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Nasm CPT > CPT Section 3 > Flashcards

CPT Section 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

Human movement system (HMS)

A

The collective components and structures that work together to move the body: muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems.

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2
Q

Kinetic chain

A

A concept that describes the human body as a chain of interdependent links that work together to perform movement.

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3
Q

Nervous system

A

A network of specialized cells called neurons that transmit and coordinate signals, providing a communication network within the human body.

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4
Q

Neuron

A

Specialized cell that is the functional unit of the nervous system.

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5
Q

The four primary electrolytes involved in this process are

A

sodium, potassium, magnesium, and water. Adequate levels of electrolytes must be maintained to produce proper nerve function

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6
Q

cell body of a neuron contains a

A

nucleus and other organelles, such as mitochondria, an Axon which sends signals to the brain, and Dendrites which gathers info from other effector sites like muscles and organs.

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7
Q

Nucleus

A

Cellular structure or organelle that contains the majority of the cell’s genetic material in the form of chromosomes.

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8
Q

Organelles

A

Tiny cellular structures that perform specific functions within a cell. Examples include nuclei, mitochondria, lysosomes, ribosomes, and the endoplasmic reticulum.

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9
Q

Mitochondria

A

The parts of the cell that use nutrients to create energy for the cell; commonly known as the powerhouses of the cell.

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10
Q

Effector sites

A

A part of the body, such as a muscle or organ, that receives a signal from a neuron to produce a physiological response.

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11
Q

Electrolytes

A

Minerals that have an electrical charge to help transmit nerve impulses throughout the body, such as sodium, potassium, and magnesium.

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12
Q

Central nervous system (CNS)

A

A division of the nervous system that includes the brain and spinal cord.

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13
Q

Peripheral nervous system (PNS)

A

Nerves that connect the rest of the body to the central nervous system.

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14
Q

Afferent pathway

A

Sensory pathway that relays information to the central nervous system

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15
Q

Interneurons are

A

only located within the spinal cord and the brain. They transmit impulses between the afferent and efferent neurons

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16
Q

Mechanoreceptors
Specialized structures that respond

A

to mechanical forces (touch and pressure) within tissues and then transmit signals through sensory nerves.

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17
Q

Somatic nervous system

A

Nerves that serve the outer areas of the body and skeletal muscle and are largely responsible for the voluntary control of movement.

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18
Q

Autonomic nervous system

A

A division of the peripheral nervous system that supplies neural input to organs that run the involuntary processes of the body (e.g., circulating blood, digesting food, producing hormones).

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19
Q

The autonomic system is then further subdivided into the

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.

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20
Q

Three primary functions of the nervous system include

A

sensory, integrative, and motor functions

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21
Q

Sensory function is the ability of the nervous system to

A

sense changes in either the internal or external environment

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22
Q

proprioception, which is the body’s ability to naturally sense its

A

general orientation and the relative position of all its parts

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23
Q

Sympathetic nervous system

A

Subdivision of the autonomic nervous system that works to increase neural activity and put the body in a heightened state.

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24
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system

A

Subdivision of the autonomic nervous system that works to decrease neural activity and put the body in a more relaxed state.

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25
Q

Golgi tendon organs are specialized sensory receptors located at the point where

A

skeletal muscle fibers insert into the tendons of skeletal muscle.

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26
Q

Joint receptors are located in and around the

A

joint capsule, and they respond to pressure, acceleration, and deceleration of the joint

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27
Q

Over the course of the entire human life span, the CNS continues to develop through neuroplasticity (i.e., neuronal changes) and changes in neurocircuitry (i.e., neuronal connections) which is

A

The concept that the brain will continually change or grow, reforming neural pathways throughout an individual’s entire life span. & The interconnection of neurons in the brain and spinal cord.

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28
Q

The development of motor skills is best under-stood as a three-stage process

A

Stage 1 (cognitive): The client is just learning a skill. They understand the goals of the skill and develop movement strategies and can perform the skill but with inconsistent performance.
Stage 2 (associative): The client begins to understand the skill. Through practice, they refine the skill and movement strategy and can perform the skill with less error.
Stage 3 (autonomous): The client has mastered the skill. They perform the skill consistently with no error and independently modify the skill without error.

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29
Q

Which of the following is one of the three integrated systems in the human movement system?

A
The nervous system

B
The lymphatic system

C
The respiratory system

D
The integumentary system

A

a

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30
Q

Joints

A

The sites where two bones meet and movement occurs as a result of muscle contraction.

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31
Q

Axial skeleton

A

A division of the skeletal system consisting of the skull, the rib cage, and the vertebral column.

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32
Q

Appendicular skeleton

A

A division of the skeletal system consisting of the arms, legs, and pelvic girdle.

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33
Q

Remodeling

A

The process by which bone is constantly renewed by the resorption and formation of the bone structure.

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34
Q

Osteoclasts

A

Special cells that break down and remove old bone tissue.

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35
Q

Osteoblasts

A

Special cells that form and lay down new bone tissue.

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36
Q

Wolff’s law
Scientific explanation of how

A

remodeling (new bone growth) occurs along the lines of stress placed on the bone.

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37
Q

TYPES OF BONES

A

Long, Short, Flat, Irregulat, Sesamoid

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38
Q

Sesamoid bones are

A

small bones embedded in a joint capsule or found in locations where a tendon passes over a joint. A common example is the patella (kneecap)

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39
Q

Irregular

A

Unique shape and function from all other bone types. Vertebrae (i.e., the spinal column)

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40
Q

Processes

A

are projections protruding from the bone to which tendons and ligaments can attach.

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41
Q

Vertebral column

A

Bones that house the spinal cord; consists of the cervical, thoracic, and lumbosacral regions.

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42
Q

Spinal cord

A

Bundle of nerves housed within the vertebrae.

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43
Q

Vertebral column (Top to bottom)

A

Cervical spine (C1–C7), Thoracic spine (T1–T12), Lumbar spine (L1–L5), Sacrum, Coccyx

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44
Q

Intervertebral discs

A

Fibrous cartilage structures between vertebrae that act as shock absorbers and assist with movement.

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45
Q

Neutral Spine

A

Represents a position in which the vertebrae and associated structures are under the least amount of load and can most optimally support functional movement.

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46
Q

Osteoblasts vs Osteoclasts

A

Special cells that form and lay down new bone tissue

Special cells that break down and remove old bone tissue

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47
Q

Osteokinematics

A

Movement of a limb that is visible

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48
Q

Arthrokinematics

A

The description of joint surface movement; consists of three major types: roll, slide, and spin.

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49
Q

Synovial joints

A

A joint with a fluid-filled joint capsule.

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50
Q

A gliding joint, also known as a plane joint, is a nonaxial joint that has the simplest movement of all joints.

A

It moves either back and forth or side to side. One example includes the joints between the carpal bo

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51
Q

Nonaxial

A

A gliding joint that moves in only one plane, either back and forth or side to side.

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52
Q

Ligament

A

A fibrous connective tissue that connects bone to bone

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53
Q

Collagen

A

A protein found in connective tissue, muscles, and skin that provides strength and structure. It is the most abundant protein in the human body.

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54
Q

Elastin

A

A protein that provides elasticity to skin, tendons, ligaments, and other structures.

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55
Q

Growth plate

A

A specialized cartilage disc located in the epiphysis that is responsible for longitudinal bone growth.

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56
Q

What does the term osteokinematics refer to?

a
Bone formation

b
Joint movement

c
Bone movement

d
Bone weakness

A

c

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57
Q

What are the most common joints in the human body?

a
Synovial joints

b
Nonaxial joints

c
Diarthrodial joints

d
Nonsynovial joints

A

A

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58
Q

The muscular system

A

links the nervous and skeletal systems and is responsible for generating the forces that move the human body

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59
Q

Skeletal muscle

A

The type of muscle tissue that connects to bones and generates the forces that create movement.

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60
Q

What is it called when a ligament is overstretched or torn?

A strain

A twist

A sprain

A pull

A

C

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61
Q

Weight-bearing exercise helps strengthen bones through what process?

Osteoporosis

Lengthening

Remodeling

Neuroplasticity

A

C

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62
Q

What is the purpose of the intervertebral discs?

They support most of the body’s weight and are attached to many back muscles.

They minimize movement of the spine.

They provide support for the head.

They act as shock absorbers.

A

D

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63
Q

What surrounds the skeletal muscles and connects them to other surrounding muscles?

Connective tissues

Tendons

Muscle spindles

Fascia

A

D

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64
Q

At what age is total peak bone mass reached?

25

18

35

30

A

D

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65
Q

Which characteristic is exhibited by type I muscle fibers?

Decreased oxygen delivery

Slow to fatigue

Short-term contractions

Fewer capillaries

A

B

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66
Q

The first layer in skeletal muscle is connective tissue called

A

fascia

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67
Q

The layer of fascia that directly surrounds an entire muscle is called the _______, which is also commonly referred to as the “deep fascia”

A

epimysium

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68
Q

Within the muscle, the largest bundles of fibers are called __

A

fascicles.

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69
Q

Similar to how epimysium wraps and contains the whole muscle, each fascicle is individually wrapped by connective tissue called ___

A

perimysium

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70
Q

Each fascicle is made up of many individual muscle fibers that are bundled together by connective tissue called_______

A

endomysium

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71
Q

Nutrition

A

A process of obtaining nutrients through food and/or food products to support energy requirements and cellular processes, including growth, repair and maintenance of tissues, reproduction, digestive processes, and respiration.

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72
Q

info a fitness professional can and connot provide during nutrition topics

A

Can: Provide nutritional guidance for healthy populations.
Evaluate a client’s current eating habits and provide general guidance.
Discuss the roles and importance of protein, carbohydrates, and fat.

Cannot: Write specific meal plans and daily menus.
Prescribe specific supplements or recommend vitamins and/or mineral dosages to treat chronic disease.
Prescribe drastic caloric restriction or very low-calorie diets.

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73
Q

macronutrients refers to

A

the three energy-yielding nutrients: protein, carbohydrates, and lipids (fat)

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74
Q

micronutrients refers to

A

vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients, which are compounds found in plants that provide various health benefits, such as anti-inflammatory and antioxidant properties

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74
Q

What is the official term for a statement that maintains that a food has a specific nutritional property or provides a specific benefit?

a
Food claim

b
Nutrition fact

c
Nutrition claim

d
Food allegation

A

c

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75
Q

primary functions of protein is

A

in the synthesis and repair of cells, tissues, and structures, such as collagen, elastin, and muscle.

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76
Q

Essential amino acid (EAA)

A

Amino acid that must be obtained through the diet as the body does not make it; there are nine essential amino acids.

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77
Q

Substrates

A

Intermediate forms of nutrients used in metabolic reactions to create adenosine triphosphate.

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78
Q

Protein turnover

A

A process in which the body breaks down existing proteins and recycles the component amino acids for incorporation into new proteins or other nitrogen-containing compounds.

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79
Q

Mutual supplementation

A

Combination of two incomplete protein sources that together provide all of the essential amino acids.

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80
Q

Low biological value (LBV)

A

proteins
Foods missing one or more of the essential amino acids.

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81
Q

High biological value (HBV)

A

proteins
Foods containing all the essential amino acids.

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82
Q

Net protein utilization (NPU):

A

Compares the ratio of amino acids that are turned into proteins to the ratio of amino acids provided via dietary intake.

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83
Q

Protein quality can be assessed using various standards

A

Compares the ratio of amino acids that are turned into proteins to the ratio of amino acids provided via dietary intake.

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84
Q

Enterocyte

A

Intestinal cells that absorb nutrients.

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85
Q

Recommended dietary allowance (RDA)

A

The recommended amount of a nutrient that meets the needs of most healthy individuals within specific age and gender groups.

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86
Q

Aerobic

A

Processes relating to, involving, or requiring oxygen.

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87
Q

Anaerobic

A

Processes relating to the absence of oxygen.

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88
Q

Thermic effect of food (TEF)

A

The energy required to digest, absorb, and process nutrients that are consumed.

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89
Q

What is adaptive thermogenesis?

Adaptations to exercise due to changes in energy intake

Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake

Increased heat production due to changes in energy expenditure

Changes in energy intake due to changes in energy expenditure

A

b - Adaptive thermogenesis refers to metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake. An example is when energy expenditure decreases due to chronically low caloric intake, seen in some cases of extreme dieting.

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90
Q

Which of the following best describes the role of micronutrients in the body?

They provide some calories, and they are required for the regulation of muscle protein synthesis and glucose metabolism.

They are the primary energy source during short, high-intensity training.

They are the primary source of energy for all physiologic processes.

They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.

A

d

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91
Q

Carbohydrates
Compounds composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen molecules that include

A

simple sugars, complex carbohydrates, glycogen, and fiber.

92
Q

Simple sugars

A

Include the monosaccharides(single sugar) and disaccharides (two sugars); easily absorbed into the bloodstream.

93
Q

Polysaccharides

A

Starch, Glycogen, Fiber

94
Q

Adipose tissue

A

An alternative term for fat, used primarily to store energy.

95
Q

Complex carbohydrates

A

are digested more slowly and are associated with a slower rise in glucose levels, more sustained source of energy compared to a rapid increase.

96
Q

Glycemic index (GI)

A

Number (0–100) assigned to a food, represents the rise in blood sugar after consuming the food.

97
Q

Glycemic load (GL)

A

Similar to glycemic index but takes into account the amount of food (carbohydrate) eaten.

98
Q

Muscle protein synthesis
Process by which

A

new muscle proteins are formed and a muscle grows or repairs at the molecular level.

99
Q

Starch

A

The storage form of carbohydrate in plants

100
Q

Polysaccharides

A

Carbohydrates composed of long chains of glucose units

101
Q

What are the two categories of fiber?

a
Complex and simple

b
Soluble and insoluble

c
Complete and incomplete

d
Essential and nonessential

A

b

102
Q

What term describes the measure of how quickly a carbohydrate will raise an individual’s glucose levels when consumed on its own, irrespective of the amount eaten?

a
Solubility

b
Glycemic load

c
Glycemic index

d
Carbohydrate synthesis

A

c

103
Q

Unsaturated fats
Fatty acids with .

A

one or more points of unsaturation (double bond) in their chemical structure

104
Q

Saturated fats

A

Exact health benefits remain unclear
General recommendations advise limiting excess saturated, from Animal fats, full-fat dairy, coconut oil, palm oil

105
Q

Metabolites

A

The formation of a substance required for metabolism.

106
Q

4 Fat digestion and absorption

A

Mouth, Stomach, Small Intesting, (Portal veins, liver, and circulation)

107
Q

What is the optimal ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids in the diet?

a
Less than 2:1

b
About 4:1

c
10:1

d
20:1

A

b

108
Q

What enzyme is responsible for most of the breakdown of ingested lipids into fatty acids?

a
Protease

b
Amylase

c
Lingual lipase

d
Lipoprotein lipase

A

d

109
Q

Basal metabolic rate (BMR)

A

The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest.

110
Q

Endocrine (hormonal) disorders
When the body

A

produces too little or too much of an endocrine hormone.

111
Q

Satiating

A

Satisfying; feeling of fullness.

112
Q

Total daily energy expenditure (TDEE)

A

The total amount of energy expended in one day.

113
Q

oor sleep can have a detrimental effect on weight management. Y or N

A

Y - inadequate sleep, levels of the satiety hormone peptide YY(peptide that is released in the colon during feeding) are lower and levels of the hunger hormone ghrelin are higher in participants

114
Q

ENDOCRINE DISORDERS (hormonal)

A

Several endocrine disorders that typically result in weight gain include hypothyroidism, Cushing’s syndrome, polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS),

115
Q

Can MEDICATIONS effect losing/gaining weight?

A

Several medications, such as antidepressants, anti-anxiety drugs, psychotropics, contraceptive pills, and steroids such as prednisone, can also affect an individual’s propensity to lose or gain weight

116
Q

Adaptive thermogenesis can be defined

A

as the metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure, due to changes in energy intake

117
Q

What term is used to describe metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure as a result of changes in energy intake?

a
Thermic effect of food

b
Adaptive thermogenesis

c
Exercise activity thermogenesis

d
Nonexercise activity thermogenesis

A

b

118
Q

Hypertrophy

A

Enlargement of an organ or tissue; in the context of fitness, it is often used to describe the enlargement of skeletal muscle.

119
Q

What statement best describes the category of simple sugars?

Sugar syrups that are easily absorbed by the body

Sugars that are dissolved into liquid for consumption

Single- or double-molecule sugars that are easily absorbed by the body

Sugars that have been added to packaged foods

A

c

120
Q

Carbohydrate intake prior to intense or long-duration exercise serves which of the following functions?

It provides adequate energy for muscle protein synthesis during training.

It replenishes glycogen stores and provides adequate fuel for performance.

It replenishes depleted amino acid stores prior to high-intensity training.

It is the primary energy source for low-intensity and long-duration exercise.

A

b

121
Q

percent daily value (%DV)

A

on a nutrition facts label is another useful tool that clients can use to compare the nutritional value of different products.

122
Q

United Kingdom and European Union use percent reference intake (% RI) on the nutrition information panel.

A

Like the U.S. %DV, the % RI enables consumers to see how a product contributes nutritionally toward their reference intake values for the listed nutrients.

123
Q

For most consumers, which of the following are the two most informative features of a food label?

a
Total fat and cholesterol

b
Saturated fat and trans fat

c
Dietary fiber and total sugars

d
The nutrition facts label and the ingredients list

A

d

124
Q

Dietary supplement

A

A product (other than tobacco) intended to supplement the diet that bears or contains one or more of the following dietary ingredients: vitamin; mineral; herb or other botanical; amino acid;

125
Q

Essential nutrient
.

A

Must be obtained in the diet, as the body is incapable of producing the nutrient on its own

126
Q

Toxicity

A

When too much of a vitamin or mineral accumulates within the body, resulting in illness or other symptoms.

127
Q

When did modern-day nutritional supplements originate?

a
1920s

b
1940s

c
1960s

d
1980s

A

B

128
Q

Where was the first multivitamin product developed?

a
London

b
Taiwan

c
China

d
Mexico City

A

C

129
Q

Code of Federal Regulations

A

Describes the laws and regulations for dietary supplements, including how supplements are labeled, manufactured, and brought to or removed from market.

130
Q

Tolerable upper limit

A

The greatest quantity of a vitamin or mineral that may be consumed in a day without risk of an adverse health effect.

131
Q

Banned

A

A dietary supplement that may be prohibited from use in a specific sport or sport league

132
Q

Anabolic steroid

A

Compound made from testosterone or another hormone that acts on hormone receptors to produce increases in muscle size or strength

133
Q

Daily value (DV)

A

Amount of a nutrient recommended to be consumed each day to maintain good health. Based on a 2,000-calorie diet for those ages 4 years and older.

134
Q

ho enforces guidelines for dietary supplements in the United States?

a
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

b
Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

c
Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS)

d
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

A

B

135
Q

What term is used to describe any unfavorable medical occurrence associated with the use of a medication, medical intervention, or dietary supplement?

a
Adverse effect

b
Allergic reaction

c
Physiological reaction

d
Negative corollary

Well done!

A

A

136
Q

Biologically inactive

A

Any form of vitamin that cannot exert its effect within the body.

137
Q

Biologically active

A

The form in which a vitamin must be to exert an effect within the body.

138
Q

Vitamin C has a role in which of these functions?

Increasing bone density

Immunity only

Collagen synthesis and immunity

Collagen synthesis only

A

c

139
Q

Which of the following is a potential benefit of omega-3 fatty acids?

Anti-inflammatory properties

Improved thyroid function

Increased energy

Proinflammatory properties

A

a

140
Q

Which of the following is iron considered to be?

Macromineral

Performance supplement

Trace mineral

Vitamin

A

c

140
Q

For what is vitamin D most important?

Hair growth

Eyesight

Bone health

Skin pigmentation

A

c

140
Q

Compared to nonheme iron, heme iron is absorbed how?

More efficiently

Less efficiently

Not at all

Equally

A

a

141
Q

Ergogenic aid

A

A dietary supplement that may enhance performance or body composition; it may also be referred to as a performance supplement

142
Q

Which of the following amino acids are referred to as branched-chain amino acids (BCAAs)?

a
Lysine, proline, and serine

b
Leucine, isoleucine, and valine

c
Cysteine, glutamine, and glycine

d
Methionine, arginine, and glycine

A

b

143
Q

Regarding human nutrition, how many of the 20 relevant amino acids are considered nonessential amino acids?

a
5

b
9

c
11

d
15

A

c

144
Q

The most well-known and well-researched effect of omega-3 fats relates to which of the following?

Athletic performance

Endocrine health

Bone health

Heart health

A

d

145
Q

Which organization must approve a supplement prior to it being sold?

European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)

Supplements do not require approval prior to sale.

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)

A

b

146
Q

Which is very important as a prenatal vitamin?

Vitamin C

Niacin

Folate

Pantothenic acid

A

c

147
Q

Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

A

A high-energy molecule that serves as the main form of energy

148
Q

Bioenergetics
`

A

The study of energy in the human body.

149
Q

Metabolism

A

All of the chemical reactions that occur in the body to maintain itself.

150
Q

First law of thermodynamics

A

Energy cannot be created or destroyed but merely converted from one form to another.

151
Q

Substrates

A

Intermediate forms of nutrients used in metabolic reactions to create adenosine triphosphate.Proteins, carbohydrates, and fats constitute the main substrates used to transfer metabolic energy to be used

152
Q

Glucose is

A

one of the main sources of energy, particularly for brain function and higher-intensity activity

153
Q

Glycogen

A

Glucose that is deposited and stored in bodily tissues, such as the liver and muscle cells; the storage form of carbohydrate.

154
Q

VT1 vs VT2

A

VT1 is approximately the highest intensity that can be sustained for one to two hours of exercise. In elite marathon runners, VT1 is very close to their competitive pace. The VT2 is the highest intensity that can be sustained for 30 to 60 minutes in well-trained individuals.

155
Q

Fats

A

One of the three main classes of foods and a source of energy in the body.

156
Q

Negative energy balance

A

When calorie intake is lower than the number of calories expended.

157
Q

Of the 20 amino acids used by the human body, how many are called essential amino acids?

a
3

b
5

c
9

d
12

A

c

158
Q

Myth of fat burning zone

A

Although it is true that lower-intensity activity relies more on fat as a fuel substrate than glucose, the end result is a little more complex and needs to be viewed from the perspective of a full 24-hour day.

159
Q

What term is used to describe the state in which the body’s metabolism is elevated after exercise?

a
Beta-oxidation

b
Lactate threshold

c
Ventilatory threshold

d
Excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)

A

d

160
Q

Any form of exercise can be defined by what two factors?

a
Volume and density

b
Repetitions and sets

c
Intensity and duration

d
Frequency and tempo

A

c

161
Q

Mechanical work

A

The physical processes that move the body and keep it alive, such as muscle contraction.

162
Q

Anaerobic

A

Processes relating to the absence of oxygen.

163
Q

chemical breakdown of glucose in a process referred to as

A

glycolysis

164
Q

What is the primary energy-providing molecule in the human body?

a
Fat

b
Carbohydrate

c
Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)

d
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

A

d

165
Q

What metabolic process that occurs in the cytosol of a cell is responsible for converting glucose into pyruvate and adenosine triphosphate (ATP)?

a
Oxidation

b
Glycolysis

c
Phosphorylation

d
Gluconeogenesis

A

b

166
Q

Which of the following conditions would produce nutritional ketosis in the body?

A low-protein diet

A very low-carbohydrate diet

A caloric surplus

High-intensity exercise

A

B

Nutritional ketosis develops when a person consumes a very low-calorie diet (i.e., fasting) or a very low-carbohydrate diet.

167
Q

What is excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)?

EPOC is the increase in breathing rate that occurs during rest periods between exercise intervals.

EPOC is the faster rate of glycolysis that occurs after exercise.

EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise.

EPOC is the increase in protein breakdown that occurs after exercise.

A

c

168
Q

What does the electron transport chain (ETC) do?

The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.

The ETC uses an oxygen gradient to create ATP.

The ETC uses proteins to create hydrogen ions.

The ETC uses proteins to create ADP.

A

A

169
Q

Which of the following contributes the most to the total calories burned in a day?

Exercise

Nonexercise activity thermogenesis

Thermic effect of food

Resting metabolic rate

A

d

170
Q

What are the end products of the electron transport chain?

ADP and water

ATP and oxygen

ADP and hydrogen ions

ATP and water

A

a

171
Q

Which of the following is a ketone body?

Glycogen

Acetoacetic acid

Pyruvate

Lactic acid

A

b

172
Q

Which nutrient has the highest thermic effect?

Carbohydrate

Fat

Protein

Glycogen

A

c

173
Q

Which of the following would occur during intermittent exercise?

All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity.

Fat would be the main energy source.

Carbohydrates would not be a major energy source.

A steady-state intensity would be used.

A

A

174
Q

Before carbohydrates, fat, or protein can enter the citric acid cycle (CAC), they need to be converted to what common molecule?

Pyruvate

ATP

Amino acids

Acetyl CoA

A

D

175
Q

What is the ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1)?

The point at which a person can no longer talk during exercise

The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise

The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise

The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise

A

D

176
Q

What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle?

Ketosis

Glycolysis

Acidosis

Beta-oxidation

A

D

177
Q

What is a characteristic of a type II muscle fiber?

Smaller in size

Increased oxygen delivery

Short-term contractions

Slow to fatigue

A

c

178
Q

Which system supplies neural input to organs that run the involuntary processes of the body?

Somatic nervous system

The brain

Mechanoreceptors

Autonomic nervous system

A

D

179
Q

human movement system (HMS)

A

the nervous system, the skeletal system, and the muscular system

180
Q

Kinetic chain

A

A concept that describes the human body as a chain of interdependent links that work together to perform movement.

181
Q

Regional interdependence model

A

The concept describing the integrated functioning of multiple body systems or regions of the body.

182
Q

Biomechanics is the study of

A

mechanical laws or principles relating to movement.

183
Q

Kinesiology is another formal discipline that studies

A

movement. While kinesiology is still concerned with the principles of biomechanics, it investigates movement further because it additionally relates to human anatomy and physiology.

184
Q

Movement plane

A

Sagittal Planes: Split middle up down
Frontal Plane: Side to side
Transverse Plane: Cut middle

185
Q

Flexion

A

A bending movement in which the relative angle between two adjacent segments decreases.

186
Q

Abduction

A

A movement in the frontal plane away from the midline of the body.

187
Q

Adduction

A

Movement in the frontal plane back toward the midline of the body.

188
Q

Lateral flexion

A

Bending of the spine from side to side.

189
Q

Flexion occurring at the ankle

A

Dorsiflexion

190
Q

A movement in which the heel bone moves laterally

A

Eversion

191
Q

eccentric muscle action occurs when

A

a muscle develops tension while lengthening

192
Q

What are the three overarching types of muscle actions?

a
Eccentric, isotonic, and isometric

b
Isotonic, isometric, and isokinetic

c
Concentric, eccentric, and isometric

d
Concentric, isokinetic, and isometric

A

b

193
Q

Open vs closed chained movement

A

Closed-chain exercises involve applying force into an immovable object, such as the floor, wall, or pull-up bar. In other words, the hands or feet are typically fixed and do not move.

Open-chain exercises involve the ability to freely move the limbs, such as the hands and feet.

For example, a pull-up is a closed-chain exercise for the back musculature, whereas the lat pulldown is an open-chain exercise for the same muscle group.

194
Q

Agonists are muscles that act

A

as the prime movers for a joint motion; in other words, they are the muscles most responsible for generating the primary forces

195
Q

Synergist muscles

A

create forces to assist prime movers but are not intended as the primary force producer for a given joint motion.

196
Q

antagonist muscles perform

A

the opposite action of the prime mover. For example, the biceps brachii (an elbow flexor) is an antagonist to the triceps brachii during elbow extension.

197
Q

TRUE OR FALSE? The primary characteristic of closed-chain movements is that the distal segments, such as the person’s hands or feet, are not fixed and are able to move freely.

a
True

b
False

A

False

198
Q

Motor behavior is the HMS response to

A

internal and external environmental stimuli. The study of motor behavior examines the manner by which the nervous, skeletal, and muscular systems interact to produce skilled movement using sensory information from internal and external environments

199
Q

Motor development is

A

then defined as the cumulative changes in motor behavior, over time, throughout the life span ..Rolling over for the first time as an infant to performing complex movements for athletic competition as an adult and beyond

200
Q
A
201
Q

Muscle synergies

A

Groups of muscles that are recruited simultaneously by the central nervous system to provide movement.

202
Q

One of the most important concepts in motor control is that muscles are recruited by the nervous system in groups. What are these groups called?

a
Myofibrils

b
Subsystems

c
Muscle synergies

d
Local muscular systems

A

C

203
Q

What does the term force refer to?

a
The ability to move the body in one direction as fast as possible

b
The ability of the nervous system to produce great strength in the shortest time

c
The ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome a load

d
The ability of one entity to act on another entity, causing acceleration or deceleration

A

D

204
Q

Force is defined as

A

the interaction between two entities or bodies that results in either the acceleration or deceleration of an object

205
Q

Length-tension relationship

A

The resting length of a muscle and the tension the muscle can produce at this resting length.

206
Q

Myosin

A

The thick myofilament that acts along with actin to produce muscular contraction.

207
Q

Stretch-shortening cycle

A

Loading of a muscle eccentrically to prepare it for a rapid concentric contraction. Like a jump that starts in a squat

208
Q

The global muscular system is

A

comprised of larger muscles that initiate movements and tend to function across one or more joints

209
Q

The deep longitudinal subsystem (DLS) includes

A

muscles of the lower leg, hamstrings, and lower back region

210
Q

The posterior oblique subsystem (POS)

A

is made up of the latissimus dorsi, thoracolumbar fascia (connective tissue of the low-back), and contralateral gluteus maximus

211
Q

The anterior oblique subsystem (AOS) is similar to the POS,

A

just on the anterior side of the body. The muscles include the obliques, the adductor (inner) thigh muscles, and the hip external rotators.

212
Q

The digestive system may be categorized into three functional regions:

A

(1) the head and neck, which includes the mouth, (2) the upper gastrointestinal (GI) tract, and (3) the lower GI tract

213
Q

motility,

A

The actions of the digestive system generally consist of

214
Q

Mastication

A

The mechanical process whereby the oral muscles break down food.

215
Q

Peristalsis

A

The muscle action of the gastrointestinal system that pushes food through the body during digestion.

216
Q

Ingestion

A

The act of taking food, liquid, or other substances into the body in preparation for digestion.

217
Q

Chyme

A

A semifluid mass of digested food that is passed from the stomach to the small intestine.

218
Q

What term refers to the complex group of anatomical structures that function to break down, process, and absorb the food we eat?

a
The digestive system

b
The endocrine system

c
The integumentary system

d
The anaerobic energy system

A

a

219
Q

The function of the respiratory system, also known as the pulmonary system, is to

A

bring oxygen into the lungs from the air as it is breathed in and to expel carbon dioxide from the lungs to the outside environment.

220
Q

Holding in breath during exercise while contracting the abdominals, also known as the _____ maneuver, increases the rigidity of the spine to make it easier to support heavy loads

A

Valsalva

221
Q

What is the primary role of the respiratory system?

a
To regulate heart rate

b
To ensure brain perfusion

c
To regulate blood pressure

d
To ensure proper cellular function

A

d

222
Q

What term describes the act of holding in breath during exercise while contracting the abdominals?

a
Abdominal bracing

b
Valsalva maneuver

c
Thoracic pressurization

d
Intrathoracic depressurization

A

b

223
Q

Which muscle functions in a feed-forward mechanism in anticipation of limb movements?

Rectus abdominis

Multifidus

Erector spinae

Gluteus maximus

A

b

224
Q

With regard to the cumulative injury cycle, current theory supports the idea that repetitive movements, such as long periods of poor posture, are believed to lead to which of the following?

a
Arthritis

b
Decreased vascular tone

c
Decreased pain response

d
Tissue trauma and inflammation

A

d

225
Q

Which of the following states that soft tissue models along the line of stress?

a
Davis’s law

b
Boyle’s law

c
Henry’s law

d
Dalton’s law

A

A

226
Q
A

Nasm CPT (6 decks)

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