Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Comparative Vertebrate Histology > Connective Tissues > Flashcards

Connective Tissues Flashcards

1
Q

What is the connective tissue of the brain? where does it arise from?

A

Neuroglia, arises from mainly the ectoderm, one type rises from the mesoderm.
Astroglia, oligodendroglia & peripheral glial cells rise from the ectoderm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What primordial germ layer does connective tissue primarily rise from?

A

The Mesoderm. (only gives rise to the microglia of the neuroglia.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 3 components of connective tissue?

A
  • Ground Substance
  • Fibers
  • Cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the extracellular components of the connective tissue called?
What are it’s two components?

A

The matrix
Fibers and Ground Substance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 3 physiological functions of the connective tissue ground substance?

A
  • To act as a “sieve” and facilitates diffusion between the blood and tissues.
  • A physical barrier to prevent spread of large molecules such as pathogens.
  • Acts as support and binds connective tissue cells and fibers.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What cells produce the viscous amorphous gel called the ground substance of connective tissue?

A

Fibroblasts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where are fibroblasts derived from?

A

Embryonic Mesenchyme. (as most connective tissue cells are.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The ground substance of connective tissue contains chains of glycosaminoglycans, proteoglycans and adhesive glycoprotein. What is the most abundant glycosaminoglycan in connective tissue?

A

Hyaluronic acid, also the largest type.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do proteoglycans consist of?

A

90% carbohydrates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are 3 components of Ground substance in connective tissue?

A
  • Water
  • Salts- CaPO4 (calcium phosphate.)
  • Glycosaminoglycans.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does GAG stand for in relation to connective tissue?

A

Glycosaminoglycans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What creates large hydrated spaces within the extracellular matrix of connective tissue?

A

Hyaluronan. (a glycosaminoglycan which has a unique capacity to bind and retain water.)
a matrix rich in HA is suitable for cell proliferation and migration- may also aid in preventing precocious differentiation ie. cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Class of GAG (glycosaminoglycans) which consist of a sulfated-glycosaminoglycan bound to a core protein:

A

Sulfated Proteoglycans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the four major classes of Sulfated proteoglycans?

A
  • Chondroitin Sulfate.
  • Dermatin Sulfate.
  • Keratin Sulfate.
  • Heparin Sulfate.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 4 functions of GAG’s (glycosaminoglycans.)

A
  • Contribute to viscosity of the Ground substance.
  • Provide support for the connective tissue.
  • Act as a medium for diffusion of nutrients and gases.
  • exert direct influence on surrounding cells, specific interactions between GAG’s and cell receptors may regulate cell functions- (important for development.)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does precocious refer to in biology?

A

To gaining new abilities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What binds connective tissue cells to the surrounding collagen fibers of the matrix?

A

Structural proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are four structural proteins found in extracellular matrix of connective tissue?

A
  • Fibronectin
  • Laminin
  • Chondronectin
  • Osteonectin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Structural protein that is a ligand and promotes the attachment of cells to collagen fibers
Also plays a role in cell migration, differentiation, phagocytosis, chemotaxis and cytoskeletal organization of cells which can change their shape/ function.

A

Fibronectin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Structural protein associated with the basement membrane. Attaches epithelial cells to type IV collagen of the basement membrane.

A

Laminin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Structural protein which promotes attachment of cartilage cells to collagen.

A

Chondronectin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Structural protein which promotes attachment of bone cells to collagen.

A

Osteonectin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the integumentary system?

A

Skin etc..

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the three types of fibers found in connective tissue?

A

Collagen, Reticular, and Elastic fibers.
Density, Proportion, Arrangement, and occurrence will vary between connective tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Most abundant fiber found in all connective tissues, strongest, not very elastic.

A

Collagen fibers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the organization of a collagen fiber?

A

Polpyeptide chains (tropocollagen)–> Collagen molecule —> Microfibril —> Fibril –> Collagen. bundle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What three cells produce tropocollagen?

A
  • Primarily fibroblasts
  • Chondroblasts (cartilage)
  • Osteoblasts (bone)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How many types of collagen are there?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the most abundant collagen type?

A

Type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What collagen is found in cartilage and certain eye tissues?

A

Type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What type of cartilage is in the GI tract, Skin, Uterus, and Cardiovascular system.

A

Type 3
Often found associated with reticular fibers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which collagen is found in the basement membrane?

A

IV (4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which collagen is found in fetal tissues, although vestigial amounts may be present in the adult.

A

Type V (5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Collagen fibers which are arranged into delicate networks?

A

Reticular fibers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where are two places that reticular fibers are commonly found?

A

In lymphoid organs and reticular layer of the basement membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are elastin fibers composed of?

A

Elastin. (stretchy/ not as strong as collagen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the cells associated with maintaining the connective tissues?

A

Permanent cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the four permanent cells of the connective tissues?

A

Fibrocytes, fibroblasts, adipocytes, and mesenchymal cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Immature fibrocyte?

A

Fibroblast- produce all three fiber types and ground substance. Widely distributed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Permanent connective tissue cells which maintain their multipolarity and can develop into other connective tissue cell types during gestation.

A

Mesenchymal cells.
They can develop into adipocytes, mast cells, smooth muscle etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What kind of connective tissue is adipose?

A

Loose connective tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is lipid deposition and mobilization controlled by?

A

Neuroedocrine secretions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How is the appearance of white fat described?

A

Unilocular.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How is the appearance of brown fat described?

A

Multilocular.
Brown fat is usually found embryonic/ neonate mammals or mammals which hibernate. It is thermogenic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is hyperplastic and hypertrophic growth of adipocytes?

A

Hyperplastic- Increase in #
Hypertrophic- Increase in size- Usually what affects the weight of adults..

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the 5 chemicals produced by mast cells?

A
  • Heparin (anticoagulant)
  • Prostaglandins (increase edema)
  • Eosinophil Chemotaxic Factor (attracts eosinophils)
  • Histamine (increases vascular permeability.)
  • Other enzymes which degrade various connective tissue components.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are 2 locations where lymphocytes are more prominent within connective tissue?

A

The loose connective tissue of the respiratory tract and alimentary canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is lamina propria where is it found?

A

A specialized layer of loose areolar connective tissue which connects the apical cells to the smooth muscle below. This is commonly found lining tracts such as respiratory, alimentary canal and urogenital system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are 4 transient cells within connective tissues?

A
  • Mast Cells
  • Lymphocytes
  • Plasma Cells
  • Macrophages
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The lamina propria is a layer of areolar connective tissue which lies below the epithelium in various tracts, What are lymphocytes capable of to aid in protection from the external environment (pathogenic invasion)?

A

Lymphocytes are able to penetrate the epithelium to carry out their immunological functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is an activated B-cell Lymphocyte?

A

Plasma cell, they can be differentiated by their “pinwheel” shaped nucleus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are plasma cells, what do they secrete?

A

Activated B-lymphoctyes, they secrete antibodies.
Plasma cells are widely dispersed throughout the connective tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are three places plasma cells (activated B-lymphocytes) commonly reside in?

A

Within the lamina propria of the respiratory and digestive tract, they are also common in lymphoid organs.
IT IS RARE TO SEE PLASMA CELLS IN THE BLD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Where are macrophages derived from?

A

The monocyte class of leukocyte which have migrated into the connective tissue from circulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Long lived, highly mobile phagocytic cells found throughout the connective tissues.

A

Macrophages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How do macrophages move?

A

Via diapedesis using pseudopodia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What do mast cells and macrophages have in common?

A

Cytoplasmic granules.
Only macrophages have pseudopodia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are substances produced by macrophages?

A

Digestive enzymes such as lysosomes, immunoregulatory substances: interferon, lysozome, prostaglandins, peroxide and other growth factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is a subclass of macrophages?

A

Dendritic cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Where do dendritic cells originate from?

A

Monocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What do dendritic cells function to do?

A

They present the antigen markers of pathogens to lymph nodes to mobilize humoral immunity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What type of connective tissue has mostly a fluid ground substance and fills the space between developing organs?

A

Mesenchymal tissue.
Mesenchymal cells are stellate shaped.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Connective tissue derived from mesenchyme contains collagen fibers and a viscous ground substance- typified by whartons jelly:

A

Mucus tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What connective tissues have a high cell content and low fiber content?

A

The loose connective tissues:
- Areolar
- Adipose
- Reticular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Most common type of loose connective tissue, and supports the epithelium.

A

Areolar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What connective tissue makes up some of the superficial fascia and dermis?

A

The areolar tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the stroma?

A

Connective tissue which supports the function of the parenchyma (functional tissue of an organ.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What tissue commonly composes the stroma of various organs?

A

Areolar connective tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the 3 functions of areolar connective tissue?

A
  • Barrier to infection (partly)
  • Cushions the body (partly)
  • Allows for passage of nerves, blood and lymph vessels.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the precursor to tropocollagen?

A

Procollagen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is something areolar connective tissue will do acting as the stroma in certain organs?

A

It will form septa and divide the structure into lobes/ lobules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Name three places adipose connective tissue is found?

A
  • Hypodermis.
  • Surrounding and protecting certain organs.
  • Medullary cavity of long bones.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are three functions of adipose connective tissue?

A
  • Stores energy.
  • Body insulation.
  • Cushions body and organs.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the thermogenic tissue only found in placental mammals?

A

Brown Adipose tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Connective tissue with a delicate modified form of collagen that acts as a supportive framework

A

Reticular connective tissue
abundant in reticular fibers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which connective tissue is most abundant in areas that need to be able to stretch?
What four locations when this tissue is likely to be found?

A

Elastic connective tissues- made of elastic fibers.
Found in: Trachea, Elastic Arteries, Skin and the Uterus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are the 4 permanent cells of the connective tissue?

A
  • Fibroblasts.
  • Fibrocytes.
  • Mesenchymal Cells.
  • Adipocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Cells involved with the maintenance of connective tissues?

A

Permanent connective tissue cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Cells involved in short term response event within the connective tissues?

A

Transient connective tissue cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Permanent connective tissue cell responsible which can produce all three types of fibers and ground substance?

A

Fibroblast.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Permanent connective tissue cell which can aid in repair of the tissue?

A

Fibrocyte- Mature Fibroblast.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Group of connective tissue which have a low cell content and higher fiber content?

A

Dense connective tissues:
- Dense regular
- Dense irregular
- Elastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Type of connective tissue that has a random weave of fibers (mostly collagen), and low cell content.

A

Dense irregular connective tissue.
Fibroblasts and fibrocytes most common within.
Found in the sheaths of tendons, nerves, and capsules of organs and the dermis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Where are 4 places most likely to find Dense Irregular Connective Tissue?

A
  • Sheaths of Tendons.
  • Sheaths of Nerves.
  • Capsules of Organs.
  • Dermis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Two most common cell types within the Dense Irregular Connective Tissue?

A

Fibroblasts and Fibrocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the purpose of the Dense Irregular Connective Tissue(2)?

A

To withstand stress from multiple directions and act as a protective barrier.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Connective tissue which has a repeating pattern of fibers and very few cells.

A

Dense Regular Connective Tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the most common fiber and cell types within Dense Regular Connective Tissue.

A
  • Collagen Fibers
  • Fibroblasts and Fibrocytes.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What two places is dense regular connective tissue most likely to be found?
Why?

A

In Tendons and Ligaments.
This is because this tissue has a great resistance to mechanical forces, but only unidirectionally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Dense connective tissue where the dominant fiber is the elastic fiber?

A

Elastic Connective Tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are two places where elastic fibers are found?

A

Elastic cartilage and elastic veins which have elastic connective tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are the four mineralized connective tissues?

A
  • Bone
  • Cartilage
  • Dentin
  • Enamel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the precursor cell between a mesenchymal cell and one of the specialized connective tissue cells (Chondroblast, Osteoblast, Odontoblast, Ameloblast.)

A

A Scleroblast cell. Derived from the mesenchyme and can become any four specialized connective tissue cell types.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What are the four specialized connective tissue cells that scleroblasts can differentiate directly to?

A
  • Odontoblast (Dentin)
  • Ameloblast (Enamel)
  • Chondroblast (Cartilage)
  • Osteoblast (Bone)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What specialized connective tissue is not mineralized?

A

Blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Specialized type of connective tissue which is highly resilient and can provide strength/ support in body area which require some flexibility?

A

Cartilage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What are the two type of cartilage cells?

A

Chondroblasts and Chondrocytes these produce the ground substance and fibers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Which tissue has an amorphous matrix that is “gel-like”?
What is it function?

A

Cartilage.
It provides weight bearing, resiliency, and high tensile strength.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Process of the mesenchyme differentiating into cartilage?

A

Chondrogenesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the space in which the cells of mineralized connective tissues lie in?

A

Lacuna/ Lacunae (plural)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What two organelles are extensive and well developed within chondroblasts?
Why?

A

The RER and golgi apparatus.
This is because these cells are responsible for producing fibers and ground substance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What are the two two of cartilage growth? Describe them and what they result in.

A

Appositional growth: Cells in the perichondrium become chondroblasts., which will secrete matrix material.

Interstitial- This is when a chondrocyte will undergo mitosis and produce a daughter chondrocyte that will produce matrix material. These cells will remain near each other forming isogenic groups/ clusters of twin cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Membranous structure forming the outer layer of a cartilage organ?
What are it’s two layers?

A

Perichondrium
- Outer layer of fibrous dense irregular c.t.
- Inner layer is a single layer of cells called scleroblasts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What are the 2 main components of the matrix in cartilage?
What are the 2 most abundant chemicals of one of the components?

A

High component of fibers and proteoglycans (a type of GAG- Glycosaminoglycan.)
Chondroitin sulfate is the most abundant proteoglycan, 2nd is keratin sulfate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What are the two regions of matrix?

A

Territorial Matrix: Extremely basophilic region surrounding the chondrocytes.

Interterritorial Matrix: Weakly basophilic region in between the territorial matrices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Most abundant cartilage, forms bulk of embryonic skeleton in non-chondrichthyan gnathostomata (non-cartilaginous ie. bony fish.)

A

Hyaline cartilage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What connective tissue makes up majority of the skeletal components of chondrichthyes and agnathans (Cartilaginous fish)?

A

Hyaline cartilage.

108
Q

Where are 6 places hyaline cartilage is found in non-chondrichthyan gnathostomata?

A
  • Larynx
  • Nasal Septum
  • Trachea
  • Bronchi
  • Articular surfaces of joints
  • Costal Cartilage.
109
Q

What cartilage provides flexible and weight bearing surfaces and is a pathway to for bone length growth?

A

Hyaline cartilage.

110
Q

What kind of collagen fibrils are within hyaline cartilage?

A

Type 2- which does not form bundles- this is why it is not seen.

111
Q

What occurs to Hyaline cartilage as the organism ages?

A

The tissue becomes infiltrated by calcium, reducing it’s ability for interstitial growth and increasing it’s rigidity.
At some point only appositional growth is possible.

112
Q

Where are elastic chondrocytes derived from?

A

Fibroblasts.
Although elastic cartilage is considered a modified hyaline cartilage it’s chondrocytes are not derived directly from the mesenchyme like with hyaline cartilage.

113
Q

Name 6 places elastic cartilage is found?

A
  • External ear.
  • Auditory Tubes.
  • Eustachian Tubes.
  • Epiglottis.
  • Corniculate Cartilages.
  • Cuneiform Cartilages.
    (Last two are located in the larynx.)
114
Q

Which cartilage provides extremely flexible support?

A

Elastic Cartilage.

115
Q

Describe the ground substance of elastic cartilage?

A

The ground substance is parse and heavily infiltrated with elastic fibers in random arrangement.

116
Q

Combination of Hyaline Cartilage and Dense Regular Connective Tissue

A

Fibrocartilage.

117
Q

Where do the chondrocytes of fibrocartilage arise from?

A

Fibroblasts.

118
Q

What is the organization of Hyaline Cartilage and Dense Regular Connective tissue forming Fibrocartilage?

A

Dense collagen fibers arranged into parallel bundles.
Chondrocytes in rows between the bundles.

119
Q

What is the support fibrocartilage provides?

A

It combine the stress bearing properties of Hyaline and Dense Regular C.t. For a firm, not rigid, support.

120
Q

Where is fibrocartilage commonly found?

A

Intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis, certain tendinous insertions.

121
Q

What Cartilage is able to help heal all cartilages?

A

Fibrocartilage, however this ability reduces with age.

122
Q

What is the densest and least resilient cartilage type?
Where is it found?

A

Calcified/ Mineralized/ Tessellated Cartilage.
It is found in the jaws of Chondrichthyes (Cartilagenous fish)(especially Sharks and Rays).

123
Q

What occurs to form Calcified Cartilage?

A

it is a modified Hyaline or Fibrocartilage which becomes perfused with calcium salts, a step in endochondral ossification but it paused before it is too calcified too have diffusion across the matrix

124
Q

What are the two morphologies of bone tissue?

A

Spongy (Medullary) and Compact (Cortical) bone.

125
Q

What are the intercommunicating projection within spongy bone called?

A

Trabeculae.

126
Q

Where is bone marrow? What are the types?

A

Bone marrow resides within the intertrabecular spaces and medullary cavity.
There is Red (RBC’s) and Yellow (Adipose) bone marrow.

127
Q

What is Medullary and Cancellous bone located within a long bone organ?

A

Cancellous bone (Containing Trabeculae) is within the epiphysis and the medullary canal is within the diaphysis. Both contain bone marrow.

128
Q

Layer of specialized connective tissue which lines the external aspect of a bone organ (covering the Cortical bone.).

A

Periosteum.

129
Q

What are the two layers of the periosteum?

A

Outer layer is fibrous.
Inner layer is cellular and contains scleroblasts. It allows for remodeling and repair of bone.

130
Q

What do tendons and ligaments attach to?

A

The periosteum

131
Q

how does the periosteum attach to the cortical/ compact bone?

A

Through perforating/ sharpey’s fibers. These are dense collagen bundles connecting the periosteum into the mineralized bone matrix at the outer circumferential lamellae.

132
Q

Layer of flattened cells with osteogenic potential lining the inner aspect of bone such as the medullary cavity, or intertrabecular spaces?

A

Endosteum.

133
Q

What does the vascular supply to bone penetrate through and what is this called?

A

The vascular supply to bone penetrates through the diaphysis by way of the nutrient foramen/ canal and are often accompanied by nerves.

134
Q

What is the system within bone that allows nutrients to get to it’s cells?

A

Haversian systems/ haversian canal in the center.

135
Q

Enclosed in fluid filled joints the articular surfaces of bone are covered by what connective tissue? what is it called specifically in this situation?

A

Hyaline Cartilage, called articular cartilage.

136
Q

What is the most organized special connective tissue?

A

Bone.

137
Q

What does bone store?

A

Bone is a reservoir for minerals, especially Calcium and Phosphate.

138
Q

What is the mineral component of bone called?

A

Hydroxyapatite (65% of bone matrix.)

139
Q

What are the four most abundant bone minerals?
List three more not as abundant.

A
  • Phosphate
  • Calcium
  • Carbonate
  • ## Citrate
  • Fluorine
  • Magnesium
  • Sodium
140
Q

What is the principle bone mineral?

A

Calcium Phosphate.

141
Q

What is the hydrated organic bone matrix termed?
What is it primarily composed of?

A

The Osteoid
95% Collagen
-The other 5% is amorphous ground substance: Proteoglycans such as Chondroitin-4-sulfate & Keratin Sulfate.

142
Q

Where are osteogenic cells located in the adult organism?

A

in the cellular (inner) component of the periosteum and endosteum.
(osteoblasts)

143
Q

Immature bone cells derived from scleroblasts?
What do they mature into?

A

Osteoblasts mature into Osteocytes.

144
Q

Where are osteoblasts derived from?

A

Scleroblasts.

145
Q

What do Osteoblasts secrete?

A

The osteoid: The hydrated organic bone matrix.

146
Q

What do Osteoblasts indirectly participate in?

A

Calcification of the matrix.

147
Q

What two organelles are prominent in osteoblasts?
Why?

A

RER, Golgi Apparatus and secretory vesicles.
This is because they are secretory cells.

148
Q

What is a special group of secretory vesicles in osteoblasts?
What does it contain and aid in?

A

Matrix Vesicle contain Alkaline Phosphatase and aid in calcification of the matrix.

149
Q

How do osteocytes within lacunae in the compact bone communicate/ receive products from each other?

A

Since compact bone is impermeable, each lacuna has radiating canals called canaliculi connecting each osteocyte. These also eventually open near a blood supply for nutrients.

150
Q

Where are osteoclasts derived from? what do they do?

A

Derived from combined monocytes- leaves many nuclei.
Osteoclasts breakdown bone by resorption- this is called osteoclastic resorption.

151
Q

What is the space where the osteoclast is resorbing bone called?

A

Resorption bay/ Howship’s lacuna.

152
Q

How is the cytoplasm of an osteoclast that is located against the surface of bone organized?

A

The cell has a Ruffled Border and contains catabolic substances, the areas without this ruffling are called the “Clear Zones”

153
Q

What are the 2 activities of Osteoclasts?

A
  • Osteoclastic Resorption.
  • Release Ca from Matrix.
154
Q

What are the 2 modes of Bone Resorption?

A
  • Osteoclastic resorption
  • Osteocytic Osteolysis
155
Q

Left details from 21 special connective tissues onward.

A
156
Q

What are the 2 hormones associated with controlling the release of calcium from bone?

A
  • Calcitonin- decreases (Reduces the size of the ruffled border and clear zone.)
  • Parathyroid hormone- increases. (Increases the size of the ruffled border and clear zone.)
157
Q

What are the microscopic layers of trabeculae called?

A

Lamellae.

158
Q

What is the arrangement of Collagen in spongy bone?

A

Collagen bundles form parallel lamellae which are perpendicular to neighboring lamellae. This arrangement increases the strength of bone.

159
Q

What are the 3 types of lamellar organizations?

A
  • Haversian Lamellae
  • Interstitial Lamellae
  • Circumferential Lamellae
160
Q

Canals within compact bone containing blood vessels and nerves travelling perpendicular to haversian canals?
What is the lining tissue?

A
  • Volksmann’s canals.
  • Endosteum.
161
Q

What are the 2 stages of Osteoclasia/ Osteoclastic Resorption?
What carries out this resorption?

A

Demineralization of Bone: Secretions which increase the solubility of bone mineral salts across the ruffled border.
Degradation of Collagen: newly exposed collagen is now degraded by acid hydrolases released from vesicles.
This is all carried out by Osteoclasts within Howship’s Lacunae.

162
Q

Process of bone resorption which is carried out by osteocytes within deep heavily mineralized bone to release calcium?

A

Osteocytic Osteolysis.

163
Q

Two differences between Osteoclasia/ Osteoclastic Resorption and Osteocytic Osteolysis?

A
  • Osteoclasia is carried out by osteoclasts.// Osteocytic Osteolysis is carried out by resorptive osteocytes.
  • Osteoclasia releases Calcium from superficial bone.// Osteocytic Osteolysis releases calcium from deep heavily mineralized bone.
164
Q

Which is more complex: Cancellous Bone or Cortical Bone?
Why?

A

Cortical (compact) Bone is more complex, this is due to the difficulty of getting nutrients to osteocytes within such a dense extracellular matrix.
Cancellous = Spongy Bone

165
Q

Lamellae arranged concentrically around a canal?
Canal Name?
Lining of the Canal?

A

Osteon
Haversian Canal
Endosteum.

166
Q

Osteon AKA?

A

Haversian system

167
Q

What connects Osteocytes to each other and to the haversian canal?

A

Canaliculi.

168
Q

What do both Haversian and Volkmann’s canals Carry?

A

They both carry Blood Vessels and Nerves.

169
Q

Boundary between interstitial and haversian lamallae?

A

Cement Lines.

170
Q

Classification of Lamellae that does not have a canal and is a remnant of older partially resorbed osteons?

A

Interstitial Lamellae.

171
Q

Circumferential Lamellae forming the external and internal lamination of cortical bone?

A

Circumferential Lamellae.
They are respectively immediately below the periosteum and the endosteum from the outside to inside.

172
Q

Acellular Bone AKA?

A

Aspidin Bone.

173
Q

How does Aspidin bone develop compared with Compact or Spongy Bone?

A

Spongy and Cortical done both have osteoblasts which secrete bone matrix and become stuck within lacunae and mature into osteocytes.
In Acellular bone the osteoblasts retreat as the secrete the matrix, leaving it acellular.

174
Q

Where are two places Aspidin bone is found?

A

The cementum of the tooth.
The bony component of elasmoid scales of teleosts.

175
Q

What is Cementum of the tooth?

A

The bottom outer layer of the tooth that serves to attach the rooting to surrounding tissue.

176
Q

What are elasmoid scales?

A

The most common type of fish scale and are found on teleosts (Ray Finned Fishes), they are partially mineralized scales, but still flexible allowing movement.

177
Q

Type of bone which responds to hormonal influences?

A

Metaplastic Bone.

178
Q

Where is metaplastic bone usually seen?
What is it usually driven by?

A

In the skull of certain avains and non-avian dinosaur species. Usually affected by sex hormones ie. testosterone.

179
Q

What is osteogenesis also called?

A

Ossification.

180
Q

What are the two types of osteogenesis/ ossification?

A
  • Intramembranous Ossification.
  • Endochondral Ossification.
181
Q

Where does Intramembranous Ossification usually occur?

A

In the membranous bones. Membranous bones defined as being made via Intramembranous ossification, these are usually flat shaped bones such as skull bones, mandible, clavicles, turtle shells, and fin rays (Lepidotrichia.) (not ribs.)

182
Q

Ossification process by which mesenchyme forms the model of a bone organ, Mesenchymal cells produce scleroblasts, which produce osteoblasts which begin osteogenesis.

A

Intramembranous Ossification.

183
Q

Ossification process by which Hyaline cartilage forms the model of a bone organ, the cartilage is then degraded and replaced by bone tissue.

A

Endochondral ossification.

184
Q

Where does endochondral ossification usually occur?

A

Within majority appendicular and axial skeleton.

185
Q

Is Dentin acellular?

A

No, this is because it’s odontoblasts reside just within the visceral side of the tissue.

186
Q

What is dentin produced by?

A

Odontoblasts.

187
Q

What two tissues are produced by odontoblasts.

A

Dentin and Enameloid.
Enameloid is a modified dentin.

188
Q

What are the “canaliculi-like” structures within Dentin?
What causes them?

A

Dentin Tubules.
They are caused by odontoblasts as they retreat through the dentin have cytoplasmic processes within them.

189
Q

Where is Dentin found?
What is dentin frequently found with?

A

Only in the Dermis.
Found in teeth and scales.
Frequently coated by enamel or enameloid (modified dentin).

190
Q

What is the difference between enamel and enameloid?

A

Enamel is produced by ameloblasts.
Enameloid is not enamel, as it is produced by odontoblasts, not ameloblasts.

191
Q

What is the densest the tissue in ion vertebrates?

A

Enamel.

192
Q

What gives rise to Enamel?

A

Ameloblasts.

193
Q

What gives rise to ameloblasts?

A

Scleroblasts.

194
Q

What germ layer gives rise to Ameloblasts/ Enamel?

A

The ectoderm.

195
Q

What gem layer gives rise to the dentin, enamel and enameloid?

A

Enamel- Ectodermal.
Dentin- Mesodermal
Enameloid- Debated to have components from both, but likely mesodermal.

196
Q

What layer of “skin” is the dentin, enamel and enameloid?

A

Enamel- Epidermis.
Enameloid- Dermis.
Dentin- Dermis.

197
Q

Connective tissue full of free cells within a tissue matrix?

A

Blood.

198
Q

What is something blood generally lacks except during clotting?

A

Fibers.

199
Q

What are the two components of blood?

A

Fluid- Plasma.
Cellular- Formed elements.

200
Q

What are the three main components of plasma?

A
  • Water.
  • Inorganic Salts.
  • Plasma Proteins.
201
Q

What are the 3 Plasma Proteins?

A
  • Albumin.
  • Fibrinogen.
  • Globulins.
202
Q

What are the two Globulins common in the plasma?
What are their functions in the plasma?

A
  • Gamma Globulins: Contains antibodies.
  • Beta Globulins: Used in transport of hormones, lipids, and metal ions.
203
Q

What are the two microscopic particles contained within plasma?

A

Chylomicra- Fatty Bodies- Increases after a fatty meal.
Hemoconia- Poss. Fragments of cells.

204
Q

What are the three classes of formed elements within blood?

A
  • Erythrocytes- RBC.
  • Leukocytes- WBC.
  • Thrombocytes- Platelets.
205
Q

Process by which the formed elements arise?

A

Hemopoiesis.

206
Q

Hemopoietic Tissue AKA?

A

Myeloid Tissue.

207
Q

What are the four hemopoietic organs in the vertebrate embryo?
What about the adult?

A
  • Spleen.
  • Liver.
  • Bone Marrow.
  • Yolk Sac.
    (Adults become primarily restricted to the Red Marrow.)
208
Q

What cell do the formed elements arise from?

A

The Hemocytoblast.

209
Q

Where is the Hemocytoblast derived from?

A

The mesenchymal Cells.

210
Q

What are the 5 stem cells a hemocytoblast will differentiate into that will then continue to differentiate into the formed elements?

A
  • Proerythroblast.
  • -
211
Q

What is the most numerous formed element?
What is special about it?

A

Erythrocytes.
One of the few cells that have color without staining. -Red.

212
Q

What group of vertebrates have anucleated erythrocytes?

A

Only Mammals.

213
Q

Largest to smallest red blood cells of 5 vertebrate classes?

A

Largest
- Amphibian (salamanders.)
- Reptile
- Fish
- Avian
- Mammal- Anucleated.
Smallest.

214
Q

Why do mature erythrocytes usually lack most organelles?

A

In order to carry more oxygen on their heme group.

215
Q

What is the iron containing globular polypeptide chain within an erythrocyte?

A

Heme group
The iron and oxygen give blood its “Rusty” color.

216
Q

Which protein forms the subplasmalemmal framework of microfilaments which provides flexibility, allowing erythrocytes to travel through the capillaries?

A

Spectrin?

217
Q

How are erythrocytes able to travel through very small capillaries?

A

Due to a subplasmalemmal network of microfilaments made of the protein Spectrin.

218
Q

What is the process of producing erythrocytes called?
Where does this occur in the mature vertebrate?

A

Erythropoiesis.
Occurs in the red marrow of mature vertebrates.

219
Q

What hormone stimulates erythropoiesis?

A

Erythropoietin.
-Produced in the kidneys in response to a decrease in erythrocyte numbers.

220
Q

What is the chain of differentiation of erythroblasts in erythropoiesis?

A
  1. Mesenchyme.
  2. Hemocytoblast.
  3. Proerythroblast.
  4. Basophilic Erythroblast.
  5. Polychromatophilic-Erythroblast.
  6. Normoblast.
  7. Reticulocyte.
  8. Erythrocyte (Complete.)
221
Q

What do Proerythroblasts differentiate into?
Process?

A

Basophilic Erythroblasts.
The cell gets a smaller nucleus and develops more ribosomes, this is what causes the basophilic staining.

222
Q

What do Basophilic Erythroblasts Develop into?
Process?

A

Polychromatophilic Erythroblasts.
The basophilic staining ribosomes synthesize hemoglobin which is eosinophilic. So the cell will begin staining both eosinophilic and basophilic.
The nucleus is further reduced and non-functional.

223
Q

What do Polychromatophilic Erythroblasts Develop into?
Process?

A

Normoblasts
The Nucleus continues to be reduced and the chromatin becomes “clumped”.

224
Q

What do Normoblasts develop into?
Process?

A

Reticulocyte.
Once the normoblasts extrudes its nucleus.
The cell is still polychromatic and may also be called a polychromatophilic erythrocytes.

225
Q

What do Reticulocytes develop into?
Process?

A

They become mature erythrocytes.
Membrane remodeling and loss of organelles, eventually will no longer stain with H & E and will appear red only due to the iron content.
1-2% of RBC’s in circulation are reticulocytes.

226
Q

Mature Erythrocyte cycle?

A

Once they reach senescence (~120 days) after running out of ATP. The cell becomes fragile and is phagocytized by the liver, spleen, and bone marrow.

227
Q

What happens to phagocytized erythrocytes?

A

They are degraded and the hemoglobin and is broken Down into bilirubin and iron is released.
-This iron will be complexed with protein for storage as hemosiderin or ferritin to recycle into hemopoiesis.

227
Q

What are the only complete cells of the formed elements in mammals?

A

Leukocytes.

228
Q

What are the two groups of leukocytes?

A

Granulocytes and Agranulocytes.

228
Q

What are the two features of Granulocytes, what three leukocytes are in this group?

A
  • Visual Cytoplasmic Granules.
  • Lobed Nucleus.
    Includes:
    Basophils.
    Eosinophils.
    Neutrophils.
228
Q

What are the two features of Agranulocytes, what two leukocytes are in this group?

A
  • Lacking Visual Cytoplasmic Granules.
  • Spherical Nucleus.
    Includes:
    Lymphocytes
    Monocytes.
228
Q

Production of Leukocytes from the red bone marrow.

A

Myelopoiesis.

229
Q

What are the three differentiations a hemocytoblast can become that become leukocytes?

A
  • Myeloblast.
  • Monoblast.
  • Lymphoblast.
230
Q

What does a Myeloblast develop into?

A

Any of the three granulocytes:
- Basophils.
- Eosinophils.
- Neutrophils.

231
Q

What does a Monoblast develop into?

A

Monocyte.

232
Q

What does a Lymphoblast develop into?

A

Lymphocyte.

233
Q

Where do granulocytes mature?

A

In the red bone marrow.

234
Q

What is the most abundant Leukocyte- Granulocyte?

A

Neutrophils

235
Q

Chemical substances which attract or repel cells?

A

Chemotactic Factors.

236
Q

Granulocyte which is attracted to chemotactic facets released by Inflammation and phagocytized bacteria, etc.

A

Neutrophil.

237
Q

Granulocyte with a highly lobed nucleus (3-5) and both small pink granules and larger blue/purple granules?

A

Neutrophil.

238
Q

Bilobed granulocyte with many pink/ orange/ red granules?

A

Eosinophil.
The granules will often obscure parts of the nucleus.

239
Q

What are the four components of the granules of eosinophils?

A
  • Arylsulphatase.
  • Histaminase metabolizes histamines.
  • Hydrocortisone- Hormone.
  • Major Basic Protein.
240
Q

What does MBP do when released by eosinophils?

A

Major Basic Protein is released onto the surfaces of parasites and promotes and antibody mediated immune response.

241
Q

Which granulocyte is rare in the blood stream, and more commonly found in the connective tissue of the digestive and respiratory tract?
What are their functions?

A

Eosinophils.
- They will phagocytize antigen antibody complexes (Think how they also contain MBP which marks parasites for immune response.)
- Chemotactically attracted to areas of allergic RXN, think inflammation.

242
Q

Bilobed “U-shaped” granulocyte with basophilically staining granules.

A

Basophils.
Granules contain substances which can promote inflammation and some glycosaminoglycans. (GAG’s)

243
Q

What are the 2 functions of basophils?

A
  • Increase Vascular permeability by secreting histamines and heparin.
  • Binds to immunoglobulin & antibody IgE which can activate the basophil.
244
Q

Where do granulocytes develop and mature?

A

They develop within the red bone marrow but may also mature elsewhere.

245
Q

Highly phagocytic cell which is a precursor to macrophages?

A

Monocyte.
Circulate 1-2 days then,
They may also go through mitosis before differentiating into a macrophage within the connective tissues.

246
Q

Which cells contain numerous small granules but they are not visible under the light microscope?
Which group is it in?

A

Monocytes and Lymphocytes.
Agranulocyte.

247
Q

Agranulocytes: which has a kidney shaped nucleus and which has a slightly indented nucleus?

A

Kidney shape: Monocyte.
Indented: Lymphocyte.

248
Q

What are the two types of lymphocytes?

A

B & T.

249
Q

Long living leukocytes which mature in the thymus

A

T-Lymphocytes.

250
Q

What are the two types of cells B & T lymphocytes can become?

A

Effector or Memory Cells.

251
Q

Leukocytes with varying longevity, undetermined where they mature.
In Aves they mature in the Bursa of Fabricius.

A

B-Lymphocytes.
“Bursa-equivalent.”

252
Q

What are effector B-Lymphocytes called?
Function?

A

Plasma cells- Activated B-Lymphocytes.
Secrete antibodies.

253
Q

How is a plasma cell made?

A

When a B-Lymphocyte is exposed to an antigen it will undergo mitosis and some of the cells will become effector B-cells/ AKA: Plasma Cells and secrete antibodies specific to that antigen.

254
Q

T-Lymphocytes can undergo mitosis and differentiate into what 3 cells?

A
  • Cytotoxic T-Cells.
  • Helper T-Cells.
  • Suppressor T-Cells.
255
Q

Function of Cytotoxic T-Cells?

A

Recognize cells with foreign antigens on their cell membranes and lyse them.

256
Q

Function of Helper T-Cells?

A

Assist B&T Cells.
In response to antigens will secrete factors which stimulate B cells and other leukocytes to destroy the “invader.”.

257
Q

Function of Suppressor T-Cells?

A

Suppress the immune response.

258
Q

Function of memory Cells?

A

Has a “Memory” for previously encountered pathogens and alerts the immune system to initiate a swift response.

259
Q

What is the smallest formed element?

A

Thrombocyte/ Platelet.

260
Q

Where are thrombocytes derived from?

A

The are fragments of the Megakaryocyte- This is why they do not have any organelles. (endomitosis.)

261
Q

What are the two regions of thrombocytes?

A

Granulomere: Central Purple staining portion
Hyalomere: Peripheral pale blue/ purple staining portion.

262
Q

Where is 1/3 of the body’s thrombocytes stored?

A

Spleen- This can be part of a trauma response to help with bleeding.

263
Q

Where are platelets/ Thrombocytes derived from?

A

Megarkaryocytes Via Endocytosis.

Comparative Vertebrate Histology (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions