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Nasm CPT > CPT section 4 > Flashcards

CPT section 4 Flashcards

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1
Q

Deconditioned

A

A state of lost physical fitness, which may include muscle imbalances, decreased flexibility, and a lack of core and joint stability.

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2
Q

Health risk assesment

A

An HRA is conducted to evaluate the safety of an individual participating in exercise.

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3
Q

Contraindication

A

A specific situation where a medication, procedure, or exercise should be avoided because it may prove to be harmful to the individual.

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4
Q

(PAR-Q+) questionaire

A

It is a questionnaire given to prospective clients to gain insight into their current health and wellness.

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5
Q

False-positive screenings

A

A screening where the results of the health risk assessment might indicate a need for medical clearance, when one is in fact not needed.

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6
Q

Health history

A

questionnaire (HHQ)
A questionnaire with lists of questions that pertain to health history and habits, such as exercise history, eating behaviors, and general lifestyle.

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7
Q

Which of the following health indicators is reflected in the PAR-Q+ and preparticipation process?

A
Injury history

B
Current blood pressure

C
Current body fat percentage

D
Desired exercise intensity

A

d

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8
Q

Thermoregulation

A

constant internal body temperature, including events like sweating to cool the body and shivering to warm the body.

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9
Q

Peripheral vasodilation

A

The action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body.

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10
Q

TRUE OR FALSE? Fitness assessments that do not require physical exertion (such as the measurement of RHR, blood pressure, or body composition) should always be conducted after more vigorous fitness assessments (such as those that measure aerobic fitness, strength, or power output).

A
True

B
False

A

F

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11
Q

What term is used to describe the physiological process by which the body maintains a relatively constant internal temperature?

A
Homeostasis

B
Vascular shunting

C
Thermoregulation

D
Peripheral vasoconstriction

A

C

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12
Q

What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)?

A screening where the results indicate a need for medical clearance, when one is not, in fact, needed

A questionnaire with lists of questions that pertain to health history and habits, such as exercise history, eating behaviors, and general lifestyle

A screening tool used to evaluate the benefits and the risks associated with starting any type of exercise that is strenuous in nature

A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual’s physical readiness to engage in structured exercise

A

d

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13
Q

What would not be a reason to terminate an exercise test?

Any malfunction or failure of any exercise or testing equipment.

The individual chooses to stop or requests to stop the test being administered.

The individual is tired from the test.

Visible signs of unusual or excessive fatigue, shortness of breath, or a wheezing type of breath that is not typical of intense exercise.

A

c

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14
Q

How to record HR

A

NASM recommends that fitness professionals measure a client’s radial pulse

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15
Q

Blood pressure (BP)

A

The outward pressure exerted by the blood on the vessel walls; reported as systolic/diastolic.

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16
Q

Systolic blood pressure (SBP)

A

blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded.

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17
Q

Diastolic blood pressure (DBP)

A

heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded.

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18
Q

Why does NASM recommend fitness professionals measure resting heart rate (RHR) at the radial pulse versus the carotid pulse?

A
Many clients are uncomfortable having others touch their neck.

B
Pressure on the carotid artery can result in a cerebrovascular accident (stroke).

C
The radial pulse provides a more accurate reading of a client’s heart rate response.

D
The vagus nerve lies adjacent to the carotid artery, and pressure on this nerve can slow a client’s heart rate response.

A

d

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19
Q

Anthropometry

A

Anthropometry
The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion.

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20
Q

Body mass index (BMI)

A

Body mass index (BMI)
The measurement of a person’s weight relative to his or her height. measures the riskk to obesity

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21
Q

waist circumference

A

waist circumference; as a stand alone, it can be used to assess health risk

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22
Q

Gluteal fold

A

Gluteal fold
The area where the fold of the buttocks joins the back of the thigh.

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23
Q

Skinfold measurements

A

A technique used to estimate body fat in which calipers are used to pinch the skin in certain areas of the body.

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24
Q

what is this?

Sites

Men

Chest, mid-axillary, subscapular, triceps, abdomen, suprailiac, thigh

Women

Chest, mid-axillary, subscapular, triceps, abdomen, suprailiac, thigh

A

Jackson and Pollock Seven-Site Measurement
Gender

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25
Q

bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)

A

) is a very easy body fat assessment to administer that does not require additional hands-on training or tables to reference.In this technique, sensors are applied to the skin, and a weak electrical current is run through the body to estimate body fat and lean body mass

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26
Q

Hydrostatic Underwater Weighing

A

This method is founded on the principle that bone, muscle, and connective tissues are denser and heavier in comparison to fat tissue, which is less dense, lighter, and floats. In essence, a person’s weight on land is compared to their underwater weight to determine fat percentage.

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27
Q

Which of the following represents the measurement of a person’s weight relative to their height?

A
Waist circumference

B
Height-to-weight ratio

C
Body mass index (BMI)

D
Waist-to-hip ratio (WHR

A

c

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28
Q

Which principle assumes that the volume of fluid displaced by an object is equivalent to the volume of the object fully immersed in that fluid or to the specific fraction of the volume below the surface?

A
Fluid principle

B
Overload principle

C
Archimedes’ principle

D
Body displacement principle

Well done!

A

C

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29
Q

Cardiorespiratory fitness

A

Cardiorespiratory fitness also commonly referred to as cardio fitness or aerobic fitness, is often assessed to evaluate a client’s capacity for performing work

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30
Q

Cardiorespiratory assessments

A
  • help the fitness professional identify starting exercise intensities that are safe and effective for clients, as well as appropriate modes of cardiorespiratory exercise
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31
Q

YMCA 3-minute step test

A

An aerobic test that measures the cardiovascular fitness of an individual based on a 3-minute bout of stair-stepping at a specific cadence.

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32
Q

Rockport walk test

A

An aerobic test for deconditioned individuals or those of low fitness levels in which they are instructed to walk as fast as possible and have their pulse taken immediately after completing 1 mile.

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33
Q

The ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1)

A

test is an incremental test performed on any device (e.g., treadmill, bicycle) that gradually progresses in intensity level and relies on the interpretation of the way a person talks to determine a specific event at which the body’s metabolism undergoes a significant change.

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34
Q

The ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2) talk test measures

A

the level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes. At this level, the body relies heavily on the anaerobic energy systems that begin to overwhelm the blood’s lactic acid buffering capacity.

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35
Q

Anaerobic energy systems

A

Energy systems used to perform work in which glycogen is converted to glucose and oxygen is insufficient to break down pyruvate and create adenosine triphosphate.

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36
Q

What is the most valid measurement of aerobic fitness?

A
VO2max

B
The 1.5-mile (2.4 km) run test

C
Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) test

D
The YMCA 3-minute step test

A

a

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37
Q

Which of the following is the part of the cell that uses nutrients to create energy for the cell?

A
Nucleus

B
Lysosome

C
Mitochondrion

D
Golgi apparatus

A

c

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38
Q

When sequencing physiological assessments, which of the following would produce a better result if measured immediately after exercise rather than before exercise?

Blood pressure

Resting heart rate

Flexibility

Body composition

A

c

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39
Q

What is reached when a talk test during exercise reveals a client to be working at ventilatory threshold 2?

The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes

The ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels

The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources

The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for only few seconds

A

a

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40
Q

Which test provides the most personalized assessment of an individual’s true metabolic function?

YMCA 3-minute step test

Rockport walk test

1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test

Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test

A

d

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41
Q

Static posture is

A

the positioning of the musculoskeletal system while the body is standing still,

42
Q

dynamic posture

A

represents what happens to that alignment when the body is in motion.

43
Q

Optimal movement

A

Moving in a biomechanically efficient manner that maximizes muscle recruitment and minimizes risk of injury

44
Q

Pes planus

A

Collapsed arch of the foot; also known as flat feet.

45
Q

Anterior

A

On the front of the body.

46
Q

Posterior

A

On the back of the body.

47
Q

Kinetic chain checkpoints

A

The five areas of the body that are monitored during movement assessments and exercise: foot/ankle, knees, lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, shoulders, and head.

48
Q

Knee valgus vs Knee varus

A

Knees collapse inward (knock knees) due to hip adduction and internal rotation; … Knees bow outward (bowlegged); also known as genu varum.

49
Q

Upper crossed syndrome

A

Postural syndrome characterized by a forward head and protracted shoulders.

50
Q

Which assessment provides insight into deviations from optimal alignment of the body in a standing posture?

A
The Lachman test

B
McMurray’s test

C
Static postural assessment

D
Dynamic postural assessment

A

C

51
Q

Single-leg squat assessment

A

A movement assessment that assesses dynamic posture, lower-extremity strength, balance, and overall coordination in a single-limb stance.

52
Q

Pushup test is

A

the max pushups for 60 seconds or exhaustion

53
Q

Bench press strength assessment

A

A performance assessment designed to estimate the one-repetition maximum of the bench press exercise. 3 rep cal for 1 rep

54
Q

Squat Strength Assessment Movement

A

performance assessment designed to estimate the one-repetition maximum of the squat exercise. 3 rep cal for 1 rep

55
Q

vertical jump assessment is designed

A

to test maximal jump height and lower-extremity power.

56
Q

long jump assessment

A

, also known as the broad jump, is designed to test maximal jump distance and lower-extremity horizontal power.

57
Q

lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

A

is designed to test lateral speed and agility

58
Q

40-yard dash assessment

A

is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed

59
Q

What does the push-up test measure?

A
Core strength

B
Total body strength

C
Maximal upper-body strength during a pushing movement

D
Muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement

A

d

60
Q

Which performance assessment is designed to test lateral speed and agility?

A
300-yard shuttle assessment

B
40-yard dash assessment

C
Pro shuttle (5-10-5) assessment

D
Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

A

d

61
Q

Which of the following assessments is designed to estimate the one-repetition maximum for the squat exercise?

A
Vertical jump assessment

B
Squat strength assessment

C
Single-leg squat assessment

D
Overhead squat assessment

A

b

62
Q

Supine

A

Lying faceup.

63
Q

Which of the following assessments can be used by Certified Personal Trainers as recruitment tools for prospective clients?

A
Push-up assessment and LEFT

B
Pushing and pulling assessments

C
Vertical and long jump assessments

D
Static postural and overhead squat assessments

A

d

64
Q

TRUE OR FALSE? It is important for all assessments to be sequenced in a specific order to help guarantee accurate results.

A
True

B
False

A

a

65
Q

Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat?

Upper trapezius

Hip flexors

Adductor complex

Gluteus maximus and medius

A

c

66
Q

Which postural distortion is characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips?

Lower crossed syndrome

Pes planus distortion syndrome

Upper crossed syndrome

Knee valgus

A

b

67
Q

Which type of assessment is typically performed first in the assessment flow?

40-yard dash

Static posture

Bench press strength

Single-leg squat

A

b

68
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat?

Tensor fascia latae

Lower trapezius

Adductor complex

Gluteus maximus and medius

A

d

69
Q

Which muscles are typically overactive in association with upper crossed syndrome?

Lower trapezius

Adductor complex

Hip flexors

Upper trapezius

A

d

70
Q

Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the lower extremities?

Single-leg squat

Squat

Lunge

Overhead squat

A

b

71
Q

Archimedes’ principle is

A

a physical law of buoyancy. It is the assumption that the volume of fluid displaced is equivalent to the volume of an object fully immersed in that fluid or to the specific fraction of the volume below the surface.

72
Q

What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)?

A screening where the results indicate a need for medical clearance, when one is not, in fact, needed

A screening tool used to evaluate the benefits and the risks associated with starting any type of exercise that is strenuous in nature

A questionnaire with lists of questions that pertain to health history and habits, such as exercise history, eating behaviors, and general lifestyle

A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual’s physical readiness to engage in structured exercise

A

d

73
Q

How is heart rate collected during the YMCA 3-minute step test to evaluate the cardiorespiratory fitness level of an individual?

It is measured over a 30-second count during the last minute of the test.

It is measured over a 60-second count immediately following the test.

It is measured over a 20-second count immediately following the test.

It is measured over a 10-second count during the last 30 seconds of the test.

A

b

74
Q

What depth is suggested for the overhead squat assessment?

Knees to 45 degrees

Femur parallel to ground

Full-depth squat

Butt to heels

A

b

75
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?

Hip flexors

Abdominals

Adductor complex

Lower trapezius

A

b

76
Q

How many skinfold sites are measured when determining body composition using the Durnin-Womersley protocol?

Seven

Four

Three

Six

A

4

77
Q

Which type of assessment measures overall strength, stability, muscular endurance, and agility?

Overhead squat assessment

Performance assessment

Static posture assessment

Dynamic posture assessment

A

b

78
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?

Gluteus maximus

Latissimus dorsi

Lumbar extensors

Hip flexor complex

A

a

79
Q

What step height is used for the YMCA 3-minute step test?

10 inches

14 inches

12 inches

16 inches

A

c

80
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?

Upper trapezius

Cervical extensors

Serratus anterior

Lower trapezius

A

d

81
Q

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?

Hamstrings complex

Gluteus medius

Gluteus maximus

Hip flexor complex

A

d

82
Q

Which muscles are typically overactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?

Upper trapezius

Abdominals

Hip flexors and lumbar extensors

Adductor complex

A

b

83
Q

Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control?

Pro shuttle

40-yard dash

Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

Long (broad) jump

A

a

84
Q

In most individuals, to what pressure is the blood pressure cuff inflated when measuring resting blood pressure?

The cuff is inflated to a value 5 to 10 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.

The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.

The cuff is inflated to a value 70 to 80 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.

The cuff is inflated to a value 45 to 55 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.

A

b

85
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to arms falling forward in the overhead squat assessment?

Latissimus dorsi

Middle and lower trapezius

Pectoralis major

Teres major

A

b

86
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?

Gastrocnemius and soleus

Rectus abdominis

Hip flexor complex

Gluteus maximus

A

d

87
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with pes planus distortion syndrome?

Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius

Adductor complex (inner thighs)

Upper trapezius

Hip flexors

A

a

88
Q

Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat?

Hip flexors

Upper trapezius

Gluteus maximus and medius

Tensor fascia latae and adductor complex

A

d

89
Q

Which of the following is the initial assessment that should be completed prior to starting any exercise or training program?

Anthropometric assessment

Postural assessment

Health risk assessment

Cardiorespiratory assessment

A

c

90
Q

Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location?

A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line)

A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)

A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)

A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line

A

b

91
Q

Which muscles are typically overactive in association with upper crossed syndrome?

Upper trapezius

Adductor complex

Hip flexors

Lower trapezius

A

a

92
Q

Which of the following is not a component that needs to be considered when planning a VT1 test?

Duration of each stage

Exercise modality

Environmental temperature

Talk test

A

c

93
Q

What step cadence is used during the YMCA 3-minute step test?

A cadence of 36 steps per minute

A cadence of 60 steps per minute

A cadence of 96 steps per minute

A cadence of 112 steps per minute

A

c

94
Q

Which of the following represents a criterion for terminating an exercise test or exercise bout that involves exertion?

Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms

Failure of diastolic blood pressure to rise by more than 15 mm Hg

An elevation of systolic blood pressure to 220 mm Hg

Labored or heavy breathing associated with exertion

A

a

95
Q

What population is the VT2 talk test appropriate for?

Elderly individuals

Individuals recovering from an injury

Individuals with performance goals

Deconditioned individuals

A

c

96
Q

Which of the following waist-to-hip ratios (WHRs) places Amy (a female) in the high-risk category for cardiovascular disease?

WHR of 0.78

WHR of 0.72

WHR of 0.83

WHR of 0.88

A

d

96
Q

In which BMI category would you classify Mary if she has a BMI of 17.5?

Class II obesity

Healthy weight

Underweight

Obese

A

c

97
Q

Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol?

Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh

Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, and suprailiac

Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac

Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, and chest

A

c

98
Q

Into which category would a resting blood pressure score of 128/79 mm Hg fall?

Normal

Stage 2 hypertension

Stage 1 hypertension

Elevated

A

d …stage 1 hypertension is a systolic BP of 130 to 139 mm Hg and a diastolic BP of 80 to 89 mm Hg.

99
Q

Which test provides the most personalized assessment of an individual’s true metabolic function?

Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test

Rockport walk test

1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test

YMCA 3-minute step test

A

a

100
Q
A
101
Q
A

Nasm CPT (6 decks)

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