Controls and Indicators Flashcards
1
Q
What does the VHF Transfer switch on the Comms Panel do?
A
Transfers standby frequency to the active frequency
2
Q
What does the outer selector do on the comms frequency selector?
A
Changes the three left digits
3
Q
What does the inner selector do on the comms frequency selector?
A
Changes the three right digits
4
Q
What does the COMM TEST switch do on the VHF comms panel?
A
Removes automatic squelch and improves the reception of weak signals.
5
Q
What colour is the offside tuning light?
A
White
6
Q
Where is the offside tuning light presented?
A
On the Radio Tuning Panel above the transfer switch
7
Q
What does it mean if you see PANEL FAIL on the radio tuning panel?
A
The radio tuning panel has failed
8
Q
What does it mean if you see FAIL FAIL on the radio tuning panel?
A
The selected radio has failed
9
Q
What is the range of VHF frequency?
A
118.000 - 136.990 MHz
10
Q
What is the range of the HF frequency?
A
2.00 - 29.99 MHz
11
Q
Where is the HF radar?
A
Vertical stabiliser
12
Q
Where is the VHF radar?
A
VHF1 upper side of fuselage
VHF2/3 lower side of fuselage
13
Q
What is the relevance of the ALT mode on the ACP?
A
Captain and Observer hardwired to VHF1
FO hardwired to VHF2
14
Q
What indication in the flight deck will there be if you get a call from the cabin?
A
A small amber C on the ACP and the single high tone chime.
15
Q
What does MASK mean on the ACP?
A
It selects the oxygen mask microphone
16
Q
What indication will there be in the FD if you get a call from Ground?
A
A small C under the INT receiver and a small high toned chime.
17
Q
How many digits make up the SELCAL code?
A
4 unique digits
18
Q
What indication do you get that you are receiving a SELCAL call?
A
Light on the SELCAL panel indicating which frequency it is on, a two-tone chime and the FMC P/RST Amber light with illuminate
19
Q
What do the Voice and Range buttons mean on the Nav Panel?
A
Voice: receive just the voice segments from NAV/ADF radio.
Range: receives only the morse.
20
Q
What is the priority for the PA system?
A
Flight Crew
Cabin Crew
PRAM
21
Q
When would you set the transponder to TA only?
A
When you are operating Single Engine, as you may not have the performance to perform an RA manoeuvre.
22
Q
Which VHF box does ACARS use?
A
VHF3
23
Q
When would you select the Service Interphone as ON?
A
When you re required to speak to MAINT from FD whilst there are working on the AC.
24
Q
When can you erase the CVR?
A
On the ground with the Parking Brake set.
25
What does the TEST switch on the CVR panel do?
If there are no faults, STATUS light illuminate and a tone may be heard through the HEADPHONE jack.
26
What colour is the status light on the CVR panel?
Green
27
When is the CVR in AUTO?
From first engine start until 5 minutes after last engine shutdown.
28
What happens if you press the GRD CALL button?
A horn sounds from the nose wheel.
29
What happens if you press the ATTEND button?
A two-tone chime will sound in the passenger cabin and the pink light will illuminate.
30
Blue CALL light overhead illuminates when?
FD is being call by CC or Ground, illuminates for 40 seconds after the call has been initiated, or until the cabin crew have hung the phone back up (whichever occurs first)
31
Which button does the CC use to contact FD?
No. 2 on the phone.
32
What indication will you get if you are receiving an ACARS message?
Hi/Lo chime in the FD and a message on the upper DU.
33
How long does the CVR record for?
120 minutes on continuous loop.
34
HF Variant C can hold how many frequencies?
100
35
While tuning the HF, how long is the tone sounded for if it is successful?
Up to 7 seconds.
36
While tuning the HF, how long is the tone sounded for if it is not successful?
More than 7 seconds unto max 15!
37
What chime is announced if FD engage seatbelts?
Single low tone chime
38
How many transmitter keys can be selected at once?
Just one
39
How many reception keys can be selected at once?
As many as required
40
How do you put the ACP panel into degrade mode?
Turn the switch from Norm to ALT
41
Which FMC is usually the primary?
Left
42
Which two main functions does the FMC operate?
Navigation and Performance
43
Where does the FMC receive its Inertial Data from?
Onside ADIRU
44
FMC updating order
GPS - DME/DME - VOR/DME - LOC/DME - LOC - IRS
45
What powers the left FMC?
AC STBY Bus
46
What powers the right FMC?
Transfer Bus 2
47
What happens if you lose power of the FMC airborne < 10 seconds
LNAV / VNAV will disengage but normal operation will resume with data being retained.
48
What happens if you lose power to the FMC whilst airborne for > 10 seconds?
LNAV / VNAV will disengage and you are required to reset the active waypoint prior to re-engagement.
49
How much reduction in N1 and Thrust is expected with CLB1 engaged?
3% reduction on N1, 10% reduction of thrust
50
Reduced climb thrust is available up to which altitude?
Up to 15000' AGL.
51
What is the maximum amount of digits of a waypoint?
5
52
Creating a waypoint C123R140/5 means?
You have just inputted a new waypoint on the Radial 140, 5 miles before C123R
53
Which shows up in cyan on the CDU?
Inactive RTE, RTE LEGS & RTE HOLD pages
54
CDU colour green meaning
Actively tuned VOR, ILS or DME data
55
CDU colour magenta meaning
Active data used by the FMC for lateral and vertical flight paths
56
CDU colour shaded white meaning
Modifications
57
What happens when FMC source select switch is selected to “Both on L”?
Selects the left FMC for all FMC operations
Noted on the Right map, it will annunciate "FMC L"
58
FMC Source Select switch in NORMAL
Left FMC controls the CDUs and provides auto throttle inputs
Right FMC operates in sync with Left FMC
Map is a composite of both FMCs
59
What happens if you move the source selector between FMC L and R?
LNAV and VNAV will disengage
60
What does it mean if the FMC Alert Light is illuminated amber?
An alerting message exists on the CDU
61
What is the significance of the GPS light being on automatically?
DUAL GPS failure
62
What does the TEST switch on the IRS do ?
Triggers a 10-second self-test, where all lights on the displays and mode selector momentarily illuminate
63
What is the PPOS button used for on the IRS?
Left window displays Latitude
Right window displays Longitude
64
What is the significance of the STS section on the IRS panel?
It displays how long the alignment has remaining from 15 mins down to zero, in one min intervals.
65
What does a steady white ALIGN light indicate on the IRS Panel?
The IRS is operating in ALIGN or ATT mode
66
What does a flashing white ALIGN light indicate?
Alignment of IRS cannot be completed due to no pos entry or they vast difference between the previous pos and entered pos.
67
Amber FAULT light on the IRS Panel?
There has been a fault affecting the ATT/NAV modes
68
What colour is the OM and where is it displayed?
CYAN and top right PFD
69
What colour is the MM and where would you see it?
AMBER and top right of PFD
70
What colour is the IM and where would you see it?
WHITE and top right of PFD
71
How do you perform an ILS test?
Select the ILS frequency
Let the course of 90 degrees from the aircraft's current heading
Press test
72
How do you perform a VOR test?
Select the VOR frequency
Let the course of 360 degrees
Press test
73
Transponder Fail light will illuminate when?
It indicates a malfunction with the transponder or if the ADS-B is inop.
74
WX/Turb shows turbulence within what range?
40nm
75
How many IRS are there?
2, L and R
76
What is the role of the FMC?
It uses flight path information, aircraft systems data and nav/perf databases to fly the optimum flight path.
77
How many FMCs does Jet2 require to dispatch?
1 operative
78
What sources are available for FMC updating?
GPS
Radio Aids (DME/DME, VOR/DME, LOC/DME, LOC)
IRS
79
On which page of the CDU can sources for FMC updated be inhibited?
NAV OPS page 2/2
80
If ANP>RNP what happens?
you will receive a UNABLE REQD NAV PERF - RNP message on the ND and CDU.
81
Low level waypoints only become visible on the ND when the EFIS is set to what range?
40nm or less
82
RNP requires what extra feature compared to RNAV?
RNP requires on board reporting
83
Oceanic RNP
12nm
84
Enroute RNP
2nm
85
Terminal RNP
1nm
86
Approach
0.3nm
87
What is the definition/parameters of ANP?
It is the FMCs estimated position error within a 95% probability.
88
What is RAIM? how many satellites are required?
A technique whereby a GPS receiver is able to detect the integrity of the signal. It requires at least 5 Satellites.
89
Maximum alignment latitude
78°15' N/S
90
Alignment time of IRS at the poles
17mins
91
VERIFY POSITION will appear on the scratch pad of CDU when?
When the latitude/longitude is not within 4nm of the origin airport.
92
Attitude information is used by which on board systems?
Flight Instrument Displays
Autopilot
FMS
Radar antenna stabilisation
93
Standby ILS uses which frequency channel?
VHF 1
94
LNAV, outside of 3nm what is required to get back on the LNAV track?
An intercept heading of 90 degrees to the LNAV track is required prior to the next active waypoint.
95
If you are climbing in VNAV what will your FMAs be?
N1 | LNAV | VNAV SPD
96
Levelling off on your planned cruise altitude in VNAV FMAs
N1 | LNAV | VNAV PTH
97
Levelling off underneath the planned cruise alt in VNAV FMAs
FMC SPD | LNAV | VNAV ALT
98
Selecting ALT INT within 50nm of TOD gives you what ROD?
1000'/min
99
Selecting ALT INT further from 50nm from TOD gives you what ROD?
CRZ descent
100
Descent in VNAV
RETARD | LNAV | VNAV PTH
101
When does the aircraft go into approach logic?
Within 2nm of approach fix or 2000ft ARTE whichever is earliest.
102
When will the scratch pad say "DRAG REQUIRED"
Airspeed > 10kts from the target speed or within 5kts of VMO/MMO.
103
Thrust Reverser REV Green
Thrust reversers have deployed
104
Thrust reverser AMBER meaning
Thrust reversers are moved from their stowed position
105
EGT Redlines
Maximum take-off EGT limit / Maximum in-flight EGT limit
106
EGT Amber bands
The lower end of the band displays the max continuous EGT limit.
107
EGT Start Limit Redlines
Displayed until engine is stabilised on start up, approx 59% N2.
108
When will the EGT readout turn amber?
When the maximum continuous EGT limit is exceeded, but not in the first 10 minutes during take off or GO AROUND.
109
When does EGT readout turn red?
When the max take off or start limit is exceeded.
110
When does the EGT box blink white?
When the EEC senses conditions that may lead to a hot start or stall on the ground
111
When will you get the ENG FAIL on the Engine Display?
In AMBER when engine operating below sustainable idle (less than 50% N2) and engine starter lever is in idle.
112
When will the ENG FAIL alert disappear?
Until either engine recovers or starter lever is moved to cutoff or engine fire warning switch is pulled.
113
What does the START VALVE OPEN alert indicate?
Steady amber - start valve open and air being supplied
Flashing amber - uncommanded opening of start valve
114
LOW OIL PRESSURE alert meaning on upper DU
Steady - oil pressure at or below the red line
Flashing - there is low oil pressure
115
OIL FILTER BYPASS alert meaning
Steady Amber- indicates an impending bypass of scavenging oil filter
116
X-BLD indication is which colour?
Magenta
117
What happens when you put engine start switches in GRD?
engine bleed air valve closes and start valve opens. It arms the igniters to provide ignition when the start lever is moved to IDLE.
118
What does FLT mean?
provides ignition to both igniter when engine start levers are in IDLE
119
What does OFF mean on the engine start switches?
Ignition is normally off, but both igniters are igniter are activated when the start lever is IDLE and there is an uncommanded rapid decrease in N2.
120
Amber Reverser alert on the overhead meaning
The thrust reverser control valve is not in the commanded position
121
EEC ON light in white meaning
Indicates that the EEC is in Normal mode and the engines ratings are calculated from sensed atmospheric conditions and bleed air demand.
122
EEC ALTN light on AMBER
Indicates EEC has automatically switched to alternate control mode, where its provides rated thrust or higher.
123
What does it mean if the EEC ON light is not in view?
The EEC has manually been entered into alternate mode.
124
What is the significance of both ON and ALTN lights being in view on the EEC panel?
The aircraft has automatically entered into soft alternate mode.
125
What happens when the Engine Start Levers are put into idle?
Electrically opens the spar fuel valve and opens engine mounted fuel shut off valve.
126
What does it mean if the TR UNIT light illuminates once airborne?
Either TR1 has failed or both TR2 and TR3 have failed.
127
What are the 2 basic principles of the B737 electrical system?
1) there is no paralleling of AC sources
2) the source of power being connected will cause the existing power source to automatically disconnect
128
What power sources provide AC?
2 IDGs
1 APU
Ground Power
129
Which power sources provide DC power?
Main and Auxillary Batteries
3 Transformer Rectifiers
2 Battery Chargers
130
How are the IDGs cooled?
Air/oil heat exchanger and fuel/oil heat exchanger
131
How long does the emergency power last?
60 minutes
132
what are the functions of the battery chargers?
keep the battery fully charged and supply power to the battery buses.
133
When is battery charging paused?
when being refuelled or during the APU start.
134
What is the function of the Transformer Rectifiers?
They change 115V AC to 28V DC
135
What is the function of a static inverter?
Transform DC power to Single Phase 115V 400Hz AC for the AC Standby bus.
136
BAT Switch on ON (Guarded Position)
Provides power to the switched hot battery bus, energizes relays to provide automatic switching of standby electrical system
137
Which services are powered by the ground services bus?
Cabin lighting, utility outlets and battery chargers
138
During load shedding, what is shed first?
Galleys on transfer bus 2
139
If you select DEU's All on 1 what happens?
The Captain's DEU will drive all six DU
140
What happens if you set the Speed Reference Selector to AUTO?
The reference airspeeds and gross weight are provided automatically through the FMC
141
What powers the Integrated Standby flight display?
Battery Bus
142
ISFD INIT 90 amber alert
90second initialisation is happening
143
When is the rising runway displayed?
Displayed at 2500ft
144
When does the rising runway begin to move?
Rises at 200' RA
145
What is the relevance of the amber cross-hatched area on the PFD?
It is the FMC ground altitude
146
When ROLL appears on the EADI what does that mean?
Displayed when CAPT -> FO roll angles differ more than 5 degrees
147
When do you get IAS to disagree and where is it displayed?
When CAPT and FO IAS differ by more than 5kts for 5secs and it is displayed at the bottom of the PFD speed tape.
148
What is the source of the standby altimeter?
alternate static port
149
Position Trend Vector shows 3 dashed lines what do they represent?
where you are going to be in 30, 60 and 90 seconds.
150
The position trend vector is based on which two parameters?
Groundspeed and bank angle
151
No VSPD on the PFD means what?
V Speeds or the V Speeds set are below 80kts
152
FMC landing altitude displays what?
Shows the departure reference altitude and then will display the destination alt when 400nm or 1/2 distance to destination whichever comes first.
153
Speed Trend Vector shows what?
What speed the aircraft will be in 10 seconds
154
Autopilot is controlled in which dimension?
Pitch and Roll
155
CWS has which two limits in pitch and roll?
6 degrees for CWS R
250ft in for CWS P
156
For how long does CWS flash amber for?
10 seconds
157
Command Speed limiting provides protection for what?
VMO/MMO
Flap Placard Speed
Gear Placard speed
158
Aileron Trim is prohibited when?
When the AutoPilot is engaged.
159
On a dual-channel approach what does it mean if you get Steady RED A/P disengage ?
The stabiliser is out of trim
160
what is the issue if you have a STEADY RED AP disengage?
The elevator position is not suitable for single-channel ops
161
DUAL BLEED light in Amber
APU bleed air valve is open and engine no.1 Bleed Air switch is ON.
162
ISO Valve in AUTO will be closed
If both engine bleed air switches are ON and both pack switches are in AUTO or HIGH
163
What does it mean if the ISO VALVE in AUTO yet they are open?
They have opened automatically because either engine bleed or pack is turned off.
164
WING BODY OVHT indicates what?
That there has been a leak in the bleed air duct
165
BLEED TRIP OFF light AMBER shows
there is excessive engine bleed air temp or pressure
166
What does it mean when you get a CONT CAB Amber light automatically?
indicated a duct temp overheat or failure in flight deck primary and standby temp control
167
CONT CAB light on recall
Indicated failure of either the primary or standby temp controls
168
FWD CAB Amber light
Indicates a duct temp overheat
169
FWD CAB light on recall
indicates a failure of the fwd zone temp control
170
TRIP RESET switch resets which lights?
BLEED TRIP OFF, PACK and Zone Temp lights
171
Equipment Cooling supply OFF light illuminates
No airflow from selected cooling supply fan
172
Why does the equipment cooling exhaust OFF light illuminate?
The equipment cooling supply or exhaust fan has failed.
173
When does the cabin alt horn sound?
10000ft
174
AUTO FAIL light amber illuminates
DUAL controller failure
175
AUTO FAIL light causes the pressure control to automatically transfer to which mode ?
ALTN mode
176
Green ALTN light only
The pressurisation mode selector is in ALTN
177
What is the pressurisation expected below 28000ft ?
7.45 psi
178
What is the pressurisation expected between 28000 and 37000 ft?
7.8psi
179
What is the pressurisation above 37000ft?
8.35 psi
180
What is the maximum pressurisation
9.1psi
181
What temperature range does the zone control offer?
18 degrees to 30 degrees
182
Which pack has the fixed temperature of 24C?
LEFT
183
What is the fixed temperature is the Right pack?
18 C
184
The standby pack has what effect on the temperatures?
Average zone temperature across both cabin, unaffected for the flight deck.
185
If the Flight Deck Trim air is lost, how is the air conditioned?
By the left pack
186
What is the distribution of the equipment cooling air on the ground?
Leaves aircraft via the exhaust port
187
What is the distribution of equipment cooling air at high altitudes?
goes around the cargo bay
188
How many pressure relief valves are there?
2 positive ones, 1 negative
189
How many packs is the APU capable of supplying?
2 on ground
1 in flight
190
What is the purpose of the RAM air system?
It provides cooling air for the heat exchangers
191
What is the purpose of the deflector doors?
They prevent slush ingestion prior to lift off an after touchdown
192
What is the purpose on the Recirc Fans?
the reduce the demand on the pack load and the demand of engine bleed air
193
Under what conditions does the Left Recirc fan operate?
Constantly unless the pack switches are in HIGH
194
Electrics for APU start up comes from where?
Number one transfer bus or the main battery
195
What is the max EGT on the APU?
There isn't a limit
196
Once the APU GEN BUS OFF light illuminates, how long do you have to wait to put on bleed air
2 mins
197
How many fire bottles are there for the APU?
1
198
How long do you have to wait after 3 aborted APU starts?
15 minutes
199
APU shedding occurs in flight, what sheds?
Automatically removes the Galleys ABC&D
then if it still cannot cope it will shed the AC transfer busses
200
APU: OVERSPEED light illuminates
when there is an overspeed >106%
201
APU: Maint light
This is blue, it indicates the APU has a problem and should only be operated in needed.
202
APU: FAULT light
A malfunction has occurred an the APU has initiated an auto shutdown.
203
What quality of oil is required for engines?
12 quarts / 60% / 11.4 litres
204
How long will the amber warnings on the upper DU flash for?
All 3 will flash for 10 seconds and then the one that has the issue will stay constant.
205
What % of N2 is required if you are starting the engines just on Battery to view the engine parameters?
15%
206
When would you get the ENGINE CONTROL light on ?
there is a fault, the light will only show on the ground when the engines are running and the aircraft is below 80kts. It will also show 30 secs after the touchdown. It is NON - DSIPATCHABLE.
207
What is soft alternate?
Frozen thrust settings momentarily
208
What is hard alternate mode?
Hard wired into the EEC, it will give you matched or more thrust.
209
EEC provides protection on the ground for what?
Hot start
Wet start
Engine stall
EGT Start limit exceeded
210
What does the EEC command when in protection mode on start up?
Ignition OFF and Fuel off
211
What is the consequence to an engine stall?
EGT increases rapidly
212
When can you apply Reverse thrust?
When you have Weight on Wheels or at RA <10ft
213
What is the meaning of having the reverser light illuminated overhead for greater than 12 secs?
issue with the stowage
214
what is the make of the batteries?
Nickel - Cadium
215
What connects both Ac transfer busses?
Bus tie breakers
216
What are the two rules of Electrics?
1) AC cannot be paralleled
2) connecting a different source automatically disconnects that previous source.
217
BAT Discharge light illuminates when?
Excessive battery discharge has occurred.
218
TR UNIT light illuminates when?
In flight, TR1 or both TR2&3 have failed.
219
Why would the ELEC light illuminate?
it indicates that there is a fault in the DC power or SBY system. Only on the ground will this illuminate.
220
Bat switch OFF with other elec sources connected will remove power from where?
Battery bus and Switched hot bat bus
221
When the Guard is down on the battery switch, what bus has power?
Switch hot bat bus
222
When will the DRIVE light illuminate?
When there is high oil temperature on that engine causing an IDG auto disconnect, an IDG failure or engine shutdown
223
SBY Power off illuminating removes power from where?
AC SBY bus, battery bus and DC SBY bus
224
When the SBY Power switch is on Bat how is the AC standby bus powered?
Through the static inverter
225
When the SBY switch is on BAT where is the DC SBY bus powered from?
Battery
226
SOURCE OFF light illuminates when?
when no source has been manually selected to power that associated bus
227
A/P disengage light flashing red
AP disengaged
228
A/P disengage red
Stab out of trim on an Autoland below 800' RA
229
A/P Disengage light flashing Amber
A/P automatically reverts to CWS P or R while in CMD
230
A/T disengage flashing red
A/T has disengaged
231
A/T Disengage light flashing Amber
airspeed differs from commanded value by +10 / -5kts and is not approaching the value with flaps extended.
232
AUTOLAND warning light flashing ref
A/P disengages or stab trim warning occurs or ils dev below 200'
233
A/T Lim illuminated in white
The FMC is not providing the A/T system with the N1 limit values.
234
How long will the CWS flash for ?
Amber and for 10 seconds
235
ENG Valve Closed light in bright blue
Related engine valve is in transit
236
SPAR VALVE Closed light in dm blue
The shut off valve is closed
237
What tank is fuel temperature recorded from?
No. 1 Tank
238
FILTER BYPASS light in Amber
Impending fuel filter bypass due to a contaminated fuel filter.
239
How many centre tank illuminations of low pressure are required to create a Master Caution? GFI
Just one for longer than 10 seconds continuously
240
Fuel LOW alert
when the main tank has less than 907kg
241
How long will the LOW fuel display show for?
Until the tanks are increased to 1134kg
242
Fuel CONFIG Alert Amber
Displayed when the centre tanks have more than 726kg and the fuel pumps are off.
243
Fuel CONFIG alert displays until?
Centre tank pumps reduce below 363kg or a centre tank pump is selected ON.
244
Fuel IMBAL alert displays when?
Main tanks differ by more than 453kg
245
When does the IMBAL light extinguish?
when imbalance is reduced to below 91kgs
246
How many fuel measuring sticks are there?
16, 6 on each wing and 4 in the belly
247
What are the two functions of the Manual Defueling Valve ?
Defueling and ground tank to tank transfer
248
What does it mean if the Fueling VALVE POS LIGHTS are illuminated blue?
fuelling valve switch is OPEN and tank isn't full yet.
249
What is the purpose of the NGS ?
it removes oxygen from bleed air to provide NEA to the centre tank reducing flammability
250
Scavenge pump operates when?
No 1 main tank is about 1/2 full
251
where is fuel flow measures?
after the engine fuel shut off valve
252
What electrically powers the fuel shut off valves?
DC motor by Hot batt bus
253
VALVE OPEN light in dim blue ?
Crossed valve is open
254
Under what conditions do both the Spar fuel shut off valve and the engine fuel shut off valve close?
When the engine fire switch is pulled or the engine start lever is placed to CUTOFF.
255
What is the condition when FLT control switch is set into STBY RUD?
It activates the standby hydraulic system pump and opens the standby rudder shut off valve to pressurise the rudder PCU.
256
What is the condition when you put the FLT Control switch into OFF?
closes flight control shut off valve isolating the primary flight controls from their associated hyd system.
257
What does it mean when you have Flight Control Low Pressure amber caution?
Indicates low hydraulic pressure to the ailerons, elevator and rudder.
258
What valve closes when you select the flight spoiler switch to off?
the respective flight spoiler shutoff valve.
259
What occurs when you select the Yaw Damper Switch on?
It engages main yaw damper to main rudder PCU if B FLT Control switch is ON!
260
What happens when you select Alternate Flaps into ARM?
it closes the TE flap bypass valve, activates the standby pump and arms the alternate flaps position switch
261
What does the SPEED TRIM FAIL light indicate?
Failure of the speed trim system
On recall, failure of single FCC.
262
What is the meaning of the AUTO SLAT FAIL light?
Indicates failure of auto slat system or failure of single SMYD
263
Stab Trim Cutout Switch
Disconnect the electric trim from the stabiliser trim. You just have manual trim left.
264
Stab Trim Override
Allows you to trim in the opposite direction to control column force
265
Speed Brake Armed Green indication
Indicates valid automatic speed brake system inputs
266
Speed Brake DO NOT ARM indication Amber
During landing indicates wheel speed below 60kts and the speed brake lever is not in the DOWN position
267
SPEED BRAKE EXTENDED indication Amber on the ground
Illumination occurs when speed brake lever is in the down position and the ground spoilers are not stowed
268
SPEED BRAKE EXTENDED indication Amber in flight
Illuminates to warn the crew that the speed brakes are extended while in landing config or below 800ft AGL
269
What is the speedbrake lever alleviation feature?
If equipped and the speed brake is deployed beyond the 50% position, when alleviation is activated it will retract to the 50% mark and spoilers will retract to half max.
270
On a normal aircraft, what flap setting provides flap load relief?
30 and 40
271
On a SFP aircraft what flap position provide flap load relief ?
10, 15, 25, 30 and 40
272
Flap Position Indicator on the forward panel shows what?
The left and right TE flaps
273
(Non-SFP) Leading edge devices are fully extend when?
Trail edge flap position is 10 or more
274
When does the SFP aircraft LE devices show fully extended?
When in TE flap position 30 or 40.
275
How high is the deflection of ground spoilers for SFP aircraft?
60 degrees
276
How high is the deflection of ground spoilers for an non SFP aircraft?
52 degrees
277
When are non SFP aircraft slats sealed?
1-5
278
When are SFP aircraft slats sealed?
1-25
279
Flap load relief if available when on Non-SFP aircraft?
at flaps 40 and 30
280
Flap load relief is available when on SFP aircraft?
flap 10 to flap 40
281
What parameter are taken into account for flap load relief?
retract 1kt above, extends 4kt below
282
blended winglets provide what?
enhanced performance, extended range and increase fuel efficiency
283
How many flight spoilers are on each wing?
4
284
When do flight spoilers rise on the wing?
When the control wheel is displaced more than 10 degrees.
285
Mach trim is accomplished when?
> 0.615 M
286
What are the trim limits manual compared to autopilot trim?
manual - 16.9
autopilot - 14.5
287
When is STS (speed trim system) active?
between 100kts and M0.60 with AP not engaged 10 seconds after takeoff.
288
Rudder Ratio limiting is active when?
Above 135kt, and it reduces inputs by 25%
289
What is the role of the FFM?
It ensure that there isn't hard roll over, by activating the standby hydraulics to the rudder.
290
Can you trim the rudder in autopilot?
No
291
How is it that the ground spoilers aren't deployed airborne?
Not active until the air ground sensor activated on the right hand wheel.
292
What 4 conditions are required for ground spoilers to deploy?
Speed brakes are ARMED green
Rad alt is less than 10 ft
Thrust levers at idle
Wheel speed >60kts
293
When autoslats are being deployed does LE transit light illuminate?
No
294
Alternate flap extension provides what?
LE fully extended, TE flap 15
295
How many LE on each wing?
4
296
When will you get the FEEL DIFF PRESS illuminates?
when there is a difference between Hyd A and B >25% for 30 seconds.
297
How many ground spoilers are there on each wing?
2
298
FAULT / INOP test, tests what?
tests fault detection circuits for both engines and APU
299
OHVT/FIRE test, tests what?
tests overheat and fire detection loops on both engine and APU and wheel well fire detector
300
Pulling a fire switch up does what?
arms the extinguisher circuit
closes the fuel and hydraulic shutoff valves and the bleed air valves
trips generator control relay and breaker
enables rotations
301
Engine overheat and fire detection is powered by what?
battery bus
302
Engine fire extinguishing is powered by what?
Hot bat bus
303
APU fire detection is powered by what?
battery bus
304
APU fire extinguishing is powered by ?
Hot bat bus
305
Main wheel well fire detection is powered by what?
AC transfer bus 2 or Batter bus
306
What indication will you get if you have a main wheel well fire?
Warning bell
FIRE WARN lights on MCP
Wheel Well light in red
307
How is the cargo detection powered?
By DC bus 1 and 2
308
How many smoke detector are in the cargo compartments?
4 fwd
6 aft
309
Cowl anti ice light in amber indicates what?
that there has been an overpressure condition downstream of the engine cowl anti-ice valve.
310
What does itmean if you have an amber TAI above the N1 displays?
cowl anti ice is not in the position indicated by that related switch.
311
Which windows are electrically heated?
L1,2
R1,2
312
Windshield wipers are inhibited when?
when the window is dry.
313
When on battery power which pitot heater is powered?
captains
314
which part of the wings are protected by heaters?
3 inboard slats
315
If the green window heat light extinguishes what has happened?
the window has gotten to the correct temperature.
an overheat has been detected
a system failure has occurred
or switch is off.
316
Landing gear lights are red meaning?
that there is a disagreement between the landing gear lever and position of the gear.
317
What is the function of the override trigger?
It bypasses the landing gear lever lock.
318
What is the implication of the manual extension door being open?
gear retraction is disabled.
319
What speed does auto brake apply RTO?
When thrust levers are retarded to idle and speed is greater than 90kts
320
Which hydraulic system is responsible for the gear and braking system?
Gear - HYD A
Brakes - HYD B
Alternate brakes - HYD A
321
Minimum brake pressure
1000psi
322
WHat are the four modes of anti skid?
skid protection
hydroplane protection
locked wheel
touchdown protection
323
Autobrake disarm light will come on when?
Landing with RTO set
manual braking on landing
moving the the speedbrake to the down detent
324
Alternate nose wheel steering is provided how?
guarded switch, sleeting ALT which mean HYD B provides power
325
Under what condition will the LGTU activate?
airborne
no 1 engine RPM drops below value
landing gear lever is up
either main landing gear is not up and locked
326
After landing when does autobrake function kick in?
forward thrust levers at idle and main wheels spin up
327
Which two hydraulic pumps can overheat?
ELEC 2 and ELEC 1
328
Hydraulic digital quantity range?
0-106%
329
RF will show when?
when the hydraulic quantity is less than 76%
330
how much fuel is required to cover the EMDP?
760KG
331
At what percentage should some hydraulic liquid be drained ?
101% or more
332
What happens if you put the flight control switch into STBY RUD?
activates the standby pump and opens the standby rudder shutoff valve, pressurising the sby rudder pcu.
333
what happens if you move the FLT control switch into OFF?
isolate the ailerons, elevators and rudder from their associated hydraulic source.
334
What happens if you put the alternate flaps switch into ARM?
closes the TE bypass valve, activating the standby pump and arms the alt flap switch.
335
STBY RUD ON meaning?
indicates the standby hydraulic system has been commanded to pressurise the standby rudder PCU
336
What additions does sys B have?
LE flaps and slat
LGTU
Autoslats
Yaw damper
TE flaps
337
What systems does the standby hydraulic system care for?
Thrust reversers
rudder
LE flaps and slats
Standby yaw damper
338
why do we keep the engine pumps on?
to preserve solenoid life
339
How is system A powered ?
AC transfer bus 2
340
How is system B powered ?
AC Transfer bus 1
341
How much is left in system A if there is a leak in the EDP?
20% for EMDP functions
342
How does the PTU work?
It uses system A pressure to power a hydraulic motor-driven pump and Hydraulic B fluid
343
When does the PTU automatically operate?
SYS B engine driven pump drops below limits
You are airborne
Flaps 1,2,5,10
344
When does the LGTU automatically operate?
Airborne
No 1 engine RPM drops below a limit
Landing gear lever position up
either main gear is not up and locked
345
SBY HYD will show low quantity when?
when less than 50%
346
Alternate flaps require how much time in-between functions?
15 seconds and then 5 minutes
347
SBY Hyd motor will automatically operate when?
Loss of system A or B with flaps extended, if you are airborne or wheel speed >60kts.
348
A leak in the standby Hyd system deplete what?
Depletes HYD B to approx 70%
349
Which screens does DEU1 power?
Captains inboard and outboard DU and the upper DU
350
Speed trend vector meaning
Where you will be in 10seconds based on current airspeed and acceleration
351
What happens when your airspeed decreases into the minimum manoeuvre speed?
airspeed readout box turns amber and flashes for 10 seconds
AIRSPEED LOW aural x2
352
What does the bottom of the red and black speed stick indicate?
VMO/MMO
landing gear placard speed
flap placard speed
353
VNAV deviation bar starts moving when?
when the deviation is greater 30ft
354
How much deviation does the VNAV pointer show?
with the symbol +/- 400ft
max deviation +/-9999ft
355
What colour is the alt tape when using QFE?
shaded green
356
Position trend vector shows what?
where you'll be in 30,60,90 secs
357
At what range on the EFIS do you need to be to see 2 dashes on the pos vector?
20nm
358
NO VSPD warning indicates?
V speed haven't been selected or that they are below 80 its
359
Landing altitude reference bar shows amber, what does that mean?
0-500 ft above landing altitude
360
Cross hatched amber on the altitude tape?
this is the FMC landing altitude
It shows the departure alt until half way or 400nm till the destination where it will show the destination alt (whichever is first)
361
CDS Maint in white indication?
A dspatchable CDS fault has occurred
362
CDS Fault Amber
A non-dispatchable fault
363
DSPLY SOURCE 1 in amber
DEU1 has failed
364
Pitch Flag indicates what?
there is a difference in pitch of 5 degrees.PITCH is amber and flashes for 10 seconds.
365
IAS disagree indication
Difference of 5kts for 5 seconds
366
ALT disagree indication
Indicated alt difference of more than 200ft for 5 seconds
367
AOA disagree indication
disagreement of 10degrees for more than 10 seconds.
368
when does the bank indicator turn amber?
beyond 35 degrees
369
what colours can the skid indicator be?
white at full deflection and then amber if bank angle greater than 35 degrees.
