Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Commercial Pilot Oral Exam > Airplane Systems > Flashcards

Airplane Systems Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Charter Pilot (Part 135) - Oral flashcards
1
Q

How are flight controls operated?

A

Manually though rod or cable system. Yoke controls the ailerons and elevator whole rudder/brake pedals control the rudder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What type of trim system is installed?

A

Both rudder and elevator trim. Manually actuated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are flaps? What is their function?

A

Movable panels on inboard trails edge on wings. Hinged to extend downward. Increases both lift and drag. Permit slower airspeed and steeper angle of descent. May be used to shorten take off distance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

State some examples of leading edge lift devices.

A

Slots- directs air from under wing to airflow above the wing. Allows wing to develop lift at substantially higher angles of attack

Slats- miniature airfoil on leading edge of wing. Same results as slots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What instruments operate on pitot static system?

A

Altimeter
Vertical speed indicator
Airspeed indicator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Does this aircraft have an external static system?

A

Yes. The control is beneath the throttle. It will supply static pressure from inside the cabin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does an altimeter work?

A

Aneroid wagers in the instrument expand and Contract as atmospheric pressure changes and through a shaft and gear linkage, rotate pointers on the dial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A pressure altimeter is subject to what limitations?

A

Non standard temperature and pressure

Temperature variations expand or contract the atmosphere and raise or lower the pressure levels the altimeter senses

  • warm day: pressure is higher so alt indicates lower than actual
  • cold day: pressure is lower so alt indicates higher than actual

Changes in surface pressure also affect pressure levels at altitude

High pressure: altitude indicates lower
Low pressure; altitude indicates higher

*high to low or hot to cold, look out below!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q 
Define and determine altitudes...
Indicated
Pressure
True
Density
Absolute
A

Indicated: read from altimeter when set to current altimeter setting

Pressure: read when altimeter set to 29.92

True: true vertical distance above MSL.

Density: pressure altitude corrected non standard temperature

Absolute: vertical distance above terrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How does the airspeed indicator operate? Limitations? Errors?

A

Measures difference between impact pressure (ram air) from pitot head and atmospheric pressure from static source

Depends on proper flow of air in pitot/static system

Position error: static port sensing erroneous pressure (slip stream)
Density error: changes in altitude and temperature not compensated for by instrument
Compressibility error: packing of air into pitot tube at high air speeds resulting in higher than normal indications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the different types of air speeds?

A

Indicated: read from airspeed indicator with out corrections

Calibrated: indicated corrected for position/installation errors.

Equivalent: calibrated corrected for Adiabatic compressible flow for the altitude. =CAS at sea level standard day

True: CAS corrected for altitude and non standard pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What Airspeed limitations apply I the color coded marking system in ASI?

A

Lower AS limit white- Vso (stall speed landing config)

Upper AS limit white- max flaps extended

Green arc- normal operating range

Lower AS green- Vs1 (stall speed clean)

Upper AS green- Vno (max structural cruise)

Yellow Arc- caution range

Red line- Vne (never exceed speed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Other V speeds

A 
Va- maneuvering speed
VLo- landing gear operating 
VLe- landing gear extended 
Vx- best angle
Vy- best rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does the vertical speed indicator work?

Limitations?

A

Pressure differential. Both the inside of aneroid and instrument case are vented to the static system. As aircraft ascends, pressure becomes lower and the pressure inside the case compressed the aneroid causing the pointer to move upward.

Not accurate until aircraft is stabilized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which instruments are gyroscopic?

2 fundamental properties?

Source of power?

A

Heading indicator
Attitude indicator
Turn coordinator

Rigidity in space- remains in fixed position and plane moves around it
Precession- reaction to deflective force occurs 90 degrees later in the rotation from point it was applied.

Vacuum, pressure, or electric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does the vacuum system operate?

A

Air is drawn into the vacuum system by an engine driven pump. It moves through a filter then through the instruments causing the gyros to spin. There’s a relief valve. Air is then expelled overboard or used in other systems such as pneumatic deicing boots.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does the attitude indicator work? Limitations? Errors?

A

Gyro is mounted on horizontal plane and depends on rigidity in space

Banking limits 100-110
Pitch limits 60-70
If either limit is exceeded the instrument will tumble or spill

Mostly free of errors. Slight nose up indication with rapid acceleration. Small bank and pitch error after 180 turn. Self correcting when straight and level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How does the magnetic compass work? Limitations?

A

Magnetized needles fastened to a float assembly around which is mounted a compass card. They align themselves parallel to the earth’s lines of magnetic force.

At bank angles steeper than 18 the indications are erratic and unpredictable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the compass errors?

A

Deviation: electrical and magnetic disturbances
Variation: angular difference between true and magnetic north
Oscillation: erratic movement of compass card due to turbulence or rough control
North turning: leads south, lags north
-Undershoot North Overshoot South
Acceleration: on East or west headings
-Accelerate North Decelerate South

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What equipment is hydraulic?

What powers the system?

A

Retractable landing gear
Emergency hand pump
Brakes
Air/oil nose gear shock strut

Electrically driven power pack. Controlled by landing gear lever. Pressure switch will activate the power pack and a selector valve is mechanically rotated. 1,000-1,500 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How’s does the heading indicator operate? Limitations? Errors?

A

Rigidity in space. Rotor turns on a vertical plane and a compass card is fixed to the rotor.

Pitch and bank limits vary

Precession caused by friction. It slowly gets off of the heading it was set to. As much as 15 degrees per hour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How does the turn coordinator operate?

What information does it supply?

Define skid/slip.

A

Gyroscopic precession. Reacts to force applied moving the needle or mini aircraft in proportion to rate of turn

Shows yaw and roll of aircraft around vertical and longitudinal axes. When aligned, represents standard rate of turn 3 degrees/second. Ball indicates slip/skid

Skid: ball to outside of turn. Too much turn for the amount of bank

Slip: ball inside turn. Not enough turn for amount of bank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What type of engine does this aircraft have?

A 
Normally aspirated 
Direct drive
Air cooled 
Horizontally opposed
Carbureted 
Four cylinder

Lycoming 160HP at 2700 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q 
How do the following gauges work?
Oil temperature 
Oil pressure
Tachometer 
Manifold pressure
Fuel pressure
A

Oil temperature: electrically powered
Oil pressure: direct pressure oil line from engine delivers oil at engine operating pressure to the gauge
Tachometer: engine driven
Manifold pressure: reading of induction air manifold pressure in IN of mercury
Fuel pressure: indicates fuel pressure to carburetor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which four strokes must occur in each cylinder to produce max power?

A

Intake: fuel mixture drawn into cylinder on down stroke
Compression: mixture compressed by upward stroke
Ignition: spark plug ignites mixture forcing piston down
Exhaust: burned gas pushed out of cylinder by upward stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does the carburetor do? How? Carb heat?

A

Updraft, float type, fixed jet carburetor

Mixes fuel (gravity fed) and intake air in correct proportions to form combustible mixture.

It vaporizes liquid fuel to mix with air. It measures airflow and meters fuel accordingly.

Fuel/air mixture delivered to cylinders through intake manifold tubes

A heat valve controlled by pilot allows heated air from exhaust area into the induction air prior to carburetor. Use in suspected or known icing conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is an alternative induction system and when is it used?

A

A device which opens eithe manually or automatically to allow induction airflow. Used in the event of impact ice accumulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does the throttle do?

A

Allows pilot to manually control amount of fuel/air mixture entering the cylinders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does mixture control do?

A

Regulates fuel to air ratio. Prevents mixture from becoming too rich at high altitudes due to decreasing air density. Leaning mixture conserves fuel and provides optimum power.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What type of propeller does the aircraft have?

A

All metal
Two blades
Constant speed
Governor regulated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Discuss fixed pitch propellers

A

Climb prop: lower pitch there for less drag and increased performance for takeoffs and landings

Cruise prop: higher pitch therefore more drag. Increased performance during cruise

Prop is fixed by manufacturers and can’t be changed by pilots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Discuss variable pitch (constant speed) propellers

A

Capable of continuously adjusting propeller blade angle to maintain constant engine speed. Increases efficiency in different flight conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What would desired propeller setting be for max performance situations such as takeoff?

A

Low pitch, high RPM setting produces max power and thrust.

34
Q

What is a propeller governor?

A

With the assistance of a governor pump, it can control the flow of engine oil to or from a piston in the propeller hub. When there’s high pressure on the engine oil, it pushes the piston forward and the propeller blades twist to a high pitch/low RPM. When oil is released from the cylinder, centrifugal force (and internal spring) twist the blades to a low pitch/high RPM setting:

35
Q

When operating with a constant speed propeller, what induces the most stress?

A

Excessive manifold pressure raises cylinder compression resulting in high engine stress and high engine temperature

36
Q

What type of fuel system does this aircraft have and what are the components?

A

Gravity fed type fuel system. Fuel delivered by gravity. From fuel tanks to fuel selector valve. From the valve, through the strainer to carburetor. Carburetor mixes with air then delivers to cylinders through intake manifold tubes.

37
Q

Why do we have a left and right fuel selector?

A

Unequal fuel flow may occur if wings are not consistently kept level in flight.

38
Q

Where are fuel vents located for each tanks?

A

Left tank vented the vent line with check valve. Right tank be red through filler cap. Vented together by interconnecting line

39
Q

Why do we need a fuel tank vent?

A

Without the vent, a vacuum would be created as the fuel amount decreases. Which would result in a decreasing fuel flow and eventual engine stoppage. Venting replaces the used fuel with air and prevents a vacuum

40
Q

What type of fuel is required?

Can other type be used?

Other types/color?

A

100LL

Next higher octane could be used but not desirable

80- red
100- green
100LL- blue
Jet A- colorless or straw

41
Q

What’s the function of the manual primer?

A

Assists in starting engine by drawing fuel from the strainer and Injecting it directly into the cylinder

42
Q

Where are the drain valves located?

A

Bottom of each main wing and directly under fuel selector valve. A fuel strainer drain is located on an access panel on the right side of the engine cowling.

43
Q

How is fuel quantity measured?

Is it accurate?

A

One float type quantity transmitter and one electric indicator for each tank.

Only accurate when empty

44
Q

Describe the oil system.

Min and max oil temperature and pressure?

A

Oil is supplied From a sump on the bottom of the engine. Capacity 6 quarts.

Temperature: 100-245F
Oil: 25psi idling, 60-90psi green arc, 115psi red line

45
Q

What types of oil are available for this aircraft and which is recommended?

A

Mineral oil: non detergent, no additives

Ashless dispersant: mineral oil WITH additives. Picks up contamination and carbon particles and keeps them suspended so buildups and sludge don’t form in the engine

Ashless dispersant oil recommended. SAE 20W-50 during winter. Summer use SAE 40 or 50

46
Q

Describe the electrical system

A

Electrical energy provided by a 28 volt direct current system powered by a belt driven 60 amp alternator and a 24 volt battery.

47
Q

Where is the battery located?

A

Left forward side of the firewall

48
Q

How are the circuits protected?

A

Protected from overload by circuit breakers, fuses or both.

49
Q

What is a bus bar?

A

Used as a terminal in the electrical system to connect the main electrical system to the equipment using the electricity as a source of power. Provides a common point from which voltage can be distributed throughout the system.

50
Q

Electrical system provides power for what equipment?

A 
Radios
Turn coordinator 
Fuel gauges
Pitot heat
Exterior and interiors lights
Flags (usually)
Stall warning horn 
Oil temperature gauge
51
Q

What does the Ammeter indicate?

A

Shows if the alternator is generating enough power to the electrical system and weather or not the battery is being charged.

If needle is plus, the battery is being charged. If it is negative, output is not adequate and power is being drained from the battery

52
Q

What function does voltage regulator have?

A

Controls rate of charge to the battery by stabilizing the alternator electrical output.

53
Q

Is there an external power source?

A

Yes, receptacle is located behind a door on the left side of fuselage

54
Q

What type of ignition system does your plane have?

A

Ignition provided by two engine driven magnetos and 2 spark plugs per cylinder. They must be activated as the engine crankshaft is rotated by the starter gears powered by the battery. After magnetos are going the starter system is disengaged and the battery no longer contributes to the engine running.

55
Q

What are the 2 main advantages of a dual ignition system?

A

Increased safety: if one system fails, the engine can be operated on the other until a safe landing

More complete and even combustion of mixture which improves engine performance

56
Q

How does the cabin heat work?

A

Fresh air heated by exhaust shroud is directed into cabin by ducts .

57
Q

Name several types of oxygen systems

A

Diluter demand:

pressure demand: oxygen supplied to mask under pressure at cabin altitudes about 34,000 ft. Create airtight seals. Lungs pressurized with oxygen therefore safe to use at 40,000 FT

continuous flow: provided for pax and has reservoir bag

58
Q

Can any kind of oxygen be used in the aviation oxygen system?

A

No, oxygen for medical or welding should not be used bc it could contain too much water and freeze in the oxygen line. Must be 99.5% pure oxygen

59
Q

What is a pressurized aircraft?

A

Cabin, flight compartment, baggage are incorporated into a sealed unit capable of containing air under a pressure higher than outside atmospheric pressure. Pressurized air is pumped into the sealed fuselage by superchargers. Air is released through an outflow valve.

60
Q

Advantages of flying pressurized aircraft?

A

Can fly higher so better fuel economy, higher speeds, bad weather avoidance

Maintains 8,000 ft pressure

Prevents rapid change of cabin altitude which could be uncomfortable or injurious

Fast exchange of air from inside to outside

61
Q

Difference between deice and anti ice system?

A

Deice eliminates ice already formed and anti ice prevents ice formation

62
Q

What systems are used in prevention/elimination of air frame ice?

A

Pneumatic: deice System consisting of inflatable boots attached to leading edge of wings and tail. Compressed air from vacuum pump inflates boots

Hot air: anti ice system usually in turbo prop and turbo jet. Hot air directed from engine to the leading edges of the wings

63
Q

What systems used to prevent/eliminate propeller ice?

A

Electrically heated boots: heating elements in boots bonded to back of propeller

Fluid system: electric pump supplies fluid, alcohol, to device in the prop spinner which distributes fluid among prop, assisted by centrifugal force

64
Q

What function does the avionics power switch have?

A

Controls power from primary bus to avionics bus. Avionics are isolated from electrical power when switch is off.

65
Q

What are static dischargers?

A

Reduce radio receiver interference caused by corona discharge.

66
Q

Within what frequency band does the following nav/com equipment operate on?

VOR, VHF, DME, ADF

A

VOR: 108.0-117.95
VHF: 118-136.975
DME: 960-1215
ADF: 190-530

67
Q

What is the function of a magnetometer?

A

Measures strength of earth’s magnetic field to determine aircraft heading. Provides this info digitally to AHRS then PFD

68
Q

If a failure of one of the displays occurs, what will happen?

A

Reversion capability. Displayed primary flight and engine instruments on remaining display

69
Q

Describe the ignition/starter system

A

Engine driven dual magnetos and 2 spark plugs in each cylinder.

Direct cranking electric starter engages flywheel, rotating the engine to start and maintain operation

70
Q

Describe the ignition/starter system

A

Engine driven dual magnetos and 2 spark plugs in each cylinder.

Direct cranking electric starter engages flywheel, rotating the engine to start and maintain operation

71
Q

4 left turning tendencies

A

Torque-Newton’s 3rd law, prop spins clockwise, plane turns counter clockwise

Spiral slipstream- airflow strikes left side of vertical stabilizer and used aircraft to the left

Gyro precession- force applied to spinning object is felt 90 degrees ahead in the direction of rotation. Applied at top of prop, felt at right side and yaws aircraft left

P factor- downward slicing blade has a higher blade angle and therefore creates more thrust yawing aircraft to the left

72
Q

What is AHRS?

A

Altitude and heading reference system. 3 axis sensors that provide heading, altitude, and yaw information. Replaces gyroscopic instruments.

73
Q

What is the ADC?

A

Air data computer. Receives and processes pitot and static pressure and temperature to get precise altitude, airspeed, true airspeed, vertical speed, and outside air temp

74
Q

What is the PFD?

A

Primary flight display. Provides increased situational awareness by replacing the traditional 6 pack of instruments with easier to scan display.

75
Q

What is the MFD?

A

Multifunction display. Secondary display that provides navigation, terrain awareness, traffic, moving maps etc

76
Q

What is the FD?

A

Flight director. Flight computer than analyzes navigation selections, signals, and aircraft parameters. Provides steering instructions on the flight display

77
Q

What is the FMS?

A

Flight management system. Computer system containing a database for programming routes, approaches, and departures. Provides navigation info to FD/pilot and can calculate data such as fuel consumption, time remaining, possible range etc

78
Q

What is TAWS?

A

Terrain awareness and warning system. Uses GPS nav system and altimetry to compare the position and trajectory of the aircraft with a more detailed obstacle database. Attempts to detail every obstruction that could pose a threat.

79
Q

If a failure of one of the displays (PFD/MFD) occurs in flight, what happens to the other display?

A

“Reversion” capability displays primary flight instruments engine instruments on remaining display

80
Q

Pressurization system

A

Bleed air for Jet from super chargers

Turbo piston engine is from engine itself

81
Q

Why would VLE be higher than VLO?

A

Bc operating the gear causes abrupt and changing air loads to hit parts of the gear and doors when they are in a position other than up or down and locked

Commercial Pilot Oral Exam (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions