CPT section 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Deconditioned

A

A state of lost physical fitness, which may include muscle imbalances, decreased flexibility, and a lack of core and joint stability.

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2
Q

Health risk assesment

A

An HRA is conducted to evaluate the safety of an individual participating in exercise.

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3
Q

Contraindication

A

A specific situation where a medication, procedure, or exercise should be avoided because it may prove to be harmful to the individual.

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4
Q

(PAR-Q+) questionaire

A

It is a questionnaire given to prospective clients to gain insight into their current health and wellness.

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5
Q

False-positive screenings

A

A screening where the results of the health risk assessment might indicate a need for medical clearance, when one is in fact not needed.

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6
Q

Health history

A

questionnaire (HHQ)
A questionnaire with lists of questions that pertain to health history and habits, such as exercise history, eating behaviors, and general lifestyle.

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7
Q

Which of the following health indicators is reflected in the PAR-Q+ and preparticipation process?

A
Injury history

B
Current blood pressure

C
Current body fat percentage

D
Desired exercise intensity

A

d

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8
Q

Thermoregulation

A

constant internal body temperature, including events like sweating to cool the body and shivering to warm the body.

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9
Q

Peripheral vasodilation

A

The action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body.

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10
Q

TRUE OR FALSE? Fitness assessments that do not require physical exertion (such as the measurement of RHR, blood pressure, or body composition) should always be conducted after more vigorous fitness assessments (such as those that measure aerobic fitness, strength, or power output).

A
True

B
False

A

F

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11
Q

What term is used to describe the physiological process by which the body maintains a relatively constant internal temperature?

A
Homeostasis

B
Vascular shunting

C
Thermoregulation

D
Peripheral vasoconstriction

A

C

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12
Q

What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)?

A screening where the results indicate a need for medical clearance, when one is not, in fact, needed

A questionnaire with lists of questions that pertain to health history and habits, such as exercise history, eating behaviors, and general lifestyle

A screening tool used to evaluate the benefits and the risks associated with starting any type of exercise that is strenuous in nature

A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual’s physical readiness to engage in structured exercise

A

d

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13
Q

What would not be a reason to terminate an exercise test?

Any malfunction or failure of any exercise or testing equipment.

The individual chooses to stop or requests to stop the test being administered.

The individual is tired from the test.

Visible signs of unusual or excessive fatigue, shortness of breath, or a wheezing type of breath that is not typical of intense exercise.

A

c

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14
Q

How to record HR

A

NASM recommends that fitness professionals measure a client’s radial pulse

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15
Q

Blood pressure (BP)

A

The outward pressure exerted by the blood on the vessel walls; reported as systolic/diastolic.

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16
Q

Systolic blood pressure (SBP)

A

blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded.

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17
Q

Diastolic blood pressure (DBP)

A

heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded.

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18
Q

Why does NASM recommend fitness professionals measure resting heart rate (RHR) at the radial pulse versus the carotid pulse?

A
Many clients are uncomfortable having others touch their neck.

B
Pressure on the carotid artery can result in a cerebrovascular accident (stroke).

C
The radial pulse provides a more accurate reading of a client’s heart rate response.

D
The vagus nerve lies adjacent to the carotid artery, and pressure on this nerve can slow a client’s heart rate response.

A

d

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19
Q

Anthropometry

A

Anthropometry
The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion.

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20
Q

Body mass index (BMI)

A

Body mass index (BMI)
The measurement of a person’s weight relative to his or her height. measures the riskk to obesity

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21
Q

waist circumference

A

waist circumference; as a stand alone, it can be used to assess health risk

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22
Q

Gluteal fold

A

Gluteal fold
The area where the fold of the buttocks joins the back of the thigh.

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23
Q

Skinfold measurements

A

A technique used to estimate body fat in which calipers are used to pinch the skin in certain areas of the body.

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24
Q

what is this?

Sites

Men

Chest, mid-axillary, subscapular, triceps, abdomen, suprailiac, thigh

Women

Chest, mid-axillary, subscapular, triceps, abdomen, suprailiac, thigh

A

Jackson and Pollock Seven-Site Measurement
Gender

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25
bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)
) is a very easy body fat assessment to administer that does not require additional hands-on training or tables to reference.In this technique, sensors are applied to the skin, and a weak electrical current is run through the body to estimate body fat and lean body mass
26
Hydrostatic Underwater Weighing
This method is founded on the principle that bone, muscle, and connective tissues are denser and heavier in comparison to fat tissue, which is less dense, lighter, and floats. In essence, a person’s weight on land is compared to their underwater weight to determine fat percentage.
27
Which of the following represents the measurement of a person’s weight relative to their height? A Waist circumference B Height-to-weight ratio C Body mass index (BMI) D Waist-to-hip ratio (WHR
c
28
Which principle assumes that the volume of fluid displaced by an object is equivalent to the volume of the object fully immersed in that fluid or to the specific fraction of the volume below the surface? A Fluid principle B Overload principle C Archimedes’ principle D Body displacement principle Well done!
C
29
Cardiorespiratory fitness
Cardiorespiratory fitness also commonly referred to as cardio fitness or aerobic fitness, is often assessed to evaluate a client’s capacity for performing work
30
Cardiorespiratory assessments
- help the fitness professional identify starting exercise intensities that are safe and effective for clients, as well as appropriate modes of cardiorespiratory exercise
31
YMCA 3-minute step test
An aerobic test that measures the cardiovascular fitness of an individual based on a 3-minute bout of stair-stepping at a specific cadence.
32
Rockport walk test
An aerobic test for deconditioned individuals or those of low fitness levels in which they are instructed to walk as fast as possible and have their pulse taken immediately after completing 1 mile.
33
The ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1)
test is an incremental test performed on any device (e.g., treadmill, bicycle) that gradually progresses in intensity level and relies on the interpretation of the way a person talks to determine a specific event at which the body’s metabolism undergoes a significant change.
34
The ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2) talk test measures
the level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes. At this level, the body relies heavily on the anaerobic energy systems that begin to overwhelm the blood’s lactic acid buffering capacity.
35
Anaerobic energy systems
Energy systems used to perform work in which glycogen is converted to glucose and oxygen is insufficient to break down pyruvate and create adenosine triphosphate.
36
What is the most valid measurement of aerobic fitness? A VO2max B The 1.5-mile (2.4 km) run test C Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) test D The YMCA 3-minute step test
a
37
Which of the following is the part of the cell that uses nutrients to create energy for the cell? A Nucleus B Lysosome C Mitochondrion D Golgi apparatus
c
38
When sequencing physiological assessments, which of the following would produce a better result if measured immediately after exercise rather than before exercise? Blood pressure Resting heart rate Flexibility Body composition
c
39
What is reached when a talk test during exercise reveals a client to be working at ventilatory threshold 2? The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes The ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for only few seconds
a
40
Which test provides the most personalized assessment of an individual's true metabolic function? YMCA 3-minute step test Rockport walk test 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test
d
41
Static posture is
the positioning of the musculoskeletal system while the body is standing still,
42
dynamic posture
represents what happens to that alignment when the body is in motion.
43
Optimal movement
Moving in a biomechanically efficient manner that maximizes muscle recruitment and minimizes risk of injury
44
Pes planus
Collapsed arch of the foot; also known as flat feet.
45
Anterior
On the front of the body.
46
Posterior
On the back of the body.
47
Kinetic chain checkpoints
The five areas of the body that are monitored during movement assessments and exercise: foot/ankle, knees, lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, shoulders, and head.
48
Knee valgus vs Knee varus
Knees collapse inward (knock knees) due to hip adduction and internal rotation; ... Knees bow outward (bowlegged); also known as genu varum.
49
Upper crossed syndrome
Postural syndrome characterized by a forward head and protracted shoulders.
50
Which assessment provides insight into deviations from optimal alignment of the body in a standing posture? A The Lachman test B McMurray’s test C Static postural assessment D Dynamic postural assessment
C
51
Single-leg squat assessment
A movement assessment that assesses dynamic posture, lower-extremity strength, balance, and overall coordination in a single-limb stance.
52
Pushup test is
the max pushups for 60 seconds or exhaustion
53
Bench press strength assessment
A performance assessment designed to estimate the one-repetition maximum of the bench press exercise. 3 rep cal for 1 rep
54
Squat Strength Assessment Movement
performance assessment designed to estimate the one-repetition maximum of the squat exercise. 3 rep cal for 1 rep
55
vertical jump assessment is designed
to test maximal jump height and lower-extremity power.
56
long jump assessment
, also known as the broad jump, is designed to test maximal jump distance and lower-extremity horizontal power.
57
lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
is designed to test lateral speed and agility
58
40-yard dash assessment
is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed
59
What does the push-up test measure? A Core strength B Total body strength C Maximal upper-body strength during a pushing movement D Muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement
d
60
Which performance assessment is designed to test lateral speed and agility? A 300-yard shuttle assessment B 40-yard dash assessment C Pro shuttle (5-10-5) assessment D Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
d
61
Which of the following assessments is designed to estimate the one-repetition maximum for the squat exercise? A Vertical jump assessment B Squat strength assessment C Single-leg squat assessment D Overhead squat assessment
b
62
Supine
Lying faceup.
63
Which of the following assessments can be used by Certified Personal Trainers as recruitment tools for prospective clients? A Push-up assessment and LEFT B Pushing and pulling assessments C Vertical and long jump assessments D Static postural and overhead squat assessments
d
64
TRUE OR FALSE? It is important for all assessments to be sequenced in a specific order to help guarantee accurate results. A True B False
a
65
Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat? Upper trapezius Hip flexors Adductor complex Gluteus maximus and medius
c
66
Which postural distortion is characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips? Lower crossed syndrome Pes planus distortion syndrome Upper crossed syndrome Knee valgus
b
67
Which type of assessment is typically performed first in the assessment flow? 40-yard dash Static posture Bench press strength Single-leg squat
b
68
Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat? Tensor fascia latae Lower trapezius Adductor complex Gluteus maximus and medius
d
69
Which muscles are typically overactive in association with upper crossed syndrome? Lower trapezius Adductor complex Hip flexors Upper trapezius
d
70
Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the lower extremities? Single-leg squat Squat Lunge Overhead squat
b
71
Archimedes’ principle is
a physical law of buoyancy. It is the assumption that the volume of fluid displaced is equivalent to the volume of an object fully immersed in that fluid or to the specific fraction of the volume below the surface.
72
What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)? A screening where the results indicate a need for medical clearance, when one is not, in fact, needed A screening tool used to evaluate the benefits and the risks associated with starting any type of exercise that is strenuous in nature A questionnaire with lists of questions that pertain to health history and habits, such as exercise history, eating behaviors, and general lifestyle A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual’s physical readiness to engage in structured exercise
d
73
How is heart rate collected during the YMCA 3-minute step test to evaluate the cardiorespiratory fitness level of an individual? It is measured over a 30-second count during the last minute of the test. It is measured over a 60-second count immediately following the test. It is measured over a 20-second count immediately following the test. It is measured over a 10-second count during the last 30 seconds of the test.
b
74
What depth is suggested for the overhead squat assessment? Knees to 45 degrees Femur parallel to ground Full-depth squat Butt to heels
b
75
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome? Hip flexors Abdominals Adductor complex Lower trapezius
b
76
How many skinfold sites are measured when determining body composition using the Durnin-Womersley protocol? Seven Four Three Six
4
77
Which type of assessment measures overall strength, stability, muscular endurance, and agility? Overhead squat assessment Performance assessment Static posture assessment Dynamic posture assessment
b
78
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment? Gluteus maximus Latissimus dorsi Lumbar extensors Hip flexor complex
a
79
What step height is used for the YMCA 3-minute step test? 10 inches 14 inches 12 inches 16 inches
c
80
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment? Upper trapezius Cervical extensors Serratus anterior Lower trapezius
d
81
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment? Hamstrings complex Gluteus medius Gluteus maximus Hip flexor complex
d
82
Which muscles are typically overactive in association with lower crossed syndrome? Upper trapezius Abdominals Hip flexors and lumbar extensors Adductor complex
b
83
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control? Pro shuttle 40-yard dash Lower extremity functional test (LEFT) Long (broad) jump
a
84
In most individuals, to what pressure is the blood pressure cuff inflated when measuring resting blood pressure? The cuff is inflated to a value 5 to 10 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist. The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist. The cuff is inflated to a value 70 to 80 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist. The cuff is inflated to a value 45 to 55 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
b
85
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to arms falling forward in the overhead squat assessment? Latissimus dorsi Middle and lower trapezius Pectoralis major Teres major
b
86
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment? Gastrocnemius and soleus Rectus abdominis Hip flexor complex Gluteus maximus
d
87
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with pes planus distortion syndrome? Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius Adductor complex (inner thighs) Upper trapezius Hip flexors
a
88
Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat? Hip flexors Upper trapezius Gluteus maximus and medius Tensor fascia latae and adductor complex
d
89
Which of the following is the initial assessment that should be completed prior to starting any exercise or training program? Anthropometric assessment Postural assessment Health risk assessment Cardiorespiratory assessment
c
90
Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location? A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line) A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button) A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button) A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line
b
91
Which muscles are typically overactive in association with upper crossed syndrome? Upper trapezius Adductor complex Hip flexors Lower trapezius
a
92
Which of the following is not a component that needs to be considered when planning a VT1 test? Duration of each stage Exercise modality Environmental temperature Talk test
c
93
What step cadence is used during the YMCA 3-minute step test? A cadence of 36 steps per minute A cadence of 60 steps per minute A cadence of 96 steps per minute A cadence of 112 steps per minute
c
94
Which of the following represents a criterion for terminating an exercise test or exercise bout that involves exertion? Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms Failure of diastolic blood pressure to rise by more than 15 mm Hg An elevation of systolic blood pressure to 220 mm Hg Labored or heavy breathing associated with exertion
a
95
What population is the VT2 talk test appropriate for? Elderly individuals Individuals recovering from an injury Individuals with performance goals Deconditioned individuals
c
96
Which of the following waist-to-hip ratios (WHRs) places Amy (a female) in the high-risk category for cardiovascular disease? WHR of 0.78 WHR of 0.72 WHR of 0.83 WHR of 0.88
d
96
In which BMI category would you classify Mary if she has a BMI of 17.5? Class II obesity Healthy weight Underweight Obese
c
97
Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol? Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, and suprailiac Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, and chest
c
98
Into which category would a resting blood pressure score of 128/79 mm Hg fall? Normal Stage 2 hypertension Stage 1 hypertension Elevated
d ...stage 1 hypertension is a systolic BP of 130 to 139 mm Hg and a diastolic BP of 80 to 89 mm Hg.
99
Which test provides the most personalized assessment of an individual's true metabolic function? Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test Rockport walk test 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test YMCA 3-minute step test
a
100
101