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Commercial Pilot Oral Exam > Cross Country Planning > Flashcards

Cross Country Planning Flashcards

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Charter Pilot (Part 135) - Oral flashcards
1
Q

What is an HSI?

A

Horizontal situation indicator

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2
Q

What is DME?

A

Distance measuring equipment. Airborne and ground. Slant range distance in nautical miles

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3
Q

What is the effective range distance for DME?

A

Line of sight principle. Reliable signals up to 199NM at line of sight altitude. Better than .5 mile accuracy or 3% of distance, whichever is greater

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4
Q

Describe GPS

A

Global Positioning System

Satellite based radio navigation. The receiver trackers multiple satellites

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5
Q

Can handheld GPS receivers and GPS systems certified for VFR operations be used for IFR operations?

A

No…
No raim alerting capability (loss of required number of satellites in view)

Database currency

Antenna location

Can only be used for situational awareness

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6
Q

What preflight for an IFR flight using GPS must be done?

A

GPS properly installed and certified

Navigation database current

GPS and WAAS notams

GPS raim availability

Operational status of ground based NAVAIDS

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7
Q

How often must the navigation database be updated?

A

Every 28 days

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8
Q

Methods for checking VOR equipment?

A 
VOT +\-4
Ground check +\-4
Airborne check +\-6
Dual VOR 4• between each other 
Select radial over know ground point +\-6
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9
Q

What records should be kept concerning VOR checks

A

Each person enters date,place, bearing error, signature

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10
Q

Where can you find the location of the nearest VOT testing station?

A

Airport facility directory

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11
Q

How do you check the course sensitivity on a VOR receiver?

A

Record number of degrees of change in course selected as you rotate the OBS to move the CDI from center to last dot. Should not exceed 10 or 12 either side

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12
Q

How can you determine if a VOR is out of service?

A

Removal of identification

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13
Q

Describe NDB/ADF nav system

A

Non directional radio beacon (NDB) is a ground based radio transmitter which transmits in all directions. The automatic direction finder (ADF) when used with an NDB determines bearing from the aircraft to the NDB station.

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14
Q

If a diversion is necessary, what procedure should be used?

A

Consider distance to all alternates
Select most appropriate
Determine magnetic course and divert immediately
Wind correction, actual distance, and estimated time/fuel can be computed enroute

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15
Q

How to enter/depart airports with no tower.

A

Enter Midfield downwind at pattern altitude.
Depart straight out or 45 degree turn in pattern direction

Monitor and communicate on CTAF from 10 miles to landing and from start up to 10 miles out.

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16
Q

A large or turbine aircraft must enter class D at what altitude?

A

1,500 AGL

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17
Q

Both transmitter and receiver are inop. How do you land at controlled airport?

A

Remain outside or above class D surface area

Determine direction and flow of traffic

Join traffic pattern and wait for light gun

Daytime, acknowledge by rocking wings. Night, acknowledge by flashing landing light

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18
Q

When conducting flight operations into an airport with operating control tower, when should initial contact be made?

A 
15 miles out
Establish and maintain 2way radio contact with tower in class B, C, and D
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19
Q

What communication procedures are recommended when departing class D airport?

A

Best practice is to remain on frequency with tower until advised otherwise or you exit the airspace

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20
Q

What happens to the airspace of a class D airport when the tower ceased operations?

A

Airspace becomes class E or combination of class E to 700 then G to surface. Check A/FD for specifics

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21
Q

Why would an airport’s rotating beacon be on during daylight hours?

A

Indicated ground visibility is less than 3 miles and ceiling less than 1,000 ft. Not a regulatory requirement. Flight plan properly

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22
Q

Describe various runway markings?

Runway designator
Runway centerline marking
Runway aiming point markers
Runway touchdown zone markers
Runway side stripe markings
Runway shoulder markings
Runway threshold markings
A

Runway designators: runway number is the whole number nearest 1/10th the azimuth of the centerline of the runway measured clockwise from magnetic north

Runway centerline marking- center of runway, provides alignment guidance

Runway aiming point markings- 1000ft from runway threshold, large white rectangles

Runway touchdown zone markers- provide distance info in 500 ft increments, groups of 1,2,and 3 arranged in pairs about the centerline

Runway side stripe markings- continuous white strip on each side of runway marking the edge

Runway should marking- supplement to side stripes, painted yellow

Runway threshold markings- identifies beginning or runway available for landing. Either 8 stripes on either side of centerline or number of stripes relates to runway width

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23
Q

Color difference between taxiway direction signs and taxiway location signs

A

Taxiway direction- yellow sign with black inscription

Taxiway location- black sign with yellow inscription

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24
Q

6 types of signs on airports

A

Mandatory instruction- red back, white inscription. Hazard areas

Location- black back, yellow inscription (taxiway or runway)

Direction- yellow back, black inscription
Destination- yellow back, black inscription
Information- yellow back, black inscription

Runway distance remaining- black back, white numbers, distance in 1,000s ft

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25
Q

What is LAHSO?

A

Land and hold short operations

Controller may clear a pilot to land and hold short of an intersecting runway or taxiway. Up to PIC to determine if they can land and hold short safely or not.

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26
Q

Where can available landing distance be found?

A

A/FD or ask controller

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27
Q

What visual aids help a pilot in determining where to hold short during LAHSO procedures?

A

Yellow hold short markings
Red/white signage
Sometimes In pavement lighting

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28
Q

Describe a displaced threshold

A

Threshold located at a point on the runway other than the designated beginning of the runway

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29
Q

Describe tri-color VASI system

A

Amber-above
Green- on
Red- below

The glidepath

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30
Q

What is PVASI?

A

Pulsating VASI

Pulsating white-above
Steady white- on
Steady red- slightly below
Pulsating red- well below

The gladepath

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31
Q

What Information should your preflight for taxi operations include?

A

Signs, markings, lighting
Planned taxi route
Hot spots
NOTAMS
Include taxi in preflight briefing
Plan for complex times like intersections and runway crossings
Complete as many checklists as possible prior to taxiing

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32
Q

What is a “hot spot”?

A

Safety related problem area or intersection. Be vigilant

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33
Q

Why is “sterile cockpit” important for taxi ops?

A

You must be focused, keep no on essential conversation to a minimum, brief pax on importance

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34
Q

Recommended practices for maintaining situational awareness during taxi?

A 
Have airport diagram out
Monitor ATC instruction to others
Focus outside cockpit
Visually check for conflicting traffic at intersections
Verbalize “clear right clear left”
Be alert for similar call signs
If in doubt..:ASK!
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35
Q

How should you use exterior lights for surface operations?

A 
Beacon on if engine is running
Taxi, nav, pos light prior to taxi
All exterior lights when crossing a runway
Entering runway, all but TO/LDG
Cleared for takeoff- ALL
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36
Q

When taxiing at non towered airports, what should you do prior to entering or crossing runway?

A

Listen on CTAF
Scan full length of runway incl app/dep paths
Self announce position and intent

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37
Q

Can a commercial pilot allow pax on board with alcohol with purpose of consumption?

A

No, but there’s no reg, except they can’t be drunk. So yes but no bc it’s not smart.

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38
Q

No one can act as crew member with BAC of…

A

0.04% or more

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39
Q

When are PEDs not allowed?

A

Aircraft operates by holder of air carrier operator certificate

Any other aircraft operating IFR

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40
Q

Exception to PED rule?

A 
Portable voice recorders 
Hearing aids
Pace maker
Electric shavers
Any other devices that the operator determines will not interfere with nav/com system
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41
Q

Required preflight for any flights leaving vicinity of departure airport.

A 
Weather
Known ATC delays 
Runway lengths of intended use
Alternates 
Fuel requirements 
TOLD data
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42
Q

When are crew members required to wear seat belt?

A

Taxi, takeoff, landing, enroute while at station

Shoulder harness for take off and landing

During any surface movement

43
Q

Can pax be carried for hire in arranged formation flight?

A

No

44
Q

Max speed allowed operating in class B under 10,000 ft and in class D surface area?

A

At or below 2,500 above and 4NM of class C or D - 200kt

Above that but below 10,000 in B- 250kt

45
Q

Regulations for altimeter setting procedures

A

Current reported altimeter setting of station along route eithin 100nm of aircraft

If none, appropriate available station

If you don’t have a radio… elevation of departure airport or altimeter setting before departure

Above 18,000 set to 29.92

46
Q

Mandatory fuel requirements for for VFR and IFR day and night?

A

VFR(day) - first point of I tended landing plus 30 min
VFR (night) - first point plus 45

IFR - first point, plus alternate, plus 45 normal cruise. If no alternate required, first point plus 45

47
Q

Cloud clearance and vis for VFR flight…
C, D, E controlled under 10, over 10?

G uncontrolled above/below 1200 AGL day and night?

A

CDE above 10 - 5sm,1,1,1
CDE below 10 - 3,1,5,2

G 1200 AGL or less day- 1 and clear
Night- 3,1,5,2

G 1201-9,999 day - 1,1,5,2
G 1201-9,999 night - 3,1,5,2

48
Q

With IFR ops what min altitudes are required over surrounding terrain?

A

If no min altitudes apply…

  • mountainous 2,000 above highest obstacle within 4NM of course
  • non mountainous 1,000 ft above highest obstacle within 4NM of course
49
Q

When would ELT not be required?

A

Ferrying for ELT installation
Ferrying for ELT repair
Training flights within 50 nm radius of airport

50
Q

When is altitude encoding transponder required?

A

At or above 10,000 MSL over 48 states and DC, excluding airspace below 2,500 AGL

Within 30 miles of Class B primary airport under 10,000

Within and above class C up to 10,000

All aircraft flying into, within, or across the contiguous states ADIZ

51
Q

Where can aerobatic maneuvers not be done?

A 
Over congested area 
Open air assembly
Within 4 nm of centerline of airway
Below 1,500 AGL
With less than 3 miles vis
52
Q

When must each occupant of aircraft wear a parachute?

A

If you intentionally bank 60 or nose up or down 30 relative to horizon

Regulation does not apply to flight test for pilot ratings/certificates

53
Q

What is required to operate an aircraft towing advertisement banner?

A

Certificate of waiver issued by administrator

54
Q

What categories if aircraft CANNOT be used to carry pax or property for hire?

A

Restricted
Limited
Experimental

55
Q

What is primary and secondary radar?

A

Primary radar is where a radio pulse is transmitted from a site and then reflected back by the object to ATC

Secondary radar is where the object is fitted with a transponder and the interrogator triggers a response transmission received by ATC rather than a reflected signal

56
Q

What is airport surveillance radar?

A

ASR is approach control radar to detect and display aircraft position in terminal area

57
Q

Describe various types of terminal radar services

A

Basic radar service- safety alerts, traffic advisories, limited vectoring
TRSA - sequencing and separation for participants in VFR
Class C service- basic plus separation between IFR and VFR and sequencing VFR arrivals
Class B service- basic, sequencing, and separation of IFR, VFR, and/or weight

58
Q

Are any other frequencies monitored by most FSSS besides 121.5?

A

Usually 122.2

59
Q

If you’re operating outside airspace that requires a transponder, can you leave it off?

A

No. Use it if you have it any time you are airborne

60
Q

At what altitude would you expect to encounter military aircraft when passing through a military training route? VR1207

A

Less than 1,500 AGL

No segments above 1,500 AGL are 4 digits

3!digits if it has segments above 1,500 AGL

61
Q

What is a composite flight plan?

A

A flight plan that includes both a VFR and an IFR portion

62
Q

What is an abbreviated IFR flight plan?

A

“Pop up” IFR flight plan which gives only the information necessary for ATC. Usually utilized by an airborne pilot who would like an instrument approach or climb through a cloud layer to get be VFR on top

63
Q

How long does a flight plan remain on file past departure time?

A

Unactivated flight plans will be deleted 1 hr past departure time

64
Q

If you fail to report a change or close your flight plan, when will search and rescue procedures begin?

A

Within 1/2 hr of ETA

65
Q

What constitutes a change in flight plan?

A

Altitude
Destination
Route
Speed +- 5 % or 10kts

Advise ATC of any changes

66
Q

What is an ADIZ?

A

Air Defense Identification Zone

Zone through which aircraft entering US from points outside US must be identified prior

67
Q

What is a DVFR flight plan?

A

VFR flights into coastal or domestic ADIZ/DEWIZ. Must be filed before departure

68
Q

Where would you find a DEWIZ?

A

Coastal waters of Alaska

69
Q

What must be done prior to ops into, within, across an ADIZ?

A

Flight plan- IFR or DVFR
Two way radio
Transponder (mode C)
Position reports

70
Q

Briefly describe the 6 classes of US airspace.

A

Class A- 18-60,000 MSL including 12 miles off the coast of States

Class B- usually surface to 10,000 surrounding busiest airports, usually 2 or more layers. Clearance required to enter

Class C- surface to 4,000 AGL (charted MSL) around airports with control tower, radar approach control and certain number of IFR ops and pax. Configuration varies but usually 5nm core surface to 4,000 with outer shelf 1,200-4000AGL

Class D- surface to 2,500 AGL(charted MSL) configuration varies to support instrument procedures

Class E- all other controlled airspace. Extends from either the surface or a designated altitude up to overlying controlled airspace

Class G- uncontrolled

71
Q 
Define...
Restricted area
MOA
Alert area 
National security areas
Special flight rules area

Where could you find status of special use airspace?

A

Restricted- unusual, often invisible hazards. Need permission from controlling agency if VFR

Military operations area- separates military training from IFR. Permission not required but must exercise extreme caution

Alert- high volume of pilot training or unusual Aerial activity, use caution, no permission req

Nations security- defined vertical and lateral dimensions at locations with need for increased security/safety. Pilots asked to voluntarily avoid. Sometimes temporarily prohibited.

Special- SFARs like DC and Grand Canyon 14 CFR 93

Sua.faa.gov

72
Q

What is a TFR?

A

Temporary flight restriction due to hazardous condition or special event

73
Q

What is a TRSA

A

Terminal radar service area.
-area around certain airports where ATC provides vectoring, sequencing, and separation full time for IFR and participating VFR

74
Q

How to avoid wake turbulence on landing…

A

If landing behind large AC on same runway stay above and land beyond their flight path

If landing behind large AC on parallel runway, consider drift and stay above flight path

Landing behind departing large AC, land before rotation point

Landing behind departing large AC on crossing runway, if they rotate past intersection, land prior to intersection. If before, avoid flying below their flight path.

75
Q

How to avoid wake turbulence departing?

A

Rotate prior to large AC rotation point and climb above their path

Departing or landing after large AC making low approach, missed approach, touch and go… ensure 2 minutes have elapsed before take off or land. Vortices settle and move laterally near the ground

Enroute VFR- avoid flight below and behind large AC, move upwind laterally

76
Q

3 types of hydroplaning

A

Dynamic- water about 1/10th in deep lifts tire off runway

Viscous- very thin film of fluid cannot be penetrated by the tire so it rolls on top. Occurs at much slower speeds on smooth surfaces

Reverted rubber hydroplaning- occurs when pilot locks the break for extended period on landing roll on wet runway

77
Q

Best method speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced?

A

Touchdown as slow as possible.
Apply moderate breaking
Raise nose for aerodynamic drag until breaking becomes effective

78
Q

Illusions that lead to errors in judgment on landing

A

Runway width- narrower runway creates illusion that aircraft is higher than actual

Runway and terrain slope- upsloping runway/terrain creates illusion ac is higher. Doensloping has opposite effect

Featureless terrain- illusion that ac is higher

Atmospheric- rain creates illusion of greater height, haze creates illusion of greater distance,

79
Q

Different types of rotating beacons?

A 
White/green- lighted land airport 
Green- lighted land airport
White/yellow- lighted water airport 
Yellow- lighted water airport 
Green/yellow/white- lighted heliport
2white/green- military airport
80
Q

How does the radio controlled runway light system work?

A

On appropriate frequency, click it 7 time. Can be adjusted by clicking 7,5,or 3 times within 5 seconds

81
Q

What additional equipment is required when operating above FL240?

A

DME or RNAV system

82
Q

What charts are used above 18,000?

A

Enroute high altitude charts

83
Q

When is immediate notification to NTSB required?

A

Flight control system malfunction
Crew member unable to perform
Turbine engine fail of structural components
INFLIGHT fire
Aircraft collision inflight
Property damage other than ac exceeds 25k
Overdue ac
Release of all or portion of prop blade
Complete loss of info from more than 50% of EFIS cockpit display

84
Q

After accident or incident, how soon must report be filed?

A

Within 10 days after accident
When, after 7 days, overdue ac still missing

Incident only on request

85
Q

Define accident and incident

A

Accident- occurrence that happens between first on and last off in which anyone suffered death or serous injury or ac substantially damaged

Incident- occurrence other than accident associated with aircraft ops which could affect safety

86
Q

Define serious injury

A

Requires more than 48 hrs hospitalization within 7 days from date injury occurred

Fracture of any bone

Hemorrhages

Nerve, muscle, tendon damage

Internal organ damage

2nd or 3rd degree burns on more than 5% of body

87
Q

Where are accident or incident reports filed?

A

Nearest field office of NTSB

NTSB.gov for directory

88
Q

Define SRM

Examples

A

Single pilot resource management

Managing ALL available resources (on board and outside) to ensure successful outcome of flight

Five Ps (plan, plane, pilot, pax, programming)

89
Q

Define ADM

Example?

A

Aeronautical decision making is a systematic mental process for pilots to consistently determine best course of action in response to given set of circumstances.

D detect change 
E estimate need to react 
C choose outcome
I identify action
D do 
E evaluate effect

PERCEIVE hazards with PAVE (pilot, aircraft, environment, external pressures)
PROCESS hazards with CARE (consequences, alternatives, reality, external pressure)
PERFORM risk management with TEAM (transfer, eliminate, accept, mitigate)

90
Q

5 hazardous attitudes and antidotes

A

Anti-authority - follow the rules, they are usually right

Impulsivity - think first, not so fast

Invulnerability - it COULD happen to me

Macho - taking chances is foolish

Resignation - I can make a difference, I am not helpless

91
Q

What is risk management?

A

Logical process if weighing potential costs or risk against benefits of allowing the risk

92
Q

IMSAFE personal checklist

A 
Illness
Medication
Stress
Alcohol
Fatigue
Eating/emotion
93
Q

Define Task management

Examples of tasks

A

Manage tasks efficiently

Initiation of new tasks 
Monitoring ongoing tasks 
Prioritization of tasks 
Allocation of human/machine resources 
Interruption/resumption of lower priority tasks
Termination of tasks
94
Q

How can a pilot decrease workload and avoid being overloaded?

A

Stop, think, slow down, prioritize, delegate, use ATC

Aviator, navigation, communicate

Stay ahead of the plane

95
Q

Method of checklist usage?

A

Do-verify

Run the checklist

96
Q

Common errors in checklist usage

A

Distractions
In a hurry
Head down too much
Checklists not ready

97
Q

Define situational awareness

Factors that reduce it

A

Accurate perception of all factors within the 4 fundamental risk elements PAVE

Fatigue, distraction, complacency, high workload, inop equipment, unfamiliar situations

98
Q

How to maintain situational awareness in a technically advanced aircraft?

A

Verbal call outs
Double check all info you programmed is correct
Use VOR to back up GPS
Verify waypoints

99
Q

A majority of CFIT accidents have. Even attributed to what factors?

A

Lack of pilot currency
Loss of situational awareness
Failure to comply with safe min altitudes
Insufficient planning

100
Q

What is the most important aspect of managing an autopilot/FMS?

A

Knowing at all times which modes are engaged and which are armed to enagage. Being capable of verifying that armed functions engage at the appropriate time

101
Q

What is automation bias?

A

Willingness to trust the automated system and not checking/monitoring the processes which detaches the pilot from the operation increasing all sorts of risk

102
Q

When do you need ADSB?

A

In controlled airspace anywhere Mode C is required.

103
Q

Special use airspace

A 
Moa (military operating area)
Controlled firing area
Prohibited
Restricted (permission)
Alert 
Warning (permission)
National Security

Commercial Pilot Oral Exam (8 decks)

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