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U-28 > CSG FLIP Workbook > Flashcards

CSG FLIP Workbook Flashcards

1
Q

FLIP GP

  1. FLIP GP is produced and distributed every _____ weeks and is intended for U.S.
    military use only.
A

32 (p. 5, General Info)

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2
Q

FLIP GP

‘2. IAW GP Chapter 1 index, what publication describes information on Pilot
Weather Reports?

A
  1. FIH (Ch 1, Index)
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3
Q

FLIP GP

‘3. IAW GP Chapter 1 index, what publication describes procedures for restricted
areas in the U.S.?

A

AP/1 (Ch 1, Index)

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4
Q

FLIP GP

‘4. ATC additional services include advisory of an altitude deviation ____ ft or more.

A

300 (Ch 2, Explanation of Terms)

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5
Q

FLIP GP

‘5. A category B aircraft has an approach speed between ____ and ____ knots.

A

91, 120 (Ch 2, Explanation of Terms)

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6
Q

FLIP GP

‘6. The U-28A is a category ____ aircraft for wake turbulence. Aircraft in this class have a MTOW of less than _____ lbs and a wingspan less than or equal to _____ ft, or aircraft capable of MTOW less than ______ lbs regardless of wingspan.

A

F
41,000 lb
125 ft
15,500 lb
(Ch 2, Explanation of Terms)

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7
Q

FLIP GP

‘7. Instrument Landing System CAT 1 provides for approach to a HAT not less than ____ ft and with RVR of not less than _____ ft.

A

200, 1800 (Ch 2, Explanation of Terms)

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8
Q

FLIP GP

‘8. In non-mountainous areas, the MINIMUM IFR ALTITUDE (MIA) provides _____
ft clearance above the highest obstacle with _____ NM from the course to be
flown.

A

1000, 4 (Ch 2, Explanation of Terms)

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9
Q

FLIP GP

‘9. (T/F) When the Tower controller states “fly runway heading,” you should fly the
heading associated with the painted runway number.

A

F (fly extended runway centerline heading as published on plate; Ch2)

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10
Q

FLIP GP

‘10. When a controller requests a SPEED ADJUSTMENT, pilots are expected to
maintain a speed of plus or minus _____ knots of the specified speed.

A

10 (Ch 2, Explanation of Terms)

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11
Q

FLIP GP

‘11. Prevailing visibility is the greatest horizontal visibility equaled or exceeded
through at least _____ the horizon circle.

A

Half (Ch 2, Explanation of Terms)

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12
Q

FLIP GP

‘12. When completing the DD FORM 1801, wake turbulence category L corresponds
to a maximum certificated takeoff weight of _______ lbs or less.

A

15,500 (Ch 4, Flight Plans)

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13
Q

FLIP GP

‘13. Use the surveillance equipment code _____ for ADS-B with dedicated 1090 MHz
ADS-B “out” capability.

A

B1 (Ch 4, Flight Plans)

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14
Q

FLIP GP

‘14. For IFR flights, the TOTAL EET block is the estimated time required from takeoff
to either the ________ or if there is no navigation aid associated with the
destination aerodrome, time to arrive ________________.

A

IAF, over the destination aerodrome (Ch 4, Flight Plans)

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15
Q

FLIP GP

‘15. There is no requirement for pilots to readback ATC clearances while on the
ground (except ______ and ______); however, pilots should clarify any portion of
the clearance that is not completely understood.

A

RWY assignment, hold short instructions (6-10, p. 119)

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16
Q

FLIP GP

‘16. (T/F) Pilots of airborne aircraft should read back those parts of the Air Traffic
Control clearances which contain altitude assignments/restrictions or radar
vectors. Readbacks should be preceded by the aircraft identification (callsign).

A

T (6-10, p. 121)

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17
Q

FLIP GP

‘17. Controllers will provide ____ miles separation for IFR aircraft operating directly
behind, or directly behind and less than 1000’ below, or following an aircraft
conducting an instrument approach (small/large behind heavy).

A

5 (6-13, p. 122)

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18
Q

FLIP GP

‘18. When an aircraft is _____ minutes or less from a clearance limit and a clearance
beyond the fix has not been received, the pilot is expected to start a speed
reduction in order to cross the fix at or below the maximum holding airspeed.

A

3 (6-13, p. 126)

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19
Q

FLIP GP

‘19. Is the air traffic controller required to give direction of turn when assigning a right hand holding pattern?

A

No (6-13, p. 126)

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20
Q

FLIP GP

‘20. (T/F) During routine flight operations over the high seas, U.S. military aircrew shall comply with ICAO rules and procedures.

A

T (Ch 7, p. 130)

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21
Q

FLIP GP

‘21. Reference ICAO guidance, when receiving a QFE altimeter setting, the altimeter
should read ____ ft when the aircraft lands at the altimeter reporting station.

A

0 (Ch 7)

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22
Q

FLIP AP/1

  1. In the United States, Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) is
    implemented between ____ and ____ (inclusive) in the following airspace: the
    airspace of the lower 48 states of the United States, Alaska, Atlantic and Gulf of
    Mexico High Offshore Airspace and the San Juan FIR.
A

FL290, FL410, page 3-50

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23
Q

FLIP AP/1

‘2. In the United States, pilots must check the ________ or ______ when planning to
arrive at an airport where Precision Runway Monitor (PRM) procedures are
available.

A

“Attention All Users of XXX Precision RWY Monitor (PRM)” page or NOTAM, p.3-57

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24
Q

FLIP AP/1

‘3. In the United States, Class A airspace is from ____ MSL to and including ____.

A

18,000 MSL to and including FL600, p.3-57

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25
Q

FLIP AP/1

‘4. In the United States, to operate in Class A airspace, operations must be conducted
under ____ and in compliance with the following: _________, ________, and ____.

A

IFR, ATC clearance must be received prior to entering the airspace, each aircraft
must be equipped with a two-way radio capable of communicating with ATC, and must be equipped with an operable transponder with Mode 3/A 4096 code capability
with Mode C, p. 3-57

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26
Q

FLIP AP/1

‘5. (T/F) In the United States, radar monitoring by ATC is required on all unpublished
RNAV routes.

A

T, p. 3-58

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27
Q

FLIP AP/1

‘6. (T/F) In the United States, regardless of weather conditions, an ATC authorization is
required prior to operating in Class B airspace.

A

T, p. 3-58

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28
Q

FLIP AP/1

‘7. In the United States, Class C airspace design consists of two concentric circles both
centered on the primary airport. The inner circle has a radius of ___ NM and the
outer circle has a radius of ____ NM. The airspace of the inner circle extends from
____ to _____. The airspace of the outer circle begins at ___ and extends up to
____.

A

5NM, 10 NM, surface of the primary airport, 4000’ AGL, 1200’ AGL, the same
altitude cap as the inner circle, p. 3-59

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29
Q

FLIP AP/1

  1. _____ must be established with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class C airspace prior to entering and thereafter as instructed by ATC.
A

Two-way radio communications, p. 3-59

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30
Q

FLIP AP/1

‘9. (T/F). Mobile Regional (KMOB), Pensacola Regional (KPNS) and Pensacola NAS
(KNPA) have Class C airspace.

A

T, p. 3-60 and 3-61

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31
Q

FLIP AP/1

‘10. In the United States, generally, Class D airspace is that airspace from the surface to
2500’ AGL surrounding those airports with _____.

A

An operational control tower, p. 3-62

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32
Q

FLIP AP/1

‘11. In the United States, in Class B airspace, VFR visibility and minimum distance from
clouds is _____.

A

3 SM and clear of clouds, p. 3-65

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33
Q

FLIP AP/1

‘12. (T/F) In the United States, at Cairns AAF (KOZR), pilots should exercise CAUTION
due to the high-density helicopter reduced lighting night vision device training
activity.

A

T, p. 3-76

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34
Q

FLIP AP/1

‘13. At Cannon AFB, BASH Phase II is from ____ to ____, and as directed by the 27
SOG/CC.

A

1 Oct to 31 Jan, p. 3-80

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35
Q

FLIP AP/1

‘14. To use the Assault Landing Zone (ALZ) at Duke Field, FL, the weather conditions
must be _____.

A

Ceiling equal to or greater than 1500’ AGL and visibility equal to or greater than 3
miles, p. 3-98

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36
Q

FLIP AP/1

‘15. (T/F) At Hurlburt Field, crews should exercise CAUTION due to extensive banner
towing in the VFR corridor 1.2 NM south of the runway.

A

T, p. 3-126

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37
Q

FLIP AP/1

‘16. At Hurlburt Field, the small arms range is located _____; avoid overflight below
____.

A

4000’ NW of the runway, 700’ MSL, p. 3-126

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38
Q

FLIP AP/1

‘17. At Hurlburt Field, during BASH phase II, within +/- one hour of dawn/dusk, only
____ and ____ are allowed; restricted low approaches must be at or above ____.

A

Initial take-offs and only full stop landings, 500’ AGL, page 3-127

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39
Q

FLIP AP/1

‘18. At Pensacola NAS (KNPA), there is a high mid-air potential 8500’ and below within
____ due to T-6 aircraft acrobatic maneuvers.

A

Alert Area 292, p. 3-181

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40
Q

FLIP AP/1

‘19. In the Valparaiso (KVPS) Eglin AFB Florida terminal area, no person may operate
an aircraft within the North-South Corridor unless _____ and _____.

A

that person obtains a clearance from Eglin Radar or an appropriate ATC facility and
maintains two-way radio comms with ATC, p. 3-229

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41
Q

FLIP AP/1

‘20. In the Valparaiso (KVPS) Eglin AFB Florida terminal area, no person may operate
an aircraft in the East-West corridor unless _____ and _____.

A

that person established two-way radio communication with Eglin Radar or an
appropriate ATC facility and receives ATC advisories, p. 3-229

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42
Q

FLIP AP/1

‘21. In the Valparaiso (KVPS) Eglin AFB Florida terminal area, the North-South corridor
extends upward from ____ to but not including ____.

A

the surface, 18,000’ MSL, p. 3-229

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43
Q

FLIP AP/1

‘22. In the Valparaiso (KVPS) Eglin AFB Florida terminal area, the East-West corridor is
divided into three sections. The east and west sections extend upward from the
surface to but not including _____; the center section extends upward from the
surface to but not including ___.

A

8500’ MSL, 18,000’ MSL; p. 3-229

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44
Q

FLIP FIH

‘22. (T/F) FLIP FIH is meant for military and civilian use.

A

False (Gen Info 1)

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45
Q

FLIP FIH

‘23. Transponder mode 3/A code ______ annotates an emergency, while mode 3/A
code _______ annotates two-way radio communications failure.

A

7700, 7600 (A-2, A-6)

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46
Q

FLIP FIH

‘24. Emergency communications can be transmitted anytime on _____MHz (UHF)
and/or ______MHz (VHF).

A

243.0 UHF, 121.5 VHF (A-2, A-3)

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47
Q

FLIP FIH

‘25. A flashing red light from the tower, when on the ground, indicates _________. If
received while airborne, it indicates _____________.

A

Taxi clear of the landing area, airport unsafe-do not land

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48
Q

FLIP FIH

‘26. In the daytime, acknowledge receipt of ATC light signals by _____________ on
the ground and ______________ while airborne.

A

Moving ailerons or rudder, rocking wings

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49
Q

FLIP FIH

‘27. You must notify ATC for any change in average true airspeed of ___ percent or
____ kts, whichever is greater, from the filed flight plan.

A

5, 10 (B-6)

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50
Q

FLIP FIH

‘28. You must maintain a minimum climb/descent of _____fpm. If unable to do so,
you must notify ATC.

A

500 (B-6)

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51
Q

FLIP FIH

‘29. A wet runway with less than 1/8” (3mm) of water has an RCR range of _______
and can increase landing roll by up to ____ percent.

A

14-22, 45 (B-23)

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52
Q

FLIP FIH

‘30. It is recommended to key the microphone ____ times within ____ seconds for
radio-controlled lighting at non-towered airfields. The airfield lights will remain lit
for ____ minutes.

A

7, 5, 15 (B27)

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53
Q

FLIP FIH

‘31. Military pilots departing a location where military weather and NOTAM services
are not available will obtain required information from (in order of preference):
Regional OWS, command-approved weather sources, aviationweather.gov,
fsims.faa.gov, or an accredited local agency. The Operation Weather Squadron
(OWS) that services an aircraft departing from Boston International is
__________.

A

15 OWS, Scott AFB (C-3)

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54
Q

FLIP FIH

‘32. When calling a Pilot-to-Metro service station to obtain updated weather forecasts,
in the continental US, use the name of the station followed by _______. For
overseas flights, use the Global HF System Stations whenever possible.

A

METRO (C-15)

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55
Q

FLIP FIH

‘33. Automated Weather Observation System (AWOS) transmits a 20 to 30 sec
weather message each minute and is receivable within ____ NM of the site at or
above _____ft AGL. Similarly, Automated Surface Observation System (ASOS)
can be received a maximum of ____ NM from the site at a max altitude of
______ ft AGL.

A

25, 3000, 25, 10,000 (C-58)

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56
Q

FLIP FIH

‘34. The absence of a sky condition/ceiling and/or visibility on Automatic Terminal
Information Service (ATIS) broadcasts indicates the sky condition is currently
_____ft or above and visibility of ____ miles or more.

A

5000, 5 (C-65)

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57
Q

FLIP FIH

‘35. The paired VHF frequency for DME channel 45X is _____.

A

110.8 (D-20)

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58
Q

FLIP FIH

‘36. Zulu time in Djibouti is +/- (circle one) _____ hours from local time?

A

-3, (E-4)

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59
Q

FLIP FIH

‘37. The abbreviation “WIP” means ________________ in NOTAMs.

A

Work in Progress (F-27)

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60
Q

FLIP FIH

‘38. The abbreviation “UNMNT” means ______________ in FDC NOTAMs.

A

Unmonitored (F-41)

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61
Q

FLIP FIH

‘39. The abbreviation “PAEW” means ___________________ in FDC NOTAMs.

A

Personnel and Equipment (F-41)

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62
Q

FLIP IFR-Supp U.S.

‘40. (T/F) Airports included in the U.S. IFR Supplement must have a published DoD
(High/Low Altitude) Instrument Approach Procedure and/or ASR/PAR radar
approach minima.

A

F (may be also specifically requested for operational requirements)

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63
Q

FLIP IFR-Supp U.S.

‘41. When the “++” symbol follows a listed “Z” time, the effective hours will be ______
than shown.

A

1 hour earlier

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64
Q

FLIP IFR-Supp U.S.

‘42. Is the presence of a BAK-14 Bi-directional cable a problem for the U-28?

A

Yes, if the cable is in the raised position

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65
Q

FLIP IFR-Supp U.S.

‘43. What is the difference between Jet A and Jet A+ fuel?

A

Jet A: No FSII; Jet A+ has FSII

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66
Q

FLIP IFR-Supp U.S.

‘44. (T/F) If an airport is restricted with a PPR or OBO designation, it may not be used
as an alternate for IFR flight.

A

F

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67
Q

FLIP IFR-Supp U.S.

‘45. If a VOR is listed with an “L” radio class code, normal service should be good out
to a range of ______ NM up to _______ feet AGL.

A

40, 18,000

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68
Q

FLIP IFR-Supp U.S.

‘46. The abbreviation “BA” means ________.

A

Braking Action

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69
Q

FLIP IFR-Supp U.S.

‘47. The abbreviation “HIRL” means ________.

A

High Intensity Runway Lights

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70
Q

FLIP IFR-Supp U.S.

‘48. The abbreviation “VGSI” means _________.

A

Visual Glide Slope Indicator

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71
Q

FLIP IFR-Supp U.S.

‘49. At Centennial Airport (KAPA), the displaced threshold is _____ feet from the
beginning of RWY 10.

A

400

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72
Q

FLIP IFR-Supp U.S.

‘50. (T/F) There is a safety video available on the FAA website discussing the
hazards present at KAPA.

A

T, see REMARKS section

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73
Q

FLIP IFR-Supp U.S.

‘51. When flying the KAPA ILS to RWY 35R, will the localizer be usable at 14 NM
from the airfield while being vectored at 8,500’ MSL?

A

No, unusable beyond 13 NM below 9,000 ft

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74
Q

FLIP IFR-Supp U.S.

‘52. What days of the week is the ANG ramp available at Salt Lake City Intl (KSLC)
and what coordination is required to use it?

A

Mon-Thurs 1430-2230; PPR requested 48 hrs in advance

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75
Q

FLIP IFR-Supp U.S.

‘53. What is the correct Tower frequency at KSLC for departures and arrivals on
RWY 17-35?

A

118.3

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76
Q

FLIP IFR-Supp U.S.

‘54. When the Tower is closed at Grand Junction Regional (KGJT), how do you turn
on the approach lighting system?

A

Activate using CTAF frequency, 7 mic clicks within 5 sec

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77
Q

FLIP IFR-Supp U.S.

‘55. When KGJT Tower and approach control are closed, how do you get an IFR
clearance for departure?

A

Call Denver Center C303-342-4257

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78
Q

FLIP IFR-Supp U.S.

‘56. What are the KGJT Tower operating hours, local time, in the month of June?

A

1300-0500Z++, mountain time, DT in June, so 0600-2200

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79
Q

FLIP IFR-Supp U.S.

‘57. What is the transponder requirement for entering or flying within the ADIZ?

A

Operable radio beacon transponder with Mode C

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80
Q

FLIP IFR-Supp U.S.

‘58. Regarding low temperature errors, an aircraft flying at 10,000’ with a temperature
of -30°F may be _______ ft lower than indicated altitude.

A

1000

81
Q

FLIP IFR-Supp U.S.

‘59. When communicating with a Flight Service Station (FSS) to change from VFR to
IFR flight plan, what ETE and fuel information must be provided?

A

ETE from point of change to destination and hours of fuel remaining

82
Q

FLIP FAA Chart Supplement (AF/D) Southeast U.S.

  1. FAA Chart Supplement (AF/D) are designed to be used in conjunction with charts
    and is published every ___ days.
A

56

83
Q

FLIP FAA Chart Supplement (AF/D) Southeast U.S.

‘2. Chart Supplements (AF/D) are a listing of data on record with the FAA on all
open-to-the-public airports, seaplane bases, heliports, military facilities and
selected private use airports specifically requested by the ______.

A

Department of Defense (DoD)

84
Q

FLIP FAA Chart Supplement (AF/D) Southeast U.S.

‘3. FAA Chart Supplements (AF/D) cover the conterminous ___________,
___________, and the __________.

A

United States, Puerto Rico, Virgin Islands

85
Q

FLIP FAA Chart Supplement (AF/D) Southeast U.S.

‘4. At Crestview/Bob Sikes Airport (KCEW), noise abatement procedures are in
effect. Pilots shall maintain runway heading to _____ ft MSL before turning.

A

700

86
Q

FLIP FAA Chart Supplement (AF/D) Southeast U.S.

‘5. Prior to stepping for a local sortie, you obtain a METAR from Crestview/Bob
Sikes Airport (KCEW) that is 43 minutes old. If you want to listen to the current
Automated Surface Observation System (ASOS) for KCEW before stepping, call (___)-___-____ to hear the current real-time report from the station.

A

850-682-1237

87
Q

FLIP FAA Chart Supplement (AF/D) Southeast U.S.

‘6. You just completed VFR pattern operations at Apalachicola/Cleve Randolph
Field (KAAF) and wish to pick up your IFR clearance back to Hurlburt. Upon
reaching 5500 ft MSL, you attempt contact with Tyndall Approach on 124.15 and
125.2. You receive no reply. To get your IFR clearance, you should contact
_________ on frequency _________.

A

Jacksonville Center, 120.825

88
Q

FLIP FAA Chart Supplement (AF/D) Southwest U.S.

‘1. Reference AIRPORT REMARKS, a note __________ shall be applied within the
remarks section when a special notice applicable to the entry is contained in the
Special Notices section of this publication.

A

“See Special Notices”

89
Q

FLIP FAA Chart Supplement (AF/D) Southwest U.S.

‘2. Reference the AIRPORT REMARKS section for Aspen-Pitkin Co/Sardy Field, if you
needed to fly the “Cozy One VFR Departure (KASE)” for a VFR departure with IFR
pick-up, how would you know your IFR clearance had been activated?

A

Reference Special Notices, page 500 for the COZY ONE VFR DEPARTURE,
clearance to an altitude above 13,000 MSL constitutes activation of IFR clearance.

90
Q

FLIP FAA Chart Supplement (AF/D) Southwest U.S.

‘3. When departing Grand Junction Regional Airport after the Tower is closed, what
RCO frequency could you use to file and IFR flight plan or coordinate an IFR
clearance?

A

122.6 (DENVER RADIO) (330)

91
Q

FLIP FAA Chart Supplement (AF/D) Southwest U.S.

‘4. You are flying VFR at 13,500 MSL in vicinity of Tucumcari and need to talk to the
ARTCC for flight following or IFR clearance pick-up. What frequency would you
use?

A

126.85 (low altitude freq) (518)

92
Q

FLIP FAA Chart Supplement (AF/D) Southwest U.S.

‘5. What is the risk at HOT SPOT (HS) 1 on Salt Lake City International Airport?

A

Wrong Runway Departure (574)

93
Q

FLIP FAA Chart Supplement (AF/D) Southwest U.S.

‘6. What is the elevation at the approach end of RWY 28 at Centennial Airport, CO?

A

5794 ft (AIRPORT DIAGRAMS, 604)

94
Q

FLIP FAA Chart Supplement (AF/D) Southwest U.S.

‘7. When giving a PIREP, what are the four intensity levels for reporting icing?

A

TRACE, LIGHT, MODERATE, SEVERE (738)

95
Q

FLIP IFR Enroute Low Altitude – Use L-9 and L-9 U.S. charts

  1. Reference the picture below, what does the large brown number represent?
A

OROCA-provides 2000’ terrain/obstacle clearance (mountainous)in the applicable
quadrant

96
Q

FLIP IFR Enroute Low Altitude – Use L-9 and L-9 U.S. charts

‘2. What are the altitudes and operating times for R-2601B?

A

12500 to but not incl 22500; by NOTAM 1 hr in advance

97
Q

FLIP IFR Enroute Low Altitude – Use L-9 and L-9 U.S. charts

‘3. The route segment shown below requires _____ to navigate. What does “13700G”
mean?

A

GNSS, GNSS RNAV MEA

98
Q

FLIP IFR Enroute Low Altitude – Use L-9 and L-9 U.S. charts

‘4. You are told to “Hold as published at KNOLE.” What inbound course and timing will
you use if your assigned altitude is 15,000 MSL?

A

078, right turns, 1.5 min

99
Q

FLIP IFR Enroute Low Altitude – Use L-9 and L-9 U.S. charts

‘5. In order to guarantee NAVAID reception at FLOOD intersection, what altitude is
required?

A

10000 ft MSL

100
Q

FLIP IFR Enroute Low Altitude – Use L-9 and L-9 U.S. charts

‘6. Using the picture below and the L-10 (Colorado) Enroute Low chart, what is the
minimum altitude required over Mile High VOR when proceeding westbound on V8?

A

10300 ft MSL

101
Q

FLIP IFR Enroute Low Altitude – Use L-9 and L-9 U.S. charts

‘7. What is the field elevation at Greeley-Weld County Airport?

A

4697 ft

102
Q

FLIP IFR Enroute Low Altitude – Use L-9 and L-9 U.S. charts

‘8. You just departed KMTJ airport VFR and need to file an IFR flight plan. Who would
you call and what frequency would you use?

A

Denver FSS, 122.4

103
Q

FLIP IFR Enroute Low Altitude – Use L-9 and L-9 U.S. charts

‘9. You are in IMC conditions and need to divert. Does Hanksville Airport shown below
have a published instrument approach?

A

No, Brown airports do not have a published approach or radar approach mins

104
Q

FLIP IFR Enroute Low Altitude – Use L-9 and L-9 U.S. charts

‘10. What does the filled in VOR symbol mean in the picture below?

A

When not in radar contact, this VOR is a compulsory reporting point to ATC when
overflying on an associated assigned route.

105
Q

FLIP IFR Enroute Low Altitude – Use L-9 and L-9 U.S. charts

‘11. Use Foreflight Mobile and the Denver area L-10 enroute low chart. You just
departed Pueblo Muni Airport VFR after doing some late night patterns and landings
there and are heading due North for a transition back to KAPA. What Denver Center
frequency could you use for flight following or to pick up an IFR clearance you filed?

A

128.375

106
Q

FLIP IFR Enroute Low Altitude – Use L-9 and L-9 U.S. charts

‘12. Use Foreflight Mobile and the Salt Lake area L-9 Enroute Low Chart. You are
travelling NW on V484 between MYTON VOR (MTU) and WASATCH VORTAC
(TCH). When will you switch from tracking MTU outbound course to TCH inbound
course?

A

128.375

107
Q

Digital Terminal Procedures Supplemental

‘60. Where do you find the Digital Terminal Procedures Supplement on your EFB?

A

Foreflight Documents under FAA

108
Q

Digital Terminal Procedures Supplemental

‘61. If the temperature at the Aspen County (KASE) airfield is -30 degrees C, how
much altitude do you add to the FAF on the RNAV-F? _________

A

840

109
Q

Digital Terminal Procedures Supplemental

‘62. When reviewing the ILS or LOC RWY 36, you see the following minima for the
ILS: 237/24 200 (200-1/2); what does each one mean?
a. 237: ______________
b. 24: ______________
c. 200: ______________
d. (200-1/2): ________________

A

a. DA in MSL
b. RVR in hundreds of fee
c. HA
d. Required WX mins

110
Q

Digital Terminal Procedures Supplemental

‘63. You’re flying the ILS 36 approach into HRT at 120 KIAS, what approach category
do you fall in? _____________

A

Cat B

111
Q

Digital Terminal Procedures Supplemental

‘64. When reviewing the RNAV 3 approach into KMGM, you notice an inverse “C” at
the bottom of the approach plate, what does that mean for your Category B
aircraft? ________________________

A

Circling area protected out to 1.7 NM instead of 1.5 NM

112
Q

Digital Terminal Procedures Supplemental

‘65. On that same approach plate, you see an inverse “T” at the top of your plate,
where else do you need to review? _____________

A

Takeoff Mins tab

113
Q

Digital Terminal Procedures Supplemental

‘66. When executing an approach into an uncontrolled airfield at night, how do you
turn on the lights to the highest intensity available? _______________________

A

Key the mic 7 times within 5 seconds

114
Q

Digital Terminal Procedures Supplemental

‘67. What symbol denotes pilot controlled lighting? _________________

A

Negative symbology

115
Q

Digital Terminal Procedures Supplemental

‘68. What do the following abbreviations mean?
a. TDZE ____________________
b. TCH _____________________
c. HAT _____________________
d. LPV _____________________
e. RAIL _____________________
f. REIL _____________________

A

a. Touchdown Zone Elevation
b. Threshold Crossing Height
c. Height Above
Touchdown
d. Localizer Performance with Vertical Guidance
e. Runway Alignment Indicator Lights
f. Runway End Identifier Lights

116
Q

Digital Terminal Procedures Supplemental

‘69. What light sequence indicates on glidepath on Precision Approach Path Indicator
lights (PAPIs)? _________________

A

Two white, two red

116
Q

Digital Terminal Procedures Supplemental

‘70. What does the dot symbol mean when you see an airfield’s light configuration?

A

Sequenced Flashing Lights

117
Q

Digital Terminal Procedures Supplemental

‘71. While reviewing a STAR into Atlanta, you notice several altitudes and airspeeds
with lines above and below them, what do they mean?
a. Line above:
___________________
b. Line below: ___________________
c. Lines above and below: _________

A

a. Maximum
b. Minimum
c. Mandatory

118
Q

Digital Terminal Procedures Supplemental

‘72. What does the lightning bolt symbol mean on an approach plate?

A

Glideslope Intercept Altitude

119
Q

Digital Terminal Procedures Supplemental

‘73. When reviewing an approach plate, you notice the area from the VDP to the runway
is not shaded in, what does that mean?

A

34:1 OIS is not clear or there are Visual Segment Obstacles

120
Q

Digital Terminal Procedures Supplemental

‘74. Do you need to obey stepdown altitudes on precision approaches?

A

No

121
Q

Digital Terminal Procedures Supplemental

‘75. You see blank and filled in triangles on the Atlanta STAR, what does each mean?

A

Blank = non-compulsory reporting point;
filled in = compulsory

122
Q

Digital Terminal Procedures Supplemental

‘76. On an airport diagram, you see a brown circle with the label (HS 4), what does that
mean?

A

Hot Spot or High Traffic Area

123
Q

Digital Terminal Procedures Supplemental

‘77. If the minimum climb rate is 200 ft/NM, what does your VVI need to be if you are
climbing out at 120 knots?

A

400 ft/min

124
Q

Digital Terminal Procedures Supplemental

‘78. What VVI would give you the best 3 degree descent rate into an airfield if you are
descending at 120 knots?

A

640 ft/min

125
Q

GIANT Report

  1. Ref the KAPA GIANT report, what suitability code should be used for the U-28?
A

C-21 (L)

126
Q

GIANT Report

‘2. Does code Q apply to U-28 operations at KAPA?

A

Yes

127
Q

GIANT Report

‘3. Does RWY 17R have Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)?

A

Yes

128
Q

GIANT Report

‘4. Reference Q-code Airfield Restrictions, what is the limitation for RWY 35L?
Does this restriction apply to U-28 crews?

A

Day Only.
No, AFSOC crews can land at night using NVGs

129
Q

GIANT Report

‘5. Can we fly night VFR at KAPA below the MSA?

A

Yes (see remarks about using GPS and/or NVGs)

130
Q

GIANT Report

‘6. How wide is D2 taxiway, and what type surface does it have?

A

35 feet, PEM-Partially Concrete, Asphalt, or Bitumen-bound Macadam

131
Q

GIANT Report

‘7. On which taxiways can I find advisory Density Altitude Displays?

A

C-1, A-1, A-18

132
Q

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

‘1. In order to provide a backup to PBN in the event of a GNSS interruption, The
FAA is retaining a limited network of VORs, called the VOR Minimum Operational
Network. This network will provide nearly continuous VOR signal coverage at
_____ ft AGL across the NAS.

A

5000 (1-1-2)

133
Q

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

‘2. The Localizer provides course guidance throughout the descent path to the
runway threshold from a distance of _____ NM from the antenna between an
altitude of ____ ft above the highest terrain along the course line and _____ ft
above the elevation of the antenna sight.

A

18, 1000, 4500 (1-1-12)

134
Q

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

‘3. The glide slope is normally useable out to a distance of ______ NM.

A

10 (1-1-14)

135
Q

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

‘4. When an approach has been loaded in the navigation system, GPS receivers will
give an “ARM” annunciation _____ NM straight line distance from the airport
reference point.

A

30 (1-1-28)

136
Q

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

‘5. If a VDP is published on an RNAV approach, it will / will not be (circle one)
included in the sequence of waypoints.

A

Will not (1-1-30)

137
Q

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

‘6. LPV minima may have a decision altitude as low as _____ ft HAT and visibility
minimums as low as _____.

A

200, ½ (1-1-35)

138
Q

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

‘7. In Class E airspace, operable ADS-B Out equipment is required at and above
______ ft MSL over the Gulf of Mexico from the coastline of the U.S. out to 12
NM.

A

3000 (3-2-10)

139
Q

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

‘8. A warning area is airspace of defined dimensions, extending from ____ NM
outward from the coast of the U.S. that contains activity that may be hazardous
to non-participating aircraft.

A

3 (3-4-2)

140
Q

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

‘9. (T/F) When operating at a non-towered airfield, pilots executing a straight-in
approach, either VFR or IFR, do not have priority over other aircraft established
in the VFR pattern.

A

T

141
Q

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

‘10. When communicating on CTAF at a non-towered airfield and referring to a
specific runway, pilots should use the _________ and not use the phrase
“___________”

A

Runway Number, Active Runway
(4-1-6)

142
Q

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

‘11. (T/F) When checking in with Approach Control or Tower, using the phrase “I have
the numbers” or “with the numbers” is the same as reporting receipt of the
specific ATIS identifier.

A

F, it only means you have wind, runway, and altimeter information. (4-1-10)

143
Q

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

‘12. At non-towered airports, unless otherwise indicated, all turns in the traffic pattern
must be made to the ______. On sectional, Aeronautical, and VFR Terminal
Area Charts, right traffic patterns are indicated at public-use and joint-use
airports with the abbreviation _____ , followed by the appropriate runway
number(s) at the bottom of the airport data block.

A

Left, RP (4-3-3)

144
Q

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

‘13. Reference the Runway Condition Assessment Matrix (RCAM), a runway with
frost or dampness of the surface is assessed code ______ and braking action
should be _____.

A

5, Good (4-3-15)

145
Q

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

‘14. (T/F) If you receive an IFR clearance to depart a non-towered airport and are
issued a clearance void time, you will still be afforded IFR separation if you
depart after the void time has expired.

A

F, (may be in violation of FAR 91.173 for departing IFR without a clearance (5-2-5)

146
Q

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

‘15. When flying a standard TAA “T” design RNAV approach, ATC should not clear
an aircraft to the left base leg or right base leg at an intercept angle exceeding
____ degrees.

A

90 (5-4-11)

147
Q

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

‘16. (T/F) When flying an RNAV approach in a TAA and cleared the approach while
enroute to the IAF, you must receive specific clearance from ATC before
descending to the published minimum altitude in the TAA sector.

A

F (you may descend to the TAA min altitude when cleared the approach) (5-4-12)

148
Q

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

‘17. In order to obtain assistance in a distress or urgency situation, make initial
communication on an appropriate ATC frequency or emergency frequency using
the word ________ for distress and ________ for urgency. A distress
communication commands radio silence on the frequency in use.

A

MAYDAY, PAN-PAN (6-3-1)

149
Q

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

‘18. (T/F) When ditching an aircraft and landing parallel to the swell, the BEST
position for touchdown is on the bottom of the swell.

A

F, (BEST is on top of the swell)
(6-3-5)

150
Q

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

‘19. When a SPECI weather report is issued for a wind shift, it means that wind
direction changes more than ______ degrees in less than ______ minutes and
the wind speed is ____ kts or more throughout the wind shift.

A

45, 15, 10 (7-1-2)

151
Q

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

‘20. Regarding ATC weather radar displays, ATC refers to all weather areas
displayed on the ATC radar scopes as __________ with intensity values of
________, _______, _______ or ________.

A

Precipitation, Light, Moderate, Heavy, Extreme (7-1-40)

152
Q

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

‘21. FAA air traffic facilities are required to solicit PIREPs when ceilings are at or
below _____ ft, and visibility is at or below _____ miles (surface or aloft), in
addition to other thunderstorm, icing, turbulence, wind shear, and volcanic ash
phenomena.

A

5000, 5 (7-1-44)

153
Q

New Orleans Sectional Chart

  1. Airports having control towers are shown in the color _____; all others are _______.
A

Blue, Magenta

154
Q

New Orleans Sectional Chart

‘2. The symbol below indicates the runway is longer than _____ feet.

A

8069

155
Q

New Orleans Sectional Chart

‘3. The sectional chart only shows the controlled and reserved airspace effective below
_____ ft MSL.

A

18,000

156
Q

New Orleans Sectional Chart

‘4. Mobile Regional Airport can provide ASR / PAR /BOTH (circle one) radar instrument
approaches.

A

ASR

157
Q

New Orleans Sectional Chart

‘5. Gulfport TRSA is available ______ (local time) daily.

A

0600-2300

158
Q

New Orleans Sectional Chart

‘6. The outline of the Gulfport TRSA airspace is colored ______ while the New Orleans
Class B airspace outline is _____.

A

Gray, Blue

159
Q

New Orleans Sectional Chart

‘7. The maximum terrain elevation on the New Orleans Sectional is ______ ft MSL.

A

720

160
Q

New Orleans Sectional Chart

‘8. The airspace around Mobile Regional Airport is Class _____.

A

C (Charlie)

161
Q

New Orleans Sectional Chart

‘9. St Vincent National Wildlife Refuge is three miles SW of Apalachicola Airport. The
minimum flight altitude over St Vincent Island is ______ ft AGL.

A

2000

162
Q

New Orleans Sectional Chart

‘10. From the picture below, does Tri-County Airport have fuel available?

A

Yes (tick marks around the airport circle)

163
Q

New Orleans Sectional Chart

‘11. The longest runway at Trent Lott International is _____ feet.

A

6500

164
Q

New Orleans Sectional Chart

‘12. At Mac Crenshaw Memorial Airport, what is the frequency for the Automated
Surface Observation System (ASOS)?

A

120.0

165
Q

New Orleans Sectional Chart

‘13. The towers shown below are at least _____ feet AGL.

A

1000

166
Q

New Orleans Sectional Chart

‘14. Can we perform touch-and-go landings at MARAN airport?

A

No (private airport)

167
Q

New Orleans Sectional Chart

‘15. Which MOAs surround the Apalachicola (KAAF) traffic pattern? What are the
effective altitudes?

A

Tyndall E and F, 1500-17999

168
Q

New Orleans Sectional Chart

‘16. Among Hurlburt Field, Eglin AFB, Destin Executive Airport, and Duke Field Class D
airspace, which one extends to the highest altitude?

A

Duke Field (2700’)

169
Q

New Orleans Sectional Chart

‘17. Pensacola Class C airspace extends up to ______ ft MSL.

A

4200

170
Q

New Orleans Sectional Chart

‘18. What is the name of the VORTAC at Mobile International Airport?

A

Brookley

171
Q

New Orleans Sectional Chart

‘19. If you are flying north from Crestview VOR and need to call a Flight Service Station,
what station would you call and what frequency would you use?

A

Gainesville, 122.2

172
Q

Denver Sectional

‘20. When flying a VFR arrival from the Southeast over Franktown VFR reporting point
into Centennial Airport (KAPA), remain below what altitude to stay out of Class B
airspace?

A

9000

173
Q

Denver Sectional

‘21. What is the dashed magenta box protruding South from the KAPA Class D
airspace?

A

Class E airspace down to the surface (instrument approach corridor)

174
Q

Denver Sectional

‘22. The large blue number shown below indicates that the highest terrain or obstacle in
the 30’x30’ lat/long quadrangle is between ______ and ______ ft MSL. (Hint: Refer
to the Aeronautical Chart User’s Guide in Foreflight FAA Handbooks folder)

A

11,701, 11,799 (see Aeronautical Chart User’s Guide…highest point in quadrant +
100’ possible vert error + 200’ obstacle allowance, then round up to nearest 100’)

175
Q

Denver Sectional

‘23. The highest TERRAIN elevation on the Denver Sectional is _______ ft MSL.

A

14,433

176
Q

Denver Sectional

‘24. Reference the picture below, the blue bands marked with course arrows proceeding
away from the BLUE MESA VOR are _______ .

A

Victor Airways

177
Q

Denver Sectional

‘25. This symbol shown below indicates a _______.

A

VFR reporting point

178
Q

ForeFlight Mobile Pilot’s Guide

‘22. There is a count-up timer and count-down timer on the ForeFlight App. Where is
this timer found?

A

Tap the “More” button on the bottom right

179
Q

ForeFlight Mobile Pilot’s Guide

‘23. Where can you find an airport’s A/FD Airport Facility Directory information in
ForeFlight Mobile?

A

Tap “Airports” button on the bottom left, then tap “Info” tab, and then tap A/FD

180
Q

ForeFlight Mobile Pilot’s Guide

‘24. On the “Maps” View, how do you display hazards, clouds and terrain in the profile
view?

A

Tap FPL to bring up the route editor, then tap “Profile”

181
Q

ForeFlight Mobile Pilot’s Guide

‘25. How do you turn on or turn off “Breadcrumbs” on the “Maps” page?

A

“Maps” Page, Tap the gear (Settings), then tap “Breadcrumbs”

182
Q

ForeFlight Mobile Pilot’s Guide

‘26. How do you overlay an instrument approach plate onto your Maps/Charts?

A

Tap “Airports” on the bottom left, type in the correct airport in the top “Search” block,
Tap “Procedure” tab, then select “Send To Map” icon next to the appropriate
approach. Or from the “Plates”, tap on the “Send To Map” icon

183
Q

ForeFlight Mobile Pilot’s Guide

‘27. How do you change map coordinates to MGRS (Military Grid Reference System)
or Degrees.Minutes.Minutes (DD. MM.mm.)?

A

Tap on “More” bottom right, and then tap on “Settings” and then “Units/Time” at the
bottom and then tap on “Coordinates”

184
Q

ForeFlight Mobile Pilot’s Guide

‘28. How do you insert a holding pattern in your flight plan in ForeFlight?

A

On the “Map” page, select “Procedure” at the top right, then tap on “Holding Pattern”
on the top left, then select the holding “Fix” from your route

185
Q

ForeFlight Mobile Pilot’s Guide

‘29. On the “Maps” page, how do you select between “North Up” or “Track Up”
display?

A

Go to “Maps”, “Gear/Settings”, and select from North Up / Track Up Centered or /
Track Up Forward

186
Q

ForeFlight Mobile Pilot’s Guide

‘30. Does the ForeFlight “Glide Advisor” ring around your aircraft take winds aloft and
terrain into account?

A

Yes. Use 15.8 as your glide ratio for the PC-12 Trainer

187
Q

ForeFlight Mobile Pilot’s Guide

‘31. On the “Maps” page, how do you annotate a 30-minute Delay at the Crestview
(KCEW) airport in the ‘Flight Plan” (FPL)?

A

KCEW/D0+30

188
Q

ForeFlight Mobile Pilot’s Guide

‘32. How do you select a “3-D Procedure Preview” to see an instrument approach in
3D?

A

On the “Maps” page, tap on the procedure / instrument approach entry in the flight
plan, and tap on “3D Procedure Review” at the very bottom of the drop-down menu

189
Q

ForeFlight Mobile Pilot’s Guide

‘33. Using ForeFlight, how do you preview a 3D view of an airport, 5-mile final with 5
degree glidepath?

A

Tap on the “Airports” tab on the bottom left, type in the correct airport on the top
right “Search” tab, and then click the “3D View” button. You can manipulate
azimuth, elevation, distance and altitude by dragging or pinching and squeezing.
Please don’t pinch or squeeze your stick-buddies’ ForeFlight!

190
Q

ForeFlight Mobile Pilot’s Guide

‘34. How do you access the Search and Rescue Patterns, and what type of patterns
are there?

A

On the “Maps” page, select the “Procedure” button and then tap on “Search and
Rescue.” Search Patterns include Grid, Circle, Creeping Line, Expanding Square,
Parallel, Route Search, and Sector Search

191
Q

ForeFlight Mobile Pilot’s Guide

‘35. (T/F) In the “Profile” View and on the “Map” view different types of airspace can
be tapped and the airspace detail viewed. The selected airspace will become
green on the map when selected.

A

T

192
Q

ForeFlight Mobile Pilot’s Guide

‘36. (T/F) Distances can be measured on the “Map” view by holding down two fingers
until the ruler appears. In flight, the current groundspeed will be used to
calculate the time of travel for the distance measured.

A

T

193
Q

ForeFlight Mobile Pilot’s Guide

‘38. Where do you find Airfield Giant Report and AQP (Airfield Qualification Program)
information in ForeFlight?

A

Airports” tab at the bottom left; “Airport” tab on the center, left; Giant and AQP is on
the right; or you can access them under DoD in “Plates”

193
Q

ForeFlight Mobile Pilot’s Guide

‘37. (T/F) To swap plates on the map, a quick way to do this is to simply tap on the
plate, or to tap on the gear icon in its top left corner; then select the new plate
from the pop-up menu of other plates for that airfield.

A

T

194
Q

ForeFlight Mobile Pilot’s Guide

‘39. How do you create “User Waypoints”?

A

Open the “Maps” view; Zoom in to the desired point on the map; place and hold
your finger where you want to add a user waypoint. In the sidebar tap “More” and
select Save”. You can then name the point and even change the coordinates

195
Q

ForeFlight Mobile Pilot’s Guide

‘40. (T/F) ForeFlight is able to receive Sirius XM Weather from Status 2S or Stratus 3
pucks.

A

F, Stratus only sends ADS-B Weather + Traffic

196
Q

ForeFlight Mobile Pilot’s Guide

‘41. How do you manually connect your iPad / ForeFlight to the Stratus for the first
time?

A

On your iPad go to the “Settings”, select Wi-Fi and click on the Stratus Wi-Fi line

197
Q

ForeFlight Mobile Pilot’s Guide

‘42. What is the source of “Traffic” displayed on the Foreflight map?

A

ADS-B, which is completely different than TCAS

U-28 (19 decks)

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