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Boeing737 > Controls and Indicators > Flashcards

Controls and Indicators Flashcards

1
Q

What does the VHF Transfer switch on the Comms Panel do?

A

Transfers standby frequency to the active frequency

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2
Q

What does the outer selector do on the comms frequency selector?

A

Changes the three left digits

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3
Q

What does the inner selector do on the comms frequency selector?

A

Changes the three right digits

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4
Q

What does the COMM TEST switch do on the VHF comms panel?

A

Removes automatic squelch and improves the reception of weak signals.

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5
Q

What colour is the offside tuning light?

A

White

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6
Q

Where is the offside tuning light presented?

A

On the Radio Tuning Panel above the transfer switch

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7
Q

What does it mean if you see PANEL FAIL on the radio tuning panel?

A

The radio tuning panel has failed

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8
Q

What does it mean if you see FAIL FAIL on the radio tuning panel?

A

The selected radio has failed

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9
Q

What is the range of VHF frequency?

A

118.000 - 136.990 MHz

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10
Q

What is the range of the HF frequency?

A

2.00 - 29.99 MHz

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11
Q

Where is the HF radar?

A

Vertical stabiliser

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12
Q

Where is the VHF radar?

A

VHF1 upper side of fuselage
VHF2/3 lower side of fuselage

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13
Q

What is the relevance of the ALT mode on the ACP?

A

Captain and Observer hardwired to VHF1
FO hardwired to VHF2

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14
Q

What indication in the flight deck will there be if you get a call from the cabin?

A

A small amber C on the ACP and the single high tone chime.

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15
Q

What does MASK mean on the ACP?

A

It selects the oxygen mask microphone

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16
Q

What indication will there be in the FD if you get a call from Ground?

A

A small C under the INT receiver and a small high toned chime.

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17
Q

How many digits make up the SELCAL code?

A

4 unique digits

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18
Q

What indication do you get that you are receiving a SELCAL call?

A

Light on the SELCAL panel indicating which frequency it is on, a two-tone chime and the FMC P/RST Amber light with illuminate

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19
Q

What do the Voice and Range buttons mean on the Nav Panel?

A

Voice: receive just the voice segments from NAV/ADF radio.
Range: receives only the morse.

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20
Q

What is the priority for the PA system?

A

Flight Crew
Cabin Crew
PRAM

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21
Q

When would you set the transponder to TA only?

A

When you are operating Single Engine, as you may not have the performance to perform an RA manoeuvre.

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22
Q

Which VHF box does ACARS use?

A

VHF3

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23
Q

When would you select the Service Interphone as ON?

A

When you re required to speak to MAINT from FD whilst there are working on the AC.

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24
Q

When can you erase the CVR?

A

On the ground with the Parking Brake set.

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25
Q

What does the TEST switch on the CVR panel do?

A

If there are no faults, STATUS light illuminate and a tone may be heard through the HEADPHONE jack.

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26
Q

What colour is the status light on the CVR panel?

A

Green

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27
Q

When is the CVR in AUTO?

A

From first engine start until 5 minutes after last engine shutdown.

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28
Q

What happens if you press the GRD CALL button?

A

A horn sounds from the nose wheel.

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29
Q

What happens if you press the ATTEND button?

A

A two-tone chime will sound in the passenger cabin and the pink light will illuminate.

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30
Q

Blue CALL light overhead illuminates when?

A

FD is being call by CC or Ground, illuminates for 40 seconds after the call has been initiated, or until the cabin crew have hung the phone back up (whichever occurs first)

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31
Q

Which button does the CC use to contact FD?

A

No. 2 on the phone.

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32
Q

What indication will you get if you are receiving an ACARS message?

A

Hi/Lo chime in the FD and a message on the upper DU.

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33
Q

How long does the CVR record for?

A

120 minutes on continuous loop.

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34
Q

HF Variant C can hold how many frequencies?

A

100

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35
Q

While tuning the HF, how long is the tone sounded for if it is successful?

A

Up to 7 seconds.

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36
Q

While tuning the HF, how long is the tone sounded for if it is not successful?

A

More than 7 seconds unto max 15!

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37
Q

What chime is announced if FD engage seatbelts?

A

Single low tone chime

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38
Q

How many transmitter keys can be selected at once?

A

Just one

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39
Q

How many reception keys can be selected at once?

A

As many as required

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40
Q

How do you put the ACP panel into degrade mode?

A

Turn the switch from Norm to ALT

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41
Q

Which FMC is usually the primary?

A

Left

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42
Q

Which two main functions does the FMC operate?

A

Navigation and Performance

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43
Q

Where does the FMC receive its Inertial Data from?

A

Onside ADIRU

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44
Q

FMC updating order

A

GPS - DME/DME - VOR/DME - LOC/DME - LOC - IRS

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45
Q

What powers the left FMC?

A

AC STBY Bus

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46
Q

What powers the right FMC?

A

Transfer Bus 2

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47
Q

What happens if you lose power of the FMC airborne < 10 seconds

A

LNAV / VNAV will disengage but normal operation will resume with data being retained.

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48
Q

What happens if you lose power to the FMC whilst airborne for > 10 seconds?

A

LNAV / VNAV will disengage and you are required to reset the active waypoint prior to re-engagement.

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49
Q

How much reduction in N1 and Thrust is expected with CLB1 engaged?

A

3% reduction on N1, 10% reduction of thrust

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50
Q

Reduced climb thrust is available up to which altitude?

A

Up to 15000’ AGL.

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51
Q

What is the maximum amount of digits of a waypoint?

A

5

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52
Q

Creating a waypoint C123R140/5 means?

A

You have just inputted a new waypoint on the Radial 140, 5 miles before C123R

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53
Q

CDU colour cyan meaning

A

Inactive RTE, RTE LEGS & RTE HOLD pages

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54
Q

CDU colour green meaning

A

Actively tuned VOR, ILS or DME data

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55
Q

CDU colour magenta meaning

A

Active data used by the FMC for lateral and vertical flight paths

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56
Q

CDU colour shaded white meaning

A

Modifications

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57
Q

Both on L (FMC source select switch)

A

Selects the FMC for all FMC operations
Right map will annunciate “FMC L”

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58
Q

FMC Source Select switch in NORMAL

A

Left FMC controls the CDUs and provides auto throttle inputs
Right FMC operates in sync with Left FMC
Map is a composite of both FMCs

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59
Q

What happens if you move the source selector between FMC L and R?

A

LNAV and VNAV will disengage

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60
Q

What does it mean if the FMC Alert Light is illuminated amber?

A

An alerting message exists on the CDU

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61
Q

What is the significance of the GPS light being on automatically?

A

DUAL GPS failure

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62
Q

What does the TEST switch on the IRS do ?

A

Triggers a 10-second self-test, where all lights on the displays and mode selector momentarily illuminate

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63
Q

What is the PPOS button used for on the IRS?

A

Left window displays Latitude
Right window displays Longitude

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64
Q

What is the significance of the STS section on the IRS panel?

A

It displays how long the alignment has remaining from 15 mins down to zero, in one min intervals.

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65
Q

What does a steady white ALIGN light indicate on the IRS Panel?

A

The IRS is operating in ALIGN or ATT mode

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66
Q

What does a flashing white ALIGN light indicate?

A

Alignment of IRS cannot be completed due to no pos entry or they vast difference between the previous pos and entered pos.

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67
Q

Amber FAULT light on the IRS Panel?

A

There has been a fault affecting the ATT/NAV modes

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68
Q

What colour is the OM and where is it displayed?

A

CYAN and top right PFD

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69
Q

What colour is the MM and where would you see it?

A

AMBER and top right of PFD

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70
Q

What colour is the IM and where would you see it?

A

WHITE and top right of PFD

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71
Q

How do you perform an ILS test?

A

Select the ILS frequency
Let the course of 90 degrees from the aircraft’s current heading
Press test

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72
Q

How do you perform a VOR test?

A

Select the VOR frequency
Let the course of 360 degrees
Press test

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73
Q

Transponder Fail light will illuminate when?

A

It indicates a malfunction with the transponder or if the ADS-B is inop.

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74
Q

WX/Turb shows turbulence within what range?

A

40nm

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75
Q

How many IRS are there?

A

2, L and R

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76
Q

What is the role of the FMC?

A

It uses flight path information, aircraft systems data and nav/perf databases to fly the optimum flight path.

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77
Q

How many FMCs does Jet2 require to dispatch?

A

1 operative

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78
Q

What sources are available for FMC updating?

A

GPS
Radio Aids (DME/DME, VOR/DME, LOC/DME, LOC)
IRS

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79
Q

On which page of the CDU can sources for FMC updated be inhibited?

A

NAV OPS page 2/2

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80
Q

If ANP>RNP what happens?

A

you will receive a UNABLE REQD NAV PERF - RNP message on the ND and CDU.

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81
Q

Low level waypoints only become visible on the ND when the EFIS is set to what range?

A

40nm or less

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82
Q

RNP requires what extra feature compared to RNAV?

A

RNP requires on board reporting

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83
Q

Oceanic RNP

A

12nm

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84
Q

Enroute RNP

A

2nm

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85
Q

Terminal RNP

A

1nm

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86
Q

Approach

A

0.3nm

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87
Q

What is the definition/parameters of ANP?

A

It is the FMCs estimated position error within a 95% probability.

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88
Q

What is RAIM? how many satellites are required?

A

A technique whereby a GPS receiver is able to detect the integrity of the signal. It requires at least 5 Satellites.

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89
Q

Maximum alignment latitude

A

78°15’ N/S

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90
Q

Alignment time of IRS at the poles

A

17mins

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91
Q

VERIFY POSITION will appear on the scratch pad of CDU when?

A

When the latitude/longitude is not within 4nm of the origin airport.

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92
Q

Attitude information is used by which on board systems?

A

Flight Instrument Displays
Autopilot
FMS
Radar antenna stabilisation

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93
Q

Standby ILS uses which frequency channel?

A

VHF 1

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94
Q

LNAV, outside of 3nm what is required to get back on the LNAV track?

A

An intercept heading of 90 degrees to the LNAV track is required prior to the next active waypoint.

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95
Q

VNAV Climb FMAs

A

N1 | LNAV | VNAV SPD

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96
Q

Levelling off on your planned cruise altitude in VNAV FMAs

A

N1 | LNAV | VNAV PTH

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97
Q

Levelling off underneath the planned cruise alt in VNAV FMAs

A

FMC SPD | LNAV | VNAV ALT

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98
Q

Selecting ALT INT within 50nm of TOD gives you what ROD?

A

1000’/min

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99
Q

Selecting ALT INT further from 50nm from TOD gives you what ROD?

A

CRZ descent

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100
Q

Descent in VNAV

A

RETARD | LNAV | VNAV PTH

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101
Q

When does the aircraft go into approach logic?

A

Within 2nm of approach fix or 2000ft ARTE whichever is earliest.

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102
Q

When will the scratch pad say “DRAG REQUIRED”

A

Airspeed > 10kts from the target speed or within 5kts of VMO/MMO.

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103
Q

Thrust Reverser REV Green

A

Thrust reversers have deployed

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104
Q

Thrust reverser AMBER meaning

A

Thrust reversers are moved from their stowed position

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105
Q

EGT Redlines

A

Maximum take-off EGT limit / Maximum in-flight EGT limit

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106
Q

EGT Amber bands

A

The lower end of the band displays the max continuous EGT limit.

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107
Q

EGT Start Limit Redlines

A

Displayed until engine is stabilised on start up, approx 59% N2.

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108
Q

When will the EGT readout turn amber?

A

When the maximum continuous EGT limit is exceeded, but not in the first 10 minutes during take off or GO AROUND.

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109
Q

When does EGT readout turn red?

A

When the max take off or start limit is exceeded.

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110
Q

When does the EGT box blink white?

A

When the EEC senses conditions that may lead to a hot start or stall on the ground

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111
Q

When will you get the ENG FAIL on the Engine Display?

A

In AMBER when engine operating below sustainable idle (less than 50% N2) and engine starter lever is in idle.

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112
Q

When will the ENG FAIL alert disappear?

A

Until either engine recovers or starter lever is moved to cutoff or engine fire warning switch is pulled.

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113
Q

What does the START VALVE OPEN alert indicate?

A

Steady amber - start valve open and air being supplied
Flashing amber - uncommanded opening of start valve

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114
Q

LOW OIL PRESSURE alert meaning on upper DU

A

Steady - oil pressure at or below the red line
Flashing - there is low oil pressure

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115
Q

OIL FILTER BYPASS alert meaning

A

Steady Amber- indicates an impending bypass of scavenging oil filter

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116
Q

X-BLD indication is which colour?

A

Magenta

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117
Q

What happens when you put engine start switches in GRD?

A

engine bleed air valve closes and start valve opens. It arms the igniters to provide ignition when the start lever is moved to IDLE.

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118
Q

What does FLT mean?

A

provides ignition to both igniter when engine start levers are in IDLE

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119
Q

What does OFF mean on the engine start switches?

A

Ignition is normally off, but both igniters are igniter are activated when the start lever is IDLE and there is an uncommanded rapid decrease in N2.

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120
Q

Amber Reverser alert on the overhead meaning

A

The thrust reverser control valve is not in the commanded position

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121
Q

EEC ON light in white meaning

A

Indicates that the EEC is in Normal mode and the engines ratings are calculated from sensed atmospheric conditions and bleed air demand.

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122
Q

EEC ALTN light on AMBER

A

Indicates EEC has automatically switched to alternate control mode, where its provides rated thrust or higher.

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123
Q

What does it mean if the EEC ON light is not in view?

A

The EEC has manually been entered into alternate mode.

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124
Q

What is the significance of both ON and ALTN lights being in view on the EEC panel?

A

The aircraft has automatically entered into soft alternate mode.

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125
Q

What happens when the Engine Start Levers are put into idle?

A

Electrically opens the spar fuel valve and opens engine mounted fuel shut off valve.

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126
Q

What does it mean if the TR UNIT light illuminates once airborne?

A

Either TR1 has failed or both TR2 and TR3 have failed.

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127
Q

What are the 2 basic principles of the B737 electrical system?

A

1) there is no paralleling of AC sources
2) the source of power being connected will cause the existing power source to automatically disconnect

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128
Q

What power sources provide AC?

A

2 IDGs
1 APU
Ground Power

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129
Q

Which power sources provide DC power?

A

Main and Auxillary Batteries
3 Transformer Rectifiers
2 Battery Chargers

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130
Q

How are the IDGs cooled?

A

Air/oil heat exchanger and fuel/oil heat exchanger

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131
Q

How long does the emergency power last?

A

60 minutes

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132
Q

what are the functions of the battery chargers?

A

keep the battery fully charged and supply power to the battery buses.

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133
Q

When is battery charging paused?

A

when being refuelled or during the APU start.

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134
Q

What is the function of the Transformer Rectifiers?

A

They change 115V AC to 28V DC

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135
Q

What is the function of a static inverter?

A

Transform DC power to Single Phase 115V 400Hz AC for the AC Standby bus.

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136
Q

BAT Switch on ON (Guarded Position)

A

Provides power to the switched hot battery bus, energizes relays to provide automatic switching of standby electrical system

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137
Q

Which services are powered by the ground services bus?

A

Cabin lighting, utility outlets and battery chargers

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138
Q

During load shedding, what is shed first?

A

Galleys on transfer bus 2

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139
Q

If you select DEU’s All on 1 what happens?

A

The Captain’s DEU will drive all six DU

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140
Q

What happens if you set the Speed Reference Selector to AUTO?

A

The reference airspeeds and gross weight are provided automatically through the FMC

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141
Q

What powers the Integrated Standby flight display?

A

Battery Bus

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142
Q

ISFD INIT 90 amber alert

A

90second initialisation is happening

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143
Q

When is the rising runway displayed?

A

Displayed at 2500ft

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144
Q

When does the rising runway begin to move?

A

Rises at 200’ RA

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145
Q

What is the relevance of the amber cross-hatched area on the PFD?

A

It is the FMC ground altitude

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146
Q

When ROLL appears on the EADI what does that mean?

A

Displayed when CAPT -> FO roll angles differ more than 5 degrees

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147
Q

When do you get IAS to disagree and where is it displayed?

A

When CAPT and FO IAS differ by more than 5kts for 5secs and it is displayed at the bottom of the PFD speed tape.

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148
Q

What is the source of the standby altimeter?

A

alternate static port

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149
Q

Position Trend Vector shows 3 dashed lines what do they represent?

A

where you are going to be in 30, 60 and 90 seconds.

150
Q

The position trend vector is based on which two parameters?

A

Groundspeed and bank angle

151
Q

No VSPD on the PFD means what?

A

V Speeds or the V Speeds set are below 80kts

152
Q

FMC landing altitude displays what?

A

Shows the departure reference altitude and then will display the destination alt when 400nm or 1/2 distance to destination whichever comes first.

153
Q

Speed Trend Vector shows what?

A

What speed the aircraft will be in 10 seconds

154
Q

Autopilot is controlled in which dimension?

A

Pitch and Roll

155
Q

CWS has which two limits in pitch and roll?

A

6 degrees for CWS R
250ft in for CWS P

156
Q

For how long does CWS flash amber for?

A

10 seconds

157
Q

Command Speed limiting provides protection for what?

A

VMO/MMO
Flap Placard Speed
Gear Placard speed

158
Q

Aileron Trim is prohibited when?

A

When the AutoPilot is engaged.

159
Q

On a dual-channel approach what does it mean if you get Steady RED A/P disengage ?

A

The stabiliser is out of trim

160
Q

what is the issue if you have a STEADY RED AP disengage?

A

The elevator position is not suitable for single-channel ops

161
Q

DUAL BLEED light in Amber

A

APU bleed air valve is open and engine no.1 Bleed Air switch is ON.

162
Q

ISO Valve in AUTO will be closed

A

If both engine bleed air switches are ON and both pack switches are in AUTO or HIGH

163
Q

What does it mean if the ISO VALVE in AUTO yet they are open?

A

They have opened automatically because either engine bleed or pack is turned off.

164
Q

WING BODY OVHT indicates what?

A

That there has been a leak in the bleed air duct

165
Q

BLEED TRIP OFF light AMBER shows

A

there is excessive engine bleed air temp or pressure

166
Q

CONT CAB Amber light automatically

A

indicated a duct temp overheat or failure in flight deck primary and standby temp control

167
Q

CONT CAB light on recall

A

Indicated failure of either the primary or standby temp controls

168
Q

FWD CAB Amber light

A

Indicates a duct temp overheat

169
Q

FWD CAB light on recall

A

indicates a failure of the fwd zone temp control

170
Q

TRIP RESET switch resets which lights?

A

BLEED TRIP OFF, PACK and Zone Temp lights

171
Q

Equipment Cooling supply OFF light illuminates

A

No airflow from selected cooling supply fan

172
Q

Equipment cooling exhaust OFF light illuminates

A

No flow from the selected cooling exhaust fan

173
Q

When does the cabin alt horn sound?

A

10000ft

174
Q

AUTO FAIL light amber illuminates

A

DUAL controller failure

175
Q

AUTO FAIL light and ALTN light illuminate together

A

Single controller failure

176
Q

Green ALTN light only

A

The pressurisation mode selector is in ALTN

177
Q

What is the pressurisation expected below 28000ft ?

A

7.45 psi

178
Q

What is the pressurisation expected between 28000 and 37000 ft?

A

7.8psi

179
Q

What is the pressurisation above 37000ft?

A

8.35 psi

180
Q

What is the maximum pressurisation

A

9.1psi

181
Q

What temperature range does the zone control offer?

A

18 degrees to 30 degrees

182
Q

Which pack has the fixed temperature of 24C?

A

LEFT

183
Q

What is the fixed temperature is the Right pack?

A

18 C

184
Q

The standby pack has what effect on the temperatures?

A

Average zone temperature across both cabin, unaffected for the flight deck.

185
Q

If the Flight Deck Trim air is lost, how is the air conditioned?

A

By the left pack

186
Q

What is the distribution of the equipment cooling air on the ground?

A

Leaves aircraft via the exhaust port

187
Q

What is the distribution of equipment cooling air at high altitudes?

A

goes around the cargo bay

188
Q

How many pressure relief valves are there?

A

2 positive ones, 1 negative

189
Q

How many packs is the APU capable of supplying?

A

2 on ground
1 in flight

190
Q

What is the purpose of the RAM air system?

A

It provides cooling air for the heat exchangers

191
Q

What is the purpose of the deflector doors?

A

They prevent slush ingestion prior to lift off an after touchdown

192
Q

What is the purpose on the Recirc Fans?

A

the reduce the demand on the pack load and the demand of engine bleed air

193
Q

Under what conditions does the Left Recirc fan operate?

A

Constantly unless the pack switches are in HIGH

194
Q

Electrics for APU start up comes from where?

A

Number one transfer bus or the main battery

195
Q

What is the max EGT on the APU?

A

There isn’t a limit

196
Q

Once the APU GEN BUS OFF light illuminates, how long do you have to wait to put on bleed air

A

2 mins

197
Q

How many fire bottles are there for the APU?

A

1

198
Q

How long do you have to wait after 3 aborted APU starts?

A

15 minutes

199
Q

APU shedding occurs in flight, what sheds?

A

Automatically removes the Galleys ABC&D
then if it still cannot cope it will shed the AC transfer busses

200
Q

APU: OVERSPEED light illuminates

A

when there is an overspeed >106%

201
Q

APU: Maint light

A

This is blue, it indicates the APU has a problem and should only be operated in needed.

202
Q

APU: FAULT light

A

A malfunction has occurred an the APU has initiated an auto shutdown.

203
Q

What quality of oil is required for engines?

A

12 quarts / 60% / 11.4 litres

204
Q

How long will the amber warnings on the upper DU flash for?

A

All 3 will flash for 10 seconds and then the one that has the issue will stay constant.

205
Q

What % of N2 is required if you are starting the engines just on Battery to view the engine parameters?

A

15%

206
Q

When would you get the ENGINE CONTROL light on ?

A

there is a fault, the light will only show on the ground when the engines are running and the aircraft is below 80kts. It will also show 30 secs after the touchdown. It is NON - DSIPATCHABLE.

207
Q

What is soft alternate?

A

Frozen thrust settings momentarily

208
Q

What is hard alternate mode?

A

Hard wired into the EEC, it will give you matched or more thrust.

209
Q

EEC provides protection on the ground for what?

A

Hot start
Wet start
Engine stall
EGT Start limit exceeded

210
Q

What does the EEC command when in protection mode on start up?

A

Ignition OFF and Fuel off

211
Q

What is the consequence to an engine stall?

A

EGT increases rapidly

212
Q

When can you apply Reverse thrust?

A

When you have Weight on Wheels or at RA <10ft

213
Q

What is the meaning of having the reverser light illuminated overhead for greater than 12 secs?

A

issue with the stowage

214
Q

what is the make of the batteries?

A

Nickel - Cadium

215
Q

What connects both Ac transfer busses?

A

Bus tie breakers

216
Q

What are the two rules of Electrics?

A

1) AC cannot be paralleled
2) connecting a different source automatically disconnects that previous source.

217
Q

BAT Discharge light illuminates when?

A

Excessive battery discharge has occurred.

218
Q

TR UNIT light illuminates when?

A

In flight, TR1 or both TR2&3 have failed.

219
Q

Why would the ELEC light illuminate?

A

it indicates that there is a fault in the DC power or SBY system. Only on the ground will this illuminate.

220
Q

Bat switch OFF with other elec sources connected will remove power from where?

A

Battery bus and Switched hot bat bus

221
Q

When the Guard is down on the battery switch, what bus has power?

A

Switch hot bat bus

222
Q

When will the DRIVE light illuminate?

A

When there is high oil temperature on that engine causing an IDG auto disconnect, an IDG failure or engine shutdown

223
Q

SBY Power off illuminating removes power from where?

A

AC SBY bus, battery bus and DC SBY bus

224
Q

When the SBY Power switch is on Bat how is the AC standby bus powered?

A

Through the static inverter

225
Q

When the SBY switch is on BAT where is the DC SBY bus powered from?

A

Battery

226
Q

SOURCE OFF light illuminates when?

A

when no source has been manually selected to power that associated bus

227
Q

A/P disengage light flashing red

A

AP disengaged

228
Q

A/P disengage red

A

Stab out of trim on an Autoland below 800’ RA

229
Q

A/P Disengage light flashing Amber

A

A/P automatically reverts to CWS P or R while in CMD

230
Q

A/T disengage flashing red

A

A/T has disengaged

231
Q

A/T Disengage light flashing Amber

A

airspeed differs from commanded value by +10 / -5kts and is not approaching the value with flaps extended.

232
Q

AUTOLAND warning light flashing ref

A

A/P disengages or stab trim warning occurs or ils dev below 200’

233
Q

A/T Lim illuminated in white

A

The FMC is not providing the A/T system with the N1 limit values.

234
Q

How long will the CWS flash for ?

A

Amber and for 10 seconds

235
Q

ENG Valve Closed light in bright blue

A

Related engine valve is in transit

236
Q

SPAR VALVE Closed light in dm blue

A

The shut off valve is closed

237
Q

What tank is fuel temperature recorded from?

A

No. 1 Tank

238
Q

FILTER BYPASS light in Amber

A

Impending fuel filter bypass due to a contaminated fuel filter.

239
Q

How many centre tank illuminations of low pressure are required to create a Master Caution? GFI

A

Just one for longer than 10 seconds continuously

240
Q

Fuel LOW alert

A

when the main tank has less than 907kg

241
Q

How long will the LOW fuel display show for?

A

Until the tanks are increased to 1134kg

242
Q

Fuel CONFIG Alert Amber

A

Displayed when the centre tanks have more than 726kg and the fuel pumps are off.

243
Q

Fuel CONFIG alert displays until?

A

Centre tank pumps reduce below 363kg or a centre tank pump is selected ON.

244
Q

Fuel IMBAL alert displays when?

A

Main tanks differ by more than 453kg

245
Q

When does the IMBAL light extinguish?

A

when imbalance is reduced to below 91kgs

246
Q

How many fuel measuring sticks are there?

A

16, 6 on each wing and 4 in the belly

247
Q

What are the two functions of the Manual Defueling Valve ?

A

Defueling and ground tank to tank transfer

248
Q

What does it mean if the Fueling VALVE POS LIGHTS are illuminated blue?

A

fuelling valve switch is OPEN and tank isn’t full yet.

249
Q

What is the purpose of the NGS ?

A

it removes oxygen from bleed air to provide NEA to the centre tank reducing flammability

250
Q

Scavenge pump operates when?

A

No 1 main tank is about 1/2 full

251
Q

where is fuel flow measures?

A

after the engine fuel shut off valve

252
Q

What electrically powers the fuel shut off valves?

A

DC motor by Hot batt bus

253
Q

VALVE OPEN light in dim blue ?

A

Crossed valve is open

254
Q

Under what conditions do both the Spar fuel shut off valve and the engine fuel shut off valve close?

A

When the engine fire switch is pulled or the engine start lever is placed to CUTOFF.

255
Q

What is the condition when FLT control switch is set into STBY RUD?

A

It activates the standby hydraulic system pump and opens the standby rudder shut off valve to pressurise the rudder PCU.

256
Q

What is the condition when you put the FLT Control switch into OFF?

A

closes flight control shut off valve isolating the primary flight controls from their associated hyd system.

257
Q

What does it mean when you have Flight Control Low Pressure amber caution?

A

Indicates low hydraulic pressure to the ailerons, elevator and rudder.

258
Q

What valve closes when you select the flight spoiler switch to off?

A

the respective flight spoiler shutoff valve.

259
Q

What occurs when you select the Yaw Damper Switch on?

A

It engages main yaw damper to main rudder PCU if B FLT Control switch is ON!

260
Q

What happens when you select Alternate Flaps into ARM?

A

it closes the TE flap bypass valve, activates the standby pump and arms the alternate flaps position switch

261
Q

What does the SPEED TRIM FAIL light indicate?

A

Failure of the speed trim system or failure of single FCC.

262
Q

What is the meaning of the AUTO SLAT FAIL light?

A

Indicates failure of auto slat system or failure of single SMYD

263
Q

Stab Trim Cutout Switch

A

Disconnect the electric trim from the stabiliser trim. You just have manual trim left.

264
Q

Stab Trim Override

A

Allows you to trim in the opposite direction to control column force

265
Q

Speed Brake Armed Green indication

A

Indicates valid automatic speed brake system inputs

266
Q

Speed Brake DO NOT ARM indication Amber

A

During landing indicates wheel speed below 60kts and the speed brake lever is not in the DOWN position

267
Q

SPEED BRAKE EXTENDED indication Amber on the ground

A

Illumination occurs when speed brake lever is in the down position and the ground spoilers are not stowed

268
Q

SPEED BRAKE EXTENDED indication Amber in flight

A

Illuminates to warn the crew that the speed brakes are extended while in landing config or below 800ft AGL

269
Q

What is the speedbrake lever alleviation feature?

A

If equipped and the speed brake is deployed beyond the 50% position, when alleviation is activated it will retract to the 50% mark and spoilers will retract to half max.

270
Q

On a normal aircraft, what flap setting provides flap load relief?

A

30 and 40

271
Q

On a SFP aircraft what flap position provide flap load relief ?

A

10, 15, 25, 30 and 40

272
Q

Flap Position Indicator on the forward panel shows what?

A

The left and right TE flaps

273
Q

Non-SFP LE Flap position 1-5

A

Fully Extended

274
Q

Non SFP LE slats position Flaps 1-5

A

Extended

275
Q

Non SFP LE flaps >5

A

Fully Extended

276
Q

Non SFP LE slats >5

A

In transit then fully extended

277
Q

When does the SFP aircraft LE devices show fully extended?

A

When in TE flap position 30 or 40.

278
Q

How high is the deflection of ground spoilers for SFP aircraft?

A

60 degrees

279
Q

How high is the deflection of ground spoilers for an non SFP aircraft?

A

52 degrees

280
Q

When are non SFP aircraft slats sealed?

A

1-5

281
Q

When are SFP aircraft slats sealed?

A

1-25

282
Q

Flap load relief if available when on Non-SFP aircraft?

A

at flaps 40 and 30

283
Q

Flap load relief is available when on SFP aircraft?

A

flap 10 to flap 40

284
Q

What parameter are taken into account for flap load relief?

A

retract 1kt above, extends 4kt below

285
Q

blended winglets provide what?

A

enhanced performance, extended range and increase fuel efficiency

286
Q

How many flight spoilers are on each wing?

A

4

287
Q

When do flight spoilers rise on the wing?

A

When the control wheel is displaced more than 10 degrees.

288
Q

Mach trim is accomplished when?

A

> 0.615 M

289
Q

What are the trim limits manual compared to autopilot trim?

A

manual - 16.9
autopilot - 14.5

290
Q

When is STS active?

A

between 100kts and M0.60 with AP not engaged 10 seconds after takeoff.

291
Q

Rudder Ratio limiting is active when?

A

Above 135kt, and it reduces inputs by 25%

292
Q

What is the role of the FFM?

A

It ensure that there isn’t hard roll over, by activating the standby hydraulics to the rudder.

293
Q

Can you trim the rudder in autopilot?

A

No

294
Q

How is it that the ground spoilers aren’t deployed airborne?

A

Not active until the air ground sensor activated on the right hand wheel.

295
Q

What 4 conditions are required for ground spoilers to deploy?

A

Speed brakes are ARMED green
Rad alt is less than 10 ft
Thrust levers at idle
Wheel speed >60kts

296
Q

When autoslats are being deployed does LE transit light illuminate?

A

No

297
Q

Alternate flap extension provides what?

A

LE fully extended, TE flap 15

298
Q

How many LE on each wing?

A

4

299
Q

When will you get the FEEL DIFF PRESS illuminates?

A

when there is a difference between Hyd A and B >25% for 30 seconds.

300
Q

How many ground spoilers are there on each wing?

A

2

301
Q

FAULT / INOP test, tests what?

A

tests fault detection circuits for both engines and APU

302
Q

OHVT/FIRE test, tests what?

A

tests overheat and fire detection loops on both engine and APU and wheel well fire detector

303
Q

Pulling a fire switch up does what?

A

arms the extinguisher circuit
closes the fuel and hydraulic shutoff valves and the bleed air valves
trips generator control relay and breaker
enables rotations

304
Q

Engine overhear and fire detection is powered by what?

A

battery bus

305
Q

Engine fire extinguishing is powered by what?

A

Hot bat bus

306
Q

APU fire detection is powered by what?

A

battery bus

307
Q

APU fire extinguishing is powered by ?

A

Hot bat bus

308
Q

Main wheel well fire detection is powered by what?

A

AC transfer bus 2 or Batter bus

309
Q

What indication will you get if you have a main wheel well fire?

A

Warning bell
FIRE WARN lights on MCP
Wheel Well light in red

310
Q

How is the cargo detection powered?

A

By DC bus 1 and 2

311
Q

How many smoke detector are in the cargo compartments?

A

4 fwd
6 aft

312
Q

Cowl anti ice light in amber indicates what?

A

that there has been an overpressure condition downstream of the engine cowl anti-ice valve.

313
Q

What does itmean if you have an amber TAI above the N1 displays?

A

cowl anti ice is not in the position indicated by that related switch.

314
Q

Which windows are electrically heated?

A

L1,2
R1,2

315
Q

Windshield wipers are inhibited when?

A

when the window is dry.

316
Q

When on battery power which pitot heater is powered?

A

captains

317
Q

which part of the wings are protected by heaters?

A

3 inboard slats

318
Q

If the green window heat light extinguishes what has happened?

A

the window has gotten to the correct temperature.
an overheat has been detected
a system failure has occurred
or switch is off.

319
Q

Landing gear lights are red meaning?

A

that there is a disagreement between the landing gear lever and position of the gear.

320
Q

What is the function of the override trigger?

A

It bypasses the landing gear lever lock.

321
Q

What is the implication of the manual extension door being open?

A

gear retraction is disabled.

322
Q

What speed does auto brake apply RTO?

A

When thrust levers are retarded to idle and speed is greater than 90kts

323
Q

Which hydraulic system is responsible for the gear and braking system?

A

Gear - HYD A
Brakes - HYD B
Alternate brakes - HYD A

324
Q

Minimum brake pressure

A

1000psi

325
Q

WHat are the four modes of anti skid?

A

skid protection
hydroplane protection
locked wheel
touchdown protection

326
Q

Autobrake disarm light will come on when?

A

Landing with RTO set
manual braking on landing
moving the the speedbrake to the down detent

327
Q

Alternate nose wheel steering is provided how?

A

guarded switch, sleeting ALT which mean HYD B provides power

328
Q

Under what condition will the LGTU activate?

A

airborne
no 1 engine RPM drops below value
landing gear lever is up
either main landing gear is not up and locked

329
Q

After landing when does autobrake function kick in?

A

forward thrust levers at idle and main wheels spin up

330
Q

Which two hydraulic pumps can overheat?

A

ELEC 2 and ELEC 1

331
Q

Hydraulic digital quantity range?

A

0-106%

332
Q

RF will show when?

A

when the hydraulic quantity is less than 76%

333
Q

how much fuel is required to cover the EMDP?

A

760KG

334
Q

At what percentage should some hydraulic liquid be drained ?

A

98%

335
Q

What happens if you put the flight control switch into STBY RUD?

A

activates the standby pump and opens the standby rudder shutoff valve, pressurising the sby rudder pcu.

336
Q

what happens if you move the FLT control switch into OFF?

A

isolate the ailerons, elevators and rudder from their associated hydraulic source.

337
Q

What happens if you put the alternate flaps switch into ARM?

A

closes the TE bypass valve, activating the standby pump and arms the alt flap switch.

338
Q

STBY RUD ON meaning?

A

indicates the standby hydraulic system has been commanded to pressurise the standby rudder PCU

339
Q

What additions does sys B have?

A

LE flaps and slat
LGTU
Autoslats
Yaw damper
TE flaps

340
Q

What systems does the standby hydraulic system care for?

A

Thrust reversers
rudder
LE flaps and slats
Standby yaw damper

341
Q

why do we keep the engine pumps on?

A

to preserve solenoid life

342
Q

How is system A powered ?

A

AC transfer bus 2

343
Q

How is system B powered ?

A

AC Transfer bus 1

344
Q

How much is left in system A if there is a leak in the EDP?

A

20% for EMDP functions

345
Q

How does the PTU work?

A

It uses system A pressure to power a hydraulic motor-driven pump and Hydraulic B fluid

346
Q

When does the PTU automatically operate?

A

SYS B engine driven pump drops below limits
You are airborne
Flaps 1,2,5,10

347
Q

When does the LGTU automatically operate?

A

Airborne
No 1 engine RPM drops below a limit
Landing gear lever position up
either main gear is not up and locked

348
Q

SBY HYD will show low quantity when?

A

when less than 50%

349
Q

Alternate flaps require how much time in-between functions?

A

15 seconds and then 5 minutes

350
Q

SBY Hyd motor will automatically operate when?

A

Loss of system A or B with flaps extended if you are airborne and wheel speed >60kts.

351
Q

A leak in the standby Hyd system deplete what?

A

Depletes HYD B to approx 70%

352
Q

Which screens does DEU1 power?

A

Captains inboard and outboard DU and the upper DU

353
Q

Speed trend vector meaning

A

Where you will be in 10seconds based on current airspeed and acceleration

354
Q

What happens when your airspeed decreases into the minimum manoeuvre speed?

A

airspeed readout box turns amber and flashes for 10 seconds
AIRSPEED LOW aural x2

355
Q

What does the bottom of the red and black speed stick indicate?

A

VMO/MMO
landing gear placard speed
flap placard speed

356
Q

VNAV deviation bar starts moving when?

A

when the deviation is greater 30ft

357
Q

How much deviation does the VNAV pointer show?

A

with the symbol +/- 400ft
max deviation +/-9999ft

358
Q

What colour is the alt tape when using QFE?

A

shaded green

359
Q

Position trend vector shows what?

A

where you’ll be in 30,60,90 secs

360
Q

At what range on the EFIS do you need to be to see 2 dashes on the pos vector?

A

20nm

361
Q

NO VSPD warning indicates?

A

V speed haven’t been selected or that they are below 80 its

362
Q

Landing altitude reference bar shows amber, what does that mean?

A

0-500 ft above landing altitude

363
Q

Cross hatched amber on the altitude tape?

A

this is the FMC landing altitude
It shows the departure alt until half way or 400nm till the destination where it will show the destination alt (whichever is first)

364
Q

CDS Maint in white indication?

A

A dspatchable CDS fault has occurred

365
Q

CDS Fault Amber

A

A non-dispatchable fault

366
Q

DSPLY SOURCE 1 in amber

A

DEU1 has failed

367
Q

Pitch Flag indicates what?

A

there is a difference in pitch of 5 degrees.PITCH is amber and flashes for 10 seconds.

368
Q

IAS disagree indication

A

Difference of 5kts for 5 seconds

369
Q

ALT disagree indication

A

Indicated alt difference of more than 200ft for 5 seconds

370
Q

AOA disagree indication

A

disagreement of 10degrees for more than 10 seconds.

371
Q

when does the bank indicator turn amber?

A

beyond 35 degrees

372
Q

what colours can the skid indicator be?

A

white at full deflection and then amber if bank angle greater than 35 degrees.

Boeing737 (7 decks)

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