Crash course rheum and ortho SBA questions Flashcards
1a. A 55-year-old woman develops tingling and numbness in the radial 3.5 fingers of her right hand. Which is the most relevant part of her medical history to be considered in the diagnosis?
A:A family history of hypertension.
B:A drug history including nonsteroidal use.
C:A medical history of underactive thyroid.
D:A social history of working as an accountant.
E:A systemic enquiry revealing marked fatigue.
C:A medical history of underactive thyroid.
- commonly associated with carpal tunnel syndrome
1b.A 55-year-old woman presents with a fragility fracture. She undergoes a dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan revealing osteoporosis. Which of the following is the most important in terms of her medical history?
A.A family history of traumatic hip fracture.
B.Prednisolone 10mg daily for several years for poorly controlled asthma.
C.Menopause aged 53 years.
D.Living in South America for several years.
E.A personal history of type 2 diabetes mellitus.
B: Prednisolone 10mg daily for several years for poorly controlled asthma.
- corticosteroids are risk factor for osteoporosis
1c.A 64-year-old man presents with severe pain in his fingertips and skin colour changes (see image). What in his history would help differentiate between primary and secondary Raynaud disease?
A.A recent history of difficulty in swallowing.
B.A social history of alcohol misuse.
C.A family history of osteoarthritis.
D.A drug history of nifedipine use.
E.A medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
A: A recent history of difficulty in swallowing.
- dysphagia is feature of CREST syndrome (systemic sclerosis)
1d.A 44-year-old normally fit and well woman presents with bilateral swollen ankles and knee joints, which occurred a few weeks after a chest infection. The joints are warm and stiff for 2 hours upon waking. She has not been experiencing fever. She feels tired but is otherwise well. Her family history includes a brother with ankylosing spondylitis. What is the likely diagnosis based on the history?
A.Gout.
B.Rheumatoid arthritis.
C.Ankylosing spondylitis.
D.Reactive arthritis.
E.Septic arthritis.
D.Reactive arthritis.
- condition can occur after bacterial infections (such as mycoplasma pneumoniae in lower respiratory tract infections) and favours the larger joints of the lower limbs
2a. A 38-year-old electrician presents with a painful swollen right knee. His knee has become progressively more painful and swollen over a week. On examination, there is a large erythematous swelling anterior to the patella, which is tender to palpate. The skin appears thickened. There is no effusion in the knee joint. He is able to flex his knee to 45 degrees before he is limited by a combination of pain and tightness.
What is the likely diagnosis?
A.Osteoarthritis.
B.Septic arthritis.
C.Baker cyst.
D.Patellar fracture.
E.Prepatellar bursitis.
E.Prepatellar bursitis.
- common in patients who work a lot on their knees
2b. What causes a locked knee?
A.Anterior cruciate ligament tear.
B.Radial medical tear.
C.Medial collateral ligament tear.
D.Bucket-handle meniscal tear.
E.Tibial plateau fracture.
D.Bucket-handle meniscal tear.
- The handle segment flips over and becomes trapped in the joint resulting in the knee locking. The patient is unable to extend the knee fully.
2c. A patient with an acquired foot drop will most likely present with which type of gait?
A.Trendelenburg.
B.Antalgic.
C.Circumduction.
D.Waddling
E.High-stepping
E.High-stepping
- the leg must be lifted higher to clear the ground
2d. A young man experiences a wrist fracture while skiing. Afterwards, he is unable to lift his thumb off a table when the hand is placed flat. The tendon of which muscle has likely been damaged?
A.Adductor pollicis.
B.Extensor pollicis longus (EPL).
C.Abductor pollicis brevis.
D.Opponens pollicis.
E.Extensor digitorum.
B.Extensor pollicis longus (EPL)
- The tendon of EPL runs over the radial side of the wrist joint and is commonly affected by displaced wrist fractures. It controls thumb extension
2e. 5.A patient with a severe burning sensation in her hands presents with bilateral thenar and hypothenar wasting. The pain occurs over her thumb, index finger and middle finger. She has a history of hypothyroidism. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms and signs?
A.Carpal tunnel syndrome.
B.Hypothyroid-related peripheral neuropathy.
C.Peripheral vascular disease.
D.C8 radiculopathy.
E.Golfer’s elbow.
A.Carpal tunnel syndrome.
- Her hypothyroidism is a risk factor for the condition. The classic presentation is of pain occurring in the thumb, index and middle finger and the thumb side of the ring finger.
3a.A 33-year-old Asian woman presents to her physician complaining of fatigue, myalgia and weight loss. She finds it more painful to bear weight compared with 6 months ago. She is losing her hair and there is a non-itchy rash over her nose and cheeks.
Which test is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
A.Anti-double stranded DNA antibodies.
B.Eerythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
C.Skin biopsy of the rash.
D.Thyroid function tests.
E.MRI of her hips.
A.Anti-double stranded DNA antibodies.
- highly specific for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
3b.A 68-year-old woman presents to her GP with fatigue. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis and has recently had several flares requiring her medication to be increased. The GP performs some blood tests:
Liver function:
- Alkaline phosphatase: 78 (range 44–147)
- Aspartate aminotransferase (AST): 138 (range 10–40)
- Alanine aminotransferase (ALT): 179 (range 10–56)
- γ-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT): 36 (range 3–48)
- Bilirubin: 17 (range 0–22)
What is the likely cause of the above results?
A.Primary biliary cirrhosis.
B.Methotrexate hepatotoxicity.
C.Acute viral hepatitis due to immunocompromised state.
D.Gallstones.
E.Alcohol.
B.Methotrexate hepatotoxicity.
- important that a patient’s blood is closely monitored when increasing doses of methotrexate. Signs of toxicity include flu-like symptoms, nausea, diarrhoea, fatigue and recurrent mouth ulcers.
3c.A 28-year-old woman presents with Raynaud phenomenon, which ulcerated last winter, progressive tightness in her hands and small red dots on her chest that branch out like spiders.
Which antibody is she likely to have?
A.Jo-1.
B.Anti-dsDNA.
C.Anti-SCL-70.
D.p-ANCA.
E.Histone.
C.Anti-SCL-70.
- This woman has systemic sclerosis with secondary Raynaud phenomenon, sclerodactyly and telangiectasia
3d.A 45-year-old man is getting out of a car when he twists his leg and feels a pop in his knee. He is immediately unable to bear his weight and the joint proceeds to swell.
Which investigation will be most helpful in arriving at a diagnosis?
A.Joint aspiration.
B.X-ray knee.
C.Ultrasound scan (USS).
D.MRI.
E.Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
D.MRI.
- The twisting mechanism with a popping sensation suggests a meniscal tear for which MRI is the best investigative procedure
4a.A 68-year-old woman presents with a history of lower back pain and fatigue.
Which of the following additional findings with regard to back pain would warrant urgent investigations?
A.A history of urinary incontinence.
B.A raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
C.A family history of psoriasis.
D.Abnormal thyroid function tests (TFTs).
E.A positive antinuclear antibody (ANA; 1:40).
A.A history of urinary incontinence.
- red flag feature of back pain and an urgent MRI should be carried out to exclude cord compression
4b.A young woman presents to A&E after playing sports. She twisted and felt a pop in her knee and now the joint is swollen, tense and tender.
Joint aspiration is undertaken: the fluid is bloodied with white/yellow globules mixed in.
What does the aspirate imply?
A.A rheumatoid knee.
B.Ruptured anterior cruciate ligament (ACL).
C.Septic arthritis.
D.Patellar dislocation.
E.Pseudo gout.
B.Ruptured anterior cruciate ligament (ACL).
- The fluid description of blood with fat globules suggests lipohaemarthrosis, which usually indicates a fracture or ruptured ACL
4c.A 61-year-old retired bricklayer presents with chronic back pain. His pain is exacerbated by walking, particularly downhill, and radiates into his buttocks, thighs and calves bilaterally. Examination shows a stooped gait with reduced motion in the lumbar spine. His symptoms are worsened by extension of the spine.
What is the diagnosis?
A.Prolapsed intervertebral disc.
B.Mechanical back pain.
C.Spinal stenosis.
D.Spondylolisthesis.
E.Spinal malignancy.
C.Spinal stenosis.
- The pain is bilateral, radiates and is relieved by flexing the spine (hence the patient’s stooped gait). Extension aggravates his symptoms
4d.A 77-year-old man has bilateral shoulder pain, which is aching in nature, stiffness and difficulty in dressing. He is also fatigued, more so over the past 3 months.
Which test is the most useful in establishing the diagnosis?
A.Nerve conducting studies.
B.Bilateral shoulder X-ray image.
C.Urinary Bence Jones protein.
D.Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
E.MRI of the neck.
D.Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
- This gentleman has polymyalgia rheumatica, a common cause of bilateral shoulder pain, fatigue and stiffness in the elderly. Treatment is with steroids
4e.Following a stroke, a patient develops severe hand pain, with skin changes, hypersensitivity and arm swelling.
What is the diagnosis?
A.Arterial insufficiency.
B.Upper limb deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
C.Factitious pain.
D.Phantom-limb pain.
E.Complex regional pain syndrome.
E.Complex regional pain syndrome.
- characterized by severe pain after an injury, skin changes, hypersensitivity and occasional swelling. Arterial insufficiency causes claudication and ulceration. Upper limb DVT would not normally cause hypersensitivity.
5a.A 68-year-old woman presents with bilateral hip and shoulder pain. She has an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR; 68). She is prescribed steroids and a provisional diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatic (PMR) is reached.
Two months later she is seen in clinic and despite the steroids she is still symptomatic, has developed synovitis and has lost 2 stone in weight.
What is the next investigation to consider?
A.CT thorax, abdomen and pelvis.
B.Vitamin D.
C.Muscle biopsy.
D.Check rheumatoid factor.
E.Skeletal survey.
A.CT thorax, abdomen and pelvis.
- This woman has an atypical presentation of PMR with overlapping inflammatory joint disease; the possibility of a paraneoplastic rheumatic syndrome must be considered. A CT scan of the thorax, abdomen and pelvis is the first-line test when considering an occult malignancy
5b.A 35-year-old Asian woman presents with widespread pain, fatigue, dry eyes and a rash over her nose and cheeks.
Which is the best test to confirm the diagnosis?
A.Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
B.Anti-dsDNA antibodies.
C.Schirmer test.
D.Rheumatoid factor.
E.Urine dip.
B.Anti-dsDNA antibodies.
- highly specific for systemic lupus erythematosus. ESR is nonspecifically elevated in a variety of inflammatory conditions
5c.A 38-year-old woman presents with pain throughout the shoulders, arms and hip girdle. She has intermittent loose stools/constipation, low mood and severe fatigue.
Investigations show the following:
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate: 9mm/h (normal 0–29mm/h)
Calcium: 2.27mmol/L (normal 2.20–2.70mmol/L)
Vitamin D: 78nmol/L (normal 70–100nmol/L)
Which of the following drugs would you consider using in treating her condition?
A.Naproxen.
B.Adalimumab.
C.Pregabalin.
D.Methotrexate.
E.Oxycodone.
C.Pregabalin.
- This woman has fibromyalgia. A multitherapy approach to treatment is required involving physiotherapy/graded exercise, addressing trigger stressors and analgesia (anticonvulsants are often used). Naproxen is a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug and therefore useful
5d.A 42-year-old woman is unable to walk. She has focal neurological findings indicative of a specific neurological lesion but is tender over her greater trochanters, lower back and quadriceps. She is tearful and discloses a history of insomnia and intermittent paraesthesia. She has pain in 14/18 trigger points.
Her initial blood tests are normal. Her chest X-ray and EKG are similarly unremarkable.
What is the next best step?
A.MRI of the spine.
B.Autoimmune profile.
C.Electromyography.
D.Reassurance.
E.Intravenous immunoglobulins.
D.Reassurance.
- This woman has fibromyalgia.
5e.Which of the following are not typical features of fibromyalgia?
A.Altered sleeping pattern.
B.Pain in multiple tender points.
C.Altered bowel habit.
D.Headache.
E.Foot drop.
E.Foot drop.
- This usually indicates an L5/S1 nerve root lesion
6a.A 62-year-old diabetic woman presents with an acutely hot swollen right knee. She has recently been treated for a foot ulcer. She is febrile.
Her bloods show a white cell count of 15.5 and a C-reactive protein of 113.
What will her joint aspirate most likely show?
A.Gram-positive cocci.
B.Gram-negative bacilli.
C.Needle-shaped negatively birefringent crystals.
D.Rod-shaped positively birefringent crystals.
E.Blood.
A.Gram-positive cocci.
- This woman has septic arthritis and the most common organism is Staphylococcus aureus, a common skin bacterium. Gram-negative bacilli tend to inhabit the GI tract.