “robbed”?

A

The eighth bit of every sixth frame

76
Q

Name the most common CCS signaling protocol.

A

Q.931

77
Q

Name the timeslots used for voice signaling on T1 and E1 PRI circuits (they’re different).

A

T1s use Channel 24; E1s use Channel 17.

78
Q

Name three reasons why CCS is more popular than CAS.

A
  1. More signaling message flexibility
  2. More bandwidth for voice signaling
  3. Higher security
79
Q

Name the two types of trunks that IP telephony service providers may provide to customers.

A

SIP and H.323

80
Q

Name the Cisco device that serves as a demarcation point between two VoIP networks.

A

Cisco Unified Border Element (CUBE)

81
Q

The modified URL addressing scheme used in SIP is based on what other common Internet protocol?

A

SMTP

82
Q

A Cisco CUBE can process calls controlled by what two protocols?

A

SIP and H.323

83
Q

Name and briefly describe the three types of cards found in a traditional PBX system.

A

Line cards - connect to handsets
Trunk cards - connect to the PSTN
Control complex cards - handle call setup, control, and management

84
Q

Name the three components in the E.164 numbering plan.

A

Country code
National destination code
Subscriber number

85
Q

Name the four parts of the North American Numbering Plan and identify which E.164 component each falls under.

A

Country code - E.164 country code
Area code and central office code - E.164 national destination code
Station code - E.164 subscriber number

86
Q

Define “quantization.”

A

It’s the process of converting an analog wave into digital values.

87
Q

Name three uses for a media termination point (MTP).

A
  1. Transcoding between a-law and mu-law
  2. Bridge two connections that use different packetization periods/packet sizes
  3. Convert DTMF signals
88
Q

What process does the G.711 codec use to convert analog sounds into digital streams?

A

Pulse Code Modulation (PCM)

89
Q

What bandwidth does CUCM assume is used by G.722? When is it usually used?

A

64 Kbps. It’s used in LAN deployments.

90
Q

Why would someone choose G.722 over G.711?

A

It offers improved voice quality.

91
Q

Name two common high-complexity voice codecs.

A

G.729 and G.729B

92
Q

How much bandwidth does G.729 consume?

A

8 Kbps

93
Q

How much bandwidth does G.729A consume? Why would one use it instead of G.729?

A

8 Kbps. It’s used because it is less complex.

94
Q

What’s a downside to choosing G.729A over other low-bandwidth codecs?

A

It’s prone to “tandeming,” a form of distortion that occurs with repeated encoding.

95
Q

How much bandwidth does iLBC consume? Why would one choose it?

A

13.3 Kbps. It provides higher quality and better response to packet loss than G.729A.

96
Q

How much bandwidth does iSAC consume? Why would one choose it?

A

32 Kbps. It’s robust to jitter and packet loss.

97
Q

Which codec(s) have a variable bit rate?

A

iSAC (CUCM calculates it for 32 Kbps, but it ranges from 10 to 32)

98
Q

Name two features of G.729B.

A

VAD and comfort noise generation (CNG)

99
Q

What are the trade-offs between G.729AB and G.729B?

A

G.729AB is medium complexity, but it has slightly lower quality.

100
Q

What is the typical bandwidth savings from VAD?

A

35%

101
Q

The Nyquist theorem says that voice samples must be taken how many times per second?

A

8,000

102
Q

Where are G.711 mu-law and a-law used, respectively? What’s the difference between the two?

A

Mu-law is used in the US and Japan. A-law is used everywhere else.

The codecs are total inversions of each other; wherever mu-law uses 1s, a-law uses 0s.

103
Q

How does RTCP know when to send session data?

A

It’s sent as a percentage of session bandwidth, but at least every 5 seconds.

104
Q

What protocol does Secure RTP use to encrypt RTP data?

A

AES

105
Q

RTP uses _____ ports and RTCP uses _____ ports.

A

even; odd

106
Q

Name four items that RTCP tracks

A

Packet count
Packet delay
Packet loss
Jitter

107
Q

Name a type of network delay that is variable.

A

Propagation delay

108
Q

How much overhead should be accounted for in calculating the bandwidth of a video stream?

A

20%

109
Q

End-to-end delay for voice traffic should should be less than…

A

150 ms

110
Q

Voice packet jitter should be less than…

A

20 ms

111
Q

Voice packet loss rates should be less than…

A

1%

112
Q

In a QoS context, applications that are needed for a business to function and require dedicated bandwidth are called…

A

Mission critical

113
Q

In a QoS context, applications that are interactive with users and require rapid response times are called…

A

Transactional

114
Q

In a QoS context, applications that are noncritical or uncategorized are called…

A

Best effort

115
Q

In a QoS context, nonproductive applications that consume excessive amounts of bandwidth are called…

A

Scavenger

116
Q

What QoS model provides guaranteed bandwidth?

A

IntServ

117
Q

What is the default QoS model?

A

Best effort

118
Q

How does Cisco characterize the bandwidth promises in DiffServ?

A

“Almost guaranteed”

119
Q

Why is IntServ not commonly used?

A

It isn’t scalable

120
Q

Where is admission control performed in IntServ?

A

On the edge router

121
Q

What is “soft QoS”? Which QoS model is considered soft?

A

It’s QoS where mechanisms are used without prior signaling.

DiffServ is considered soft QoS.

122
Q

True or False: DiffServ is considered an end-to-end QoS strategy.

A

False

123
Q

WRR and MDRR are examples of what QoS mechanism?

A

Congestion management

124
Q

RED and WRED are examples of what QoS mechanism?

A

Congestion avoidance

125
Q

Name two examples of link efficiency mechanisms

A

Header compression and LFI

126
Q

In a QoS-enabled network, classification is performed on…

A

…every input interface.

127
Q

Where should marking be performed in a QoS-enabled network?

A

As closed to the edge as possible, even on the originating device.

128
Q

What QoS mechanism(s) are usually restricted to lower-speed links?

A

Compression and LFI

129
Q

Name the flow-based queuing algorithm that schedules interactive traffic to the front of a queue and shares the remaining bandwidth among high-bandwidth flows.

A

WFQ

130
Q

How does WFQ implement tail drop?

A

It drops the packets of the most aggressive flows.

131
Q

How many queues are available in WFQ for system packets? For RSVP flows?

A

Eight; 1,000.

132
Q

How many dynamic queues does WFQ use with the default interface bandwidth? What is the configurable range of queues?

A

256; 16 to 4096 (in powers of 2)

133
Q

This QoS queuing mechanism uses strict priority queuing over multiple configurable queues.

A

LLQ

134
Q

Name the three QoS mechanisms that are used on router ingress.

A

Classification, marking, policing.

135
Q

What protocol does AutoQoS use to ensure QoS settings are properly configured?

A

CDP

136
Q

This router/L3 switch command enables AutoQoS on an interface without trusting any of the incoming markings.

A

(config-if)# auto qos voip

137
Q

Give the AutoQoS configuration command switches that tell the router/L3 switch to:

  1. Believe the incoming QoS markings.
  2. Believe incoming QoS markings if there is a IP phone detected on the other end of the wire.
  3. Believe incoming QoS markings if there is a Cisco IP SoftPhone detected on the other end of the wire.
A
  1. trust
  2. cisco-phone
  3. cisco-softphone