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Nasm CPT > CPT Section 6 > Flashcards

CPT Section 6 Flashcards

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1
Q

Kinetic chain

A

A concept that describes the human body as a chain of interdependent links that work together to perform movement.

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2
Q

Overtraining

A

If not, the fitness professional is possibly creating an inappropriate exercise program, which may cause injury or undue fatigue that could lead to overtraining or burnout

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3
Q

A training plan is

A

a specific outline that a fitness professional uses to help meet the client’s goal.

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4
Q

Acute variables

A

Important components that specify how each exercise is to be performed

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5
Q

Periodization

A

Macromanagement or planned manipulation of training variables in an organized fashion to improve performance over time.

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6
Q

Linear periodization is ..

A

a traditional method of program design that aims to gradually increase the intensity of the training load while simultaneously decreasing volume over a set period of time

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7
Q

Undulating periodization

A

A programming scheme, also known as nonlinear periodization, that uses changes in volume, intensity, and exercise selection to provide loading differences on a daily or weekly basis.

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8
Q

Which of the following is a traditional method of program design that aims to gradually increase the intensity of the training load while simultaneously decreasing volume over a set period of time?

A
Block periodization

B
Linear periodization

C
Reverse periodization

D
Undulating periodization

A

b

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9
Q

What is the second section of the OPT programming template?

A
Activation

B
Client’s choice

C
Skill development

D
Resistance training

A

A

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10
Q

Length-tension relationship

A

The resting length of a muscle and the tension the muscle can produce at this resting length.

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11
Q

OPT Daily Workout Template

A

Warmup, Activation, Skills dev(Optional), Resistance Training, Clients choice, Cooldown

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12
Q

specific warm-up

A

Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following.

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13
Q

What term refers to low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the upcoming sets of more intense exercise?

A
Pre-exhaustion

B
Specific warm-up

C
Preparation training

D
Nonspecific warm-up

A

b

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14
Q

TRUE OR FALSE? A Phase 5 flexibility routine typically involves static and dynamic stretching.

A
True

B
False

A

F (only static)

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15
Q

What type of periodization uses changes in volume and intensity on a daily or weekly basis?

Undulating

Mesocycle

Macrocycle

Linear

A

a

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16
Q

Which of the following would be an appropriate Phase 2 superset?

Bench press and stability ball push-ups

Single-leg hops and ball push-ups

Power step-ups and ice skaters

Deadlifts and squats

A

a

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17
Q

Squat, push, pull, press, hip hinge, and multiplanar movement are all known as what?

Phases

Sports skills

Movement patterns

Exercises

A

c

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18
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of undulating periodization?

Changing acute variables on a weekly basis

Consistent in its approach

Increasing intensity while decreasing volume

Predetermined timelines

A

a

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19
Q

What is an appropriate tempo for Phase 1 of the OPT model?

2-0-2-0

X-X-X-X

4-2-1-1

1-2-3-4

A

B =The Stabilization Level uses a tempo of a 4-second eccentric action, 2-second isometric hold, 1-second concentric lift, and 1-second isometric hold.

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20
Q

Training power for 2 days before moving on to 2 days of strength training would be an example of what kind of periodization?

Undulating periodization

Direct periodization

Linear periodization

Localized periodization

A

a

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21
Q

3 Phases in the strength section of the opt model.

A

Phase 2 Strength Endurance Training, Phase 3 Muscular Development Training, Phase 4 Maximal Strength Training

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22
Q

What is the focus of the second level of training in the OPT model?

A
The main adaptation of strength

B
Joint stability

C
Core stability

D
Power

A

a

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23
Q

Muscle hypertrophy is the primary goal of which phase of training within the OPT model?

A
Phase 1

B
Phase 2

C
Phase 3

D
Phase 4

A

c

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24
Q

Fundamental movement patterns

A

Common and essential movements performed in daily life and are involved in exercise motions within a training session.

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25
Q

The squat is an example of an ADL movement pattern. which is

A

Activities of daily living (ADL)
The fundamental tasks needed to manage basic self-care activities, such as bathing, dressing, grooming

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26
Q

Compound (multijoint) movement pattern

A

An exercise or movement pattern that involves multiple joints and muscle groups.

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27
Q

Kyphotic/Kyphosis

A

The normal curvature of the thoracic spine region, creating a convex portion….. bending down and curving spine

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28
Q

Intervertebral stability

A

Stability and support of individual spine segments.

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29
Q

Which fundamental movement pattern is used in activities of daily living, such as sitting down and standing up from a chair?

A
Pulling

B
Pressing

C
Squatting

D
Hip hinge

A

c

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30
Q

With regard to the application of the OPT model for the goal of body fat reduction, what is the best way to increase the calories burned?

A
Increase the intensity of each training session

B
Consume greater quantities of complete proteins

C
Increase the duration of cardiorespiratory fitness exercises

D
Move more through both structured exercise and daily physical activity

A

d

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31
Q

Which of the following is the most effective type of exercise to increase proprioceptive demands in training?

Standing exercises on a gym floor

Exercises using selectorized machines

Exercises with free weights

Seated exercises

A

c

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32
Q

Squat, push, pull, press, hip hinge, and multiplanar movement are all known as what?

Phases

Sports skills

Exercises

Movement patterns

A

d

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33
Q

During which Phase of OPT should the exerciser be most concerned with increasing the speed (repetition tempo) of exercises?

Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance

Phase 4 Maximal Strength

Phase 3 Muscular Development

Phase 5 Power

A

5

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34
Q

What is an appropriate tempo for Phase 1 of the OPT model?

X-X-X-X

4-2-1-1

1-2-3-4

2-0-2-0

A

b

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35
Q

Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement?

Pulling

Hip hinge

Squatting

Pushing

A

d

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36
Q

Which is a primary adaptation of the Power Training phase?

Rate of force production

Muscular endurance

Stability

Muscle growth

A

a

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37
Q

What phase of the OPT model would hypertrophy fall under?

Phase 2

Phase 5

Phase 3

Phase 1

A

c

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38
Q

What is the primary goal of repeating flexibility training during a cool-down?

Restore optimal length-tension relationships

Correct muscle imbalances

Improve sports skills

Increase maximal strength

A

a

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39
Q

Which essential component of an OPT workout is beneficial for developing stability, muscular endurance, hypertrophy, strength, power, and athleticism?

Skill development

Resistance training

Warm-up

Activation

A

b

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40
Q

Modalities

A

Device or tools that are designed to enhance an exercise or movement - Examples include treadmill for cardiovascular health or dumbbells for strength and hypertrophy.

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41
Q

3 certain instances where the risk can outweigh the rewards:

A

Never compromise form over function, Always use caution when training on an unstable surface, Recognize limitations of fitness apps

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42
Q

Disadvantages of strength machines

A

inferior to free weights for improving core stability and muscular coordination because they offer artificial support, strength-training machines primarily work in one plane of motion and can limit one’s ability to develop strength in all planes of motion

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43
Q

Proprioceptively enriched environment

A

An unstable (yet controllable) exercise environment that causes the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms.

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44
Q

Motor learning

A

Integration of motor control processes through practice and experience, leading to a relatively permanent change in the capacity to produce skilled motor behavior.

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45
Q

Proprioception

A

The body’s ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts.

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46
Q

TRUE OR FALSE? Strength training machines should never be the strength modality of choice for those who lack stability or have other functional limitations.

A
True

B
False

A

b

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47
Q

What term refers to the integration of motor control processes through practice and experience, leading to a relatively permanent change in the capacity to produce skilled motor behavior?

A
Motor learning

B
Kinetic learning

C
Skill development

D
Biomechanical development

A

a

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48
Q

Antirotational exercises

A

Core exercises performed in a manner in which the exerciser resists forces that cause torso rotation; often unilateral in nature.

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49
Q

Lumbar spine

A

The lumbar region of the spine, more commonly known as the low back, which consists of five vertebrae labeled L1–L5.

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50
Q

Thoracic spine

A

Composed of 12 vertebral bodies (T1–T12) that make up the midregion of the spine. Attached to the rib cage at each level of the thoracic spine

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51
Q

An elastic resistance band should not be stretched longer than what percentage of its resting length?

A
50%

B
80%

C
100%

D
250%

A

d

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52
Q

What term describes core exercises performed in a manner in which the exerciser resists forces that cause torso rotation?

A
Propulsive exercises

B
Antirotational exercises

C
Accelerative rotation exercises

D
Symmetrical resistance loading exercises

A

b

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53
Q

What is this?: Enhanced athleticism, coordination, and balance
Increased mental focus and physical stamina
Increased oxygen uptake
Increased total body conditioning versus isolation training
Recruitment of the posterior chain (calves, hamstring complex, gluteal muscles, spinal erectors)
Increased core stability and muscular endurance
Increased strength and power
Improved grip strength
Increased metabolic demands and caloric expenditure

A

BENEFITS OF KETTLEBELL TRAINING

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54
Q

What is the correct foot placement when performing kettlebell swinging exercises?

A
No more than 6 inches apart

B
Approximately hip-width apart

C
Approximately shoulder-width apart

D
Greater than shoulder-width apart

A

c

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55
Q

Which kettlebell exercise can be used effectively in Phase 1 of the OPT model to improve stability and back strength?

A
Turkish get-up

B
Renegade row

C
One-arm snatch

D
Squat to shoulder press

A

b

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56
Q

TRUE OR FALSE? Closed-chain exercises involve movements in which the distal extremities are not in a fixed position, and the force applied by an individual is great enough to overcome the resistance.

A
True

B
False

A

b

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57
Q

Kinesthetic awareness

A

The awareness of the body’s position as it moves through multiple planes of motion.

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58
Q

What term is used to describe training that adds a weight or load to dynamic, full-body, multiplanar movements?

A
Dynamic resistance training

B
Loaded movement training

C
Functional training

D
Cross-training

A

b

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59
Q

What popular piece of exercise equipment is a cylindrical tube constructed of hardened rubber, designed to be dragged, tossed, lifted, pulled, pressed, and carried?

A
ViPR

B
Sandbags

C
Medicine ball

D
TRX Rip Trainer

A

A

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60
Q

Perturbation

A

An alteration of the body’s current state caused by the application of an external force.

61
Q

TRUE OR FALSE? Stability balls are best used with clients who demonstrate a need for increased overload of stability.

A
True

B
False

A

a

62
Q

Which of the following is a primary reason that people purchase fitness tracking devices?

A
Aesthetics

B
Motivation

C
Functionality

D
Peer pressure

A

b

63
Q

TRUE OR FALSE? An abnormally slow return to a resting heart rate after vigorous exercise is a predictor of poor heart health.

A
True

B
False

A

a

64
Q

How many minutes of vigorous aerobic activity per week do the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and the World Health Organization recommend for optimal health?

A
60 minutes

B
75 minutes

C
120 minutes

D
150 minutes

A

b

65
Q

Which of the following is considered one of the Four Horsemen of Fitness?

Kettlebell

ViPR

Medicine ball

Sandbag

A

c

66
Q

Which of the following modalities is most likely to allow for strength and/or power development in the transverse plane?

Suspended bodyweight trainers

BOSU balls

Strength machines

Medicine balls

A

d

67
Q

Proprioception is best described as which of the following statements?

The brain’s positional awareness of the limbs, head, and trunk both at rest and in movement

The body’s ability to sense body position and limb movements

The resistance to the external disruptions to one’s postural equilibrium

Awareness of the body’s position as it moves through multiple planes of motion

A

b

68
Q

The TRX Rip Trainer would most likely be utilized for which type of movement?

Rotation

Inversion and eversion

Flexion and extension

Abduction and Adduction

A

A

69
Q

Which of the following is true for elastic resistance bands as a modality?

Elastic band exercises should be avoided by novice exercisers until basic movement patterns are refined.

Elastic resistance training is most beneficial for maximal strength adaptations.

Elastic resistance training is beneficial for muscular strength and endurance.

Elastic bands are used predominately for sagittal-based exercises.

A

c

70
Q

Proper abdominal crunches on a stability ball allows for:

Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball

Greater range of motion, allowing for increased spinal flexion

Less range of motion as compared to traditional floor crunches

Greater support and safety for elderly clients

A

a

71
Q

Which of the following modalities is the least likely to increase joint instability?

Terra-Core

Strength machines

Suspended bodyweight training

Resistance bands

A

b

72
Q

Which modality allows for movements to occur as explosively as possible without the need for eccentric deceleration?

Resistance band

Suspended bodyweight training

Kettlebell

Medicine ball

A

d

73
Q

Which modality allows for movements to occur as explosively as possible without the need for eccentric deceleration?

Resistance band

Suspended bodyweight training

Kettlebell

Medicine ball

A

b

74
Q

The goal of the Certified Personal Trainer in utilizing machines in Phase 1 of the OPT model should be to do what?

Increase muscle size before moving their clients to Phase 2

Prepare their clients to perform 1RM before moving on to dumbbells or other advanced modalities

Regress their clients to less-challenging movements and utilize more dumbbells

Progress their clients to more proprioceptively enriched exercises

A

D

75
Q

Core stability is best described as:

The ability to resist external resistance in the lumbar spine while the extremities are actively moving

The ability to generate power and rotation in the lumbar spine

The ability to transfer power from the upper body to the lower body for sports performance

The ability to decrease ROM in the thoracic spine, while increasing engagement of the rectus abdominus for spinal extension

A

a

76
Q

During the standing cable chest press, the resistance should be positioned to do what?

Pull the shoulders into flexion and scapular protraction

Resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction

Pull the elbows into extension

Resist shoulder horizontal adduction

A

d

77
Q

Strength-training machines provide training primarily in which planes of motion?

Transverse and frontal

Sagittal and transverse

Frontal and sagittal

All planes of motion

A

c

78
Q

Mortality

A

A state or a risk of death or dying.

79
Q

Arteriosclerosis

A

A general term that refers to the hardening and loss of elasticity of arteries.

80
Q

Atherosclerosis

A

The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow.

81
Q

Physical Activity Readiness

A

Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)
A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual’s physical readiness to engage in structured exercise.

82
Q

Proprioception

A

The body’s ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts.

83
Q

TRUE OR FALSE? With regard to resistance training for youth, progression should be based on postural control and not the amount of weight that can be used.

A
True

B
False

A

a

84
Q

What duration of daily moderate to vigorous physical activity is currently recommended for children and adolescents?

A
At least 20 minutes

B
At least 30 minutes

C
About 45 minutes

D
60 minutes or more

A

d

85
Q

For effective weight loss, how many calories should obese clients expend per exercise session?

600 to 700 kcal

100 to 150 kcal

25 to 75 kcal

200 to 300 kcal

A

d

86
Q

What causes initial improvements in strength when youths engage in a resistance training program?

Muscle atrophy

Sarcopenia

Neural adaptations

Muscle hypertrophy

A

c

87
Q

Fitness professionals must use caution when placing an obese client in a prone (on stomach) or supine (on back) position because they are susceptible to both _______ & ________responses to exercise.

A

hypotensive (low blood pressure) and hypertensive (high blood pressure)

88
Q

Obese people have: other comorbidities (diagnosed or undiagnosed), including hypertension, cardiovascular disease, or diabetes. ,Reduced maximum oxygen intake, inaccurate measurements of body composition, loss of lean body mass

A

all above are true!

89
Q

Diabetes

A

Chronic metabolic disorder, caused by insulin deficiency, which impairs carbohydrate usage and enhances usage of fat and protein.

90
Q

Diabetes type 1 vs type 2

A

type 1 - cant produce insulin, type 2- your body is resistant to insulin and cant respond normally to insulin

91
Q

Hyperglycemia

A

High blood sugar; the state of elevated glucose in the bloodstream.

92
Q

Hypoglycemia

A

Low blood sugar; the state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream.

93
Q

TRUE OR FALSE? On a physiological level, exercise exerts an effect similar to that of insulin.

A
True

B
False

A

a

94
Q

Which of the following would be the best reccomended mode of exercise for individuals living with diabetes?

A
HIIT

B
Cycling

C
Boxing

D
Power lifting

A

b

95
Q

Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is

A

a common medical disorder in which arterial blood pressure is above 120 mm Hg for systolic and 80 mm Hg for diastolic.

96
Q

Risk from hypertension

A

include increased risk for stroke, cardiovascular disease, heart failure, and kidney failure.

97
Q

What positions cant you do with someone who has hypertention

A

Supine/Prone Positions(Head Below heart)

98
Q

Coronary heart disease (CHD)

A

CHD is caused by atherosclerosis (plaque formation), which leads to narrowing of the coronary arteries and ultimately angina pectoris (chest pain), myocardial infarction (heart attack), or both

99
Q

cause of CHD

A

The primary cause of CHD is poor lifestyle choices—primarily cigarette smoking, poor diet, and physical inactivity

100
Q

From a medical standpoint, the emphasis on treating CHD is

A

centered on improving the health of the internal lining of the coronary artery, called plaque stabilization. The other primary focus on the treatment of CHD is through medical management, including pharmaceuticals, as well as aggressive lifestyle intervention, including healthier food choices, more exercise, smoking cessation, and stress reduction

101
Q

A sudden lack of blood supply to the brain

A

Stroke

102
Q

A condition in which the heart can’t pump enough blood to meet the body’s needs

A

Heart failure

103
Q

TRUE OR FALSE? When working with clients with hypertension, core exercises in the supine position are preferred over standing core exercises.

A
True

B
False

A

b

104
Q

Osteopenia

A

Lower than normal bone density and a precursor to osteoporosis.

105
Q

Osteoporosis

A

A condition of reduced bone mineral density, which increases risk of bone fracture.

106
Q

Type 1 vs Type 2 Osteoporosis

A

Primary osteoporosis is associated with normal aging and is attributable to a lower production of estrogen and progesterone, both of which are involved with regulating the rate at which bone is lost, Secondary osteoporosis is caused by specific medical conditions or medications that can disrupt normal bone reformation, including alcohol abuse, smoking, specific dis- eases, or particular medications. Both types of osteoporosis are treatable

107
Q

Arthritis is

A

an inflammatory condition that mainly affects the joints of the body. Arthritis is the leading cause of disability among U.S. adults

108
Q

Osteoarthritis

A

Caused by degeneration of cartilage within joints.

109
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis

A

A degenerative joint disease in which the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissue.

110
Q

symptoms of Arthritis

A

Symptoms of arthritis (such as joint pain and stiffness) are heightened through inactivity as a result of muscle atrophy and lack of tissue flexibility.

111
Q

Which of the following is associated with normal aging and is attributable to a lower production of estrogen and progesterone?

A
Type 1 (primary) osteopenia

B
Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis

C
Type 2 (secondary) osteopenia

D
Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis

A

b

112
Q

For individuals with osteoporosis, what is the recommended duration of physical activity?

A
10 to 15 minutes per day or 2- to 4-minute bouts

B
20 to 60 minutes per day or 8- to 10-minute bouts

C
5- to 10-minute warm-up, 20 to 40 minutes of exercise, 5- to 10-minute cool-down

D
5- to 10-minute warm-up, 40 to 60 minutes of exercise, 5- to 10-minute cool-down

A

b

113
Q

Cancer

A

A group of diseases involving abnormal cell growth with the potential to invade or spread to other parts of the body.

114
Q

At what level of intensity should individuals with cancer begin aerobic exercise?

A
Less than 20% of peak capacity

B
20 to 30% of peak capacity

C
40 to 50% of peak capacity

D
At least 70% of peak capacity

A

c

115
Q

TRUE OR FALSE? Pregnant clients who were engaged in an exercise program before pregnancy may continue with moderate levels of exercise, with appropriate modifications, until the third trimester.

A
True

B
False

A

a

116
Q

Restrictive lung disease

A

The condition of a fibrous lung tissue, which results in a decreased ability to expand the lungs.

117
Q

Chronic obstructive lung disease

A

The condition of altered airflow through the lungs, generally caused by airway obstruction- ashma

118
Q

Dyspnea

A

Shortness of breath or labored breathing.

119
Q

Intermittent claudication

A

The manifestation of the symptoms caused by peripheral arterial disease.

120
Q

Peripheral arterial disease (PAD)

A

A group of diseases in which blood vessels become restricted or blocked

121
Q

What term refers to the manifestation of the symptoms caused by peripheral arterial disease?

A
Perfusion

B
Mean arterial pressure

C
Intermittent claudication

D
Peripheral vascular resistance

A

c

122
Q

What is atherosclerosis?

The state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream.

A normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable

The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow

The state of elevated glucose in the bloodstream

A

c

123
Q

A client with osteoporosis has been medically cleared to perform exercise. Which form of training can have the most impact on increasing the client’s bone mineral density?

Walking

Swimming

Water aerobics

Cycling

A

a

124
Q

Approximately what percentage of Americans aged 20 years and older are obese?

60%

40%

20%

80%

A

b

125
Q

What is a normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable?

Arteriosclerosis

Hyperglycemia

Hypoglycemia

Atherosclerosis

A

Arteriosclerosis leads to greater resistance to blood flow and higher blood pressure.

126
Q

Which disease is caused by a degeneration of cartilage within joints?

Osteoarthritis

Osteoporosis

Rheumatoid arthritis

Osteopenia

A

Osteoarthritis is caused by a degeneration of cartilage within joints. This lack of cartilage creates a wearing on the surfaces of articulating bones.

127
Q

What are the current physical activity recommendations for youth?

30 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day

40 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day

50 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day

60 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day

A

D

128
Q

Which is a primary adaptation of the Stabilization Endurance phase?

Postural alignment

Rate of force production

Maximal muscular strength

Core strength

A

a

129
Q

What is the leading cause of death and disability for both men and women?

Cancer

Diabetes

Coronary heart disease

COPD

A

c

130
Q

Which term refers to a state where muscles on each side of a joint have altered length-tension relationships?

A
Muscle imbalance

B
Strength imbalance

C
Reciprocal inhibition

D
Altered reciprocal inhibition

A

a

131
Q

Which of the following is considered an “under the water” foundational adaptation, per the “iceberg effect”?

Power

Stability

Endurance

Strength

A

b

132
Q

Which of the following movements trains a client in all three planes of motion?

Barbell squat

Dumbbell renegade row

BOSU squat

Multiplanar lunge

A

d

133
Q

What is atherosclerosis?

A normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable

The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow

The state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream.

The state of elevated glucose in the bloodstream

A

b

134
Q

Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement?

Squatting

Pushing

Pulling

Hip hinge

A

b

135
Q

Which of the following is considered an open-chain exercise?

Push-up

Bench press

Barbell squat

Pull-up

A

b

136
Q

What type of periodization uses changes in volume and intensity on a daily or weekly basis?

Undulating

Mesocycle

Linear

Macrocycle

A

a

137
Q

Kettlebell exercises have proven extremely beneficial in the development in which plane or of which chain?

Frontal plane

Anterior chain

Transverse plane

Posterior chain

A

d

138
Q

The hip hinge is an important fundamental movement. During a hip hinge, what movements are occurring?

Flexion and extension

Abduction and extension

Adduction and abduction

Supination and pronation`

A

a

139
Q

Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding proprioceptive modalities?

Proprioceptive modalities should be used only with the most advanced clients.

Proprioceptive modalities have not been shown to help improve balance.

Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous.

Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities has been shown to be safe and effective.

A

c

140
Q

Antirotational exercises are often this sort of movement by nature.

Proprioceptive

Loaded

Bilateral

Unilateral

A

d

141
Q

Which is a primary adaptation of the Stabilization Endurance phase?

Core strength

Postural alignment

Maximal muscular strength

Rate of force production

A

b

142
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of undulating periodization?

Changing acute variables on a weekly basis

Consistent in its approach

Predetermined timelines

Increasing intensity while decreasing volume

A

a

143
Q

Which of the following is not a tracked component on an athlete’s macrocycle annual training plan?

Cardio training

Off-season training

Preseason training

In-season training

A

a

144
Q

Core stability is best described as:

The ability to generate power and rotation in the lumbar spine

The ability to transfer power from the upper body to the lower body for sports performance

The ability to decrease ROM in the thoracic spine, while increasing engagement of the rectus abdominus for spinal extension

The ability to resist external resistance in the lumbar spine while the extremities are actively moving

A

d

145
Q

When discussing suspended bodyweight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement?

It decreases challenges to balance and stability.

It increases flexibility and joint mobility.

It decreases core muscle activation.

It increases muscular hypertrophy.

A

b

146
Q

What blood pressure is reflective of a hypertensive crisis?

A reading of 120 to 129 mm Hg systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic

A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg

A systolic reading of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic of 90 mm Hg or higher

A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic

A

b

147
Q

According to the text, what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese?

22%

72%

62%

92%

A

b

148
Q
A

Nasm CPT (6 decks)

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