CPP 2012 Domain 4: Personnel Security

Question 1

According to Oatman, what are the six principles that should guide thinking about executive protection?

Answer 1

Prevent and avoid danger,
Realize that anyone can protect anyone,

Don’t stop to think,
Keep clients out of trouble,
Understand the security vs. convenience continuum,
Rely on brains, not on technology.

Source: POA: Security Management, 9.5, page 271

Question 2

What are the three levels of assessment for violent risk among known subjects

Answer 2

Initial,
Threshold,

Comprehensive.

Source: POA: Security Management, 122.7.2, page 367

Question 3

What questions does an executive protection risk analysis answer?

Answer 3

Who would want to harm the executive?
How are adversaries gaining information about the executive?
What is the current likelihood of the various identified threats?
When does the executive desire, require, and accept protection?
Source: POA: Security Management, 9.6, page 275

Question 4

Where are executives most vulnerable to attack?

Answer 4

At home.

Source: POA: Security Management, 9.8, pages 277-278

Question 5

In executive protection (EP), what is an advance?

Answer 5

The process of researching a destination before the principal arrives.

Source: POA: Security Management, 9.9, page 278

Question 6

During a trip with a principal, what are the three key concepts for an executive protection (EP) specialist to remember?

Answer 6

Keep a low profile,
Stay away from problem areas and situations,
Know what to do if trouble arises.
Source: POA: Security Management, 9.9, page 281

Question 7

What is “working the principal”?

Answer 7

The choreography used by an executive protection specialist to physically move about with the principal.

Source: POA: Security Management, 9.10, page 282

Question 8

What is the chain of action that must occur if a principal is attacked?

Answer 8

Arm’s reach (immobilize attacker if within arm’s reach, otherwise cover the principal),
Sound off (shout the weapon displayed and the direction, in relation to the principal, from which it is coming),
Cover,
Evacuate.
Source: POA: Security Management, 9.10, page 284

Question 9

What are Schedule I drugs, and what are the specific types?

Answer 9

Schedule I drugs have a high potential for abuse and no accepted medical use in the United States. Types include marijuana, hashish, heroin, and LSD.

Source: POA: Security Management, 11.6.1, page 313

Question 10

What are some effects of depressants in large doses?

Answer 10

Impaired reflexes,
Slurred speech,
Uncontrollable drowsiness.
Source: POA: Security Management, 11.6.2, page 314

Question 11

What are the four symptoms of alcohol dependence?

Answer 11

Craving,
Loss of control, 
Physical dependence,
Tolerance.
Source: POA: Security Management, 11.6.2, page 314

Question 12

What are the immediate effects of cocaine use?

Answer 12

Dilated pupils,
Elevated blood pressure,
Increased heart rate,
Euphoria.
Source: POA: Security Management, 11.6.4, page 316

Question 13

What are the effects of large doses of cocaine?

Answer 13

Bizarre behavior,
Tremors,
Vertigo,
Muscle twitches,
Paranoia, 
Toxic reaction.
Source: POA: Security Management,11.6.4, page 317

Question 14

What is “ice”?

Answer 14

“Ice” is a smokable form of methamphetamine. It is a large, usually clear crystal of high quality that produces effects that can last for 12 hours or more.

Source: POA: Security Management,11.6.4, page 317

Question 15

What are the most commonly abused hallucinogens?

Answer 15

LSD,
MDA,
MDMA (ecstasy)
PCP (angel dust),
Mescaline,
Mushrooms.
Source: POA: Security Management, 11.6.5, page 318

Question 16

What are the two most commonly abused drugs in the workplace?

Answer 16

#1 Alcohol,
#2 Marijuana.
Source: POA: Security Management, 11.6.6, page 320

Question 17

What is flunitrazepam (Rohypnol)?

Answer 17

A date rape drug, sometimes placed in drinks to incapacitate victims, widely known as roofies.

Source: POA: Security Management, 11.6.8, page 321

Question 18

What are the three basic stages of addiction?

Answer 18

Increased tolerance to the drug,
Increased rationalization and lying,
Obsession with the substance.
Source: POA: Security Management, 11.7.1, page 322

Question 19

What should every job offer be based on?

Answer 19

Satisfactory completion of preemployment background checks.

Source: Preemployment Background Screening Guideline, 10.1, page 42

Question 20

What is the most commonly used preliminary drug test?

Answer 20

Thin-layer chromatography (TLC).

Source: POA: Security Management, 11.9.1, page 335

Question 21

What is the most accurate preliminary drug test?

Answer 21

Radioimmunoassay (RIA).

Source: POA: Security Management, 11.9.1, page 335

Question 22

What type of specimen is analyzed most often in drug tests?

Answer 22

Urine.

Source: POA: Security Management, 11.9.1, page 335

Question 23

What is the most accurate confirmatory drug test?

Answer 23

Gas chromatography/mass spectrometry.

Source: POA: Security Management, 11.9.1, pages 335-336

Question 24

On what occasions may drug testing be performed?

Answer 24

Before a job offer is made,
Upon reasonable suspicion,
After an incident or injury,
Randomly (safety-sensitive workers),
After return to duty following a violation,
As a follow-up to treatment.
Source: POA: Security Management, 11.9.3, 337

Question 25

What business-related concerns should a workplace violence program address?

Answer 25

Liability,
Productivity,
Workplace morale,
Associated costs.
Source: POA: Security Management, 12.3, page 361

Question 26

What is the most effective means for security professionals to prevent workplace violence?

Answer 26

Early detection of the behavioral, emotional, and psychological dynamic of workplace violence.

Source: POA: Security Management, 12.5, page 363

Question 27

How do aggressors decide to commit workplace violence?

Answer 27

Not by “snapping,” but through a process of emotional escalation, or, with psychopaths, non-emotional decision making.

Source: POA: Security Management, 12.5, page 363

Question 28

At a minimum, who should be part of a workplace violence incident management team (IMT)?

Answer 28

A senior management representative,
A senior HR manager,
A senior security manager,
A legal representative familiar with labor and employment law.
Source: POA: Security Management, 12.6, page 365

Question 29

What is the difference between behavioral investigative analysis (profiling) and violence risk assessment?

Answer 29

Profiling is used to exclude people from an investigative pool of subjects (to conserve resources).
Violence risk assessment is focused on an individual’s risk of committing a violent act.
Source: POA: Security Management, 12.7.2, page 367

Question 30

Why might companies keep secret the existence of kidnap, ransom, and extortion policies for their personnel?

Answer 30

To avoid being targeted.

Source: POA: Applications, 4.14, page 130

Question 31

What is the most important relationship for security during a strike?

Answer 31

The relationship with local law enforcement.

Source: POA: Legal Issues, 2.3, page 49

Question 32

What is a just cause discharge?

Answer 32

Often included in labor contracts, it requires an employer to prove misconduct or unsuitability, not merely allege it, before termination of a worker.

Source: POA: Legal Issues, 2.2.3, page 31

Question 33

If no guard force is available, who should provide security during a strike?

Answer 33

Supervisory personnel organized into patrol groups. Duties are observation and reporting, not apprehension.

Source: POA: Legal Issues, 2.3, Appendix A, page 58

Question 34

How long do the effects of controlled-release OxyContin last?

Answer 34

8 to 12 hours.

Source: POA: Security Management, 11.6.3, page 315

Question 35

How long does withdrawal from narcotics take?

Answer 35

7 to 10 days.

Source: POA: Security Management, 11.6.3, page 315

Question 36

What is the typology of workplace violence incidents used by U.S .occupational health and safety agencies?

Answer 36

Type I (no relationship between assailant and victim, e.g. robbery),
Type II (customer/client/patient violence), 
Type III (worker-on-worker violence), 
Type IV (violence stemming from a personal relationship).
Source: Workplace Violence Prevention and Response Guideline, 6.1.2, page 11

Question 37

What is “the second injury”?

Answer 37

Emotional harm to employees caused by unconcerned or callous management in the wake of a workplace violence incident.

Source: Workplace Violence Prevention and Response Guideline, 11.2, page47

Question 38

How many workplace violence incidents are committed annually by intimates of the victim?

Answer 38

18,700.

Source: Workplace Violence Prevention and Response Guideline, 15, page 32

Question 39

What legal causes of action are most frequently litigated in workplace violence cases?

Answer 39

Premises liability,
Respondent superior,
Harassment,
Negligence in: hiring, supervision, retention.
Source: Workplace Violence Prevention and Response Guideline, 11.5, page 12

Question 40

What departments are typically involved in preemployment background screening?

Answer 40

Human resources,
Security,
Business units,
Legal.
Source: Preemployment Background Screening Guideline, 4.2, pages 10-11

Question 41

How many years of prior work history should a job application ask for?

Answer 41

At least 7 to 10 years.

Source: Preemployment Background Screening Guideline, 6.2, page 24

Question 42

What are the three goals of preemployment interviews?

Answer 42

Convey critical information to the applicant to discourage unqualified applicants and encourage honesty,
Allow transfer of missing information from the applicant to the employer,
Permit an assessment of the candidate.
Source: Preemployment Background Screening Guideline, 8, page 25

Question 43

What is the name for the process by which an employer verifies the experience and qualifications presented by a job candidate?

Answer 43

Credentialing.

Source: Preemployment Background Screening Guideline, 9.2.3, page 37

Question 44

What are the five most common identifiers used to verify education history in a background check?

Answer 44

Name while attending school, 
Dates of attendance, 
Graduation date, 
Degree obtained, 
Date of birth.
Source: Preemployment Background Screening Guideline, 9.2.3.1, page 38