Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Histology Exam 2 > Connective Tissue > Flashcards

Connective Tissue Flashcards

0
Q

T or F: Leukocytes from the blood become active once in the CT

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What are the four functions of CT?

A

Structural support, medium for exchange, aid in defense and protection of the body, and site of fat storage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Embryonic CT is composed of what?

A

Mesenchyme (mostly fibroblasts, source of progenitor cells), mucous CT which sits below the surface of skin and helps in cell development. Wharton’s Jelly, a very watery fluid in the umbilical cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is CT mesenchyme?

A

Mostly fibroblasts and the source of CT progenitor cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the five types of CT proper?

A

Loose (areolar), Dense irregular, Dense regular, Reticular, and Adipose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is CT proper type defined?

A

The density of connective tissue fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are specialized CT?

A

Cartilage, bone, blood (hemopoietic and lymphatic tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where is dense irregular CT found?

A

Dermis of skin, sheaths of nerve, capsules of spleen, kidney, lymph nodes, testes, and ovaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where is dense regular CT found?

A

Tendons and ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where is loose irregular CT found?

A

Fills spaces just deep to skin, mesothelial lining of body cavity, blood vessels adventitia, surrounds parenchyma of glands, lamina propria of GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the two general components of CT organization?

A

ECM and cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What composes the ECM of CT?

A

Ground substance (no stain) and fibers (synthesized by fibroblasts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the two types of CT cells?

A

Fixed/Resident (fibroblasts and adipocytes) and Transient/wandering (Macrophages of plasma cells that come from elsewhere e.g. blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the three major components of the ground substance?

A

Glycosaminoglycans, Proteoglycans, Glycoproteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

T or F: The fibers in the ground substance are visible in LM

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are GAGs?

A

Polysaccharides of repeating disaccharide subunits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What type of GAGs are in the CT ground substance?

A

Sulfated…e.g. keratin, chondroitin, and dermatan sulfate and unsulfated…e.g. hyaluronic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the function of GAGs in the CT ground substance?

A

Attracts water and resists compression (attracts water via its negative charge by attracting sodium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the function of hyaluronic acid in the ground substance of CT?

A

Long chain, very large to make backbones for proteoglycan attachement, non-sulfated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are proteoglycans?

A

Protein core with covalently bound sulfated GAGs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the function of PG in the CT ground substance?

A

Important for binding and activation of growth factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What type of glycoproteins are in the ground substance of CT?

A

Fibronectin, laminin, and entactin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the function of glycoprotein in the ground substance of CT?

A

Contains domains for the components of ECM and integrins to bind, important for transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the three types of CT fibers?

A

Collagen, reticular, elastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T or F: Collagen fibers are visible in LM

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the characteristics/function of collagen fiber in CT?

A

Major fibrous protein of CT and is flexible with extremely high tensile strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the approximate size of collagen fibers?

A

Less than 10 microns in diameter with wavy structure that stains pink in H&E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe the structure of collagen fibers

A

Formed by an assembly of tropocollagen molecules. Each tropocollagen molecule is made up of a triple helix of 3 alpha-chains (alpha-chain subunits give the collagen its characteristics)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

T or F: Every third AA in tropocollagen is glycine

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the major AA of tropocollagen?

A

Proline, hydroxyproline, hydroxylysine, and glycine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What gives collagen its banding pattern?

A

Gap regions due to periodic gaps of the tropocollagen which lead to light (less dense) and dark bands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

General CT, tendon, bone, ligament, and capsules or organs is covered by what type of collagen?

A

Type I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Morphology of Type I collagen

A

Large banded collagen fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the function of Type I collagen?

A

Resists tension (very strong)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is Type II collagen?

A

Small banded collagen fiber that makes up hyaline and elastic cartilage and is in the vitreous of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the function of Type II collagen?

A

Resists pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is Type III collagen?

A

Small banded collagen fiber that makes up lymphoid tissue, bone marrow, spleen, liver, lung, cardiovascular system, and skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the function of Type III collagen?

A

Forms a structural framework

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is Type IV collagen?

A

Sheet-like layers that make up the basement membrane and basal lamina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the function of Type IV collagen?

A

Forms meshwork of lamina densa and provides support and filtration function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is Type V collagen?

A

Thin fibrils that make up the dermis, tendon, bone ligament, capsules of oran, and placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the function of Type V collagen?

A

Associates with Type I collagen, placental ground substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is Type VII collagen?

A

Thin fibrils that serve as the junction between the epidermis and dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the function of Type VII collagen?

A

Anchors fibrils in the basement membrane

44
Q

Where is collagen synthesized?

A

Fibroblast

45
Q

Follow the production of collagen

A

Transcription in nucleus, translation of preprocollagen in RER with the alpha chains having propeptides at amino and carboxy terminal ends, Hydroxylation in RER, Glycosylation in RER, Formation of procollagen triple helix in RER (spontaneous),
secretion of procollagen via trans Golgi network, Cleavage of propeptides by procollagen peptidase to form tropocollagen molecule. Spontaous self assembly of tropocollagen to form collagen fibril

46
Q

What prevents collagen from forming inside fibroblasts?

A

Propeptides on the preprocollagen

47
Q

Where are propeptides located on preprocollagen?

A

Carboxy and amino terminals

48
Q

Where is the procollagen triple helix formed?

A

RER

49
Q

What secretes procollagen?

A

Trans golgi network

50
Q

Where does cleavage of procollagen to tropocollagen take place?

A

ECM

51
Q

T or F: Collagen fibril assemble requires energy

A

F (spontaneous)

52
Q

T or F: Procollagen triple helix forms spontanously in the RER

A

T

53
Q

What color does collagen stain in an H&E?

A

Pink due to high affinity for eosin

54
Q

What type of CT is located at myotendinous junctions?

A

Dense regular CT

55
Q

What composes Reticular fibers?

A

Type III collagen

56
Q

What is the structure of reticular fiber?

A

Thin (0.5 micron to 2 micron), branched

57
Q

What stains reticular fibers?

A

H&E is poor, usually use silver and PAS stains

58
Q

Reticular fibers are often prevalent in what tissue?

A

Lymphatic, hematopoietic, spleen, liver, and other glands

59
Q

Elastic fibers in skin have what function?

A

Allow for resilience

60
Q

T or F: Elastic fibers stain in H&E

A

F, require their own stain

61
Q

Describe the structure of elastic fibers

A

Flexible elastin core with fibrillin skeleton. Elastin is deposited on the fibrillin core

62
Q

What are two locations elastin is often found?

A

Ligaments and walls of arteries

63
Q

What is scurvy?

A

Vitamin C deficiency leading to lack of proline hydroxylase leading to weak and unstable tropocollagen/collagen.

64
Q

What is Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?

A

Mutation in collagen gene or enzyme related to collagen metabolism (general disease type). The gut is often ruptured in this syndrome

65
Q

What is Marfan’s syndrome??

A

Defect in fibrillin gene which can lead to rupturing of the gut or issue with artery walls. Can get aortic rupture.

66
Q

Name five fixed resident cells in CT

A

Fibroblasts, pericytes, adipocyte, mast cell, histiocyte (macrophage)

67
Q

Name 4 transient cells in the CT

A

Macrophage, monocyte, lymphocyte, granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils)

68
Q

What is the principal cell of CT?

A

Fibroblasts

69
Q

What are the two subtypes of fibroblasts in the CT?

A

Myofibroblasts and pericytes

70
Q

What are myofibroblasts?

A

Resemble smooth muscle cells and play a role in wound closure and healing. Have very dense nuclei (not active)

71
Q

What are pericytes?

A

Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells associated with capillaries and small venules. Left over mesenchymal cells that can be stimulated to make new fibroblasts or adipocytes. These cells are transcriptionally active (can see some euchromatin)

72
Q

What are the two types of adipocytes?

A

Unilocular and Multilocular

73
Q

What are unilocular adipocytes?

A

Single lipid droplet. White/yellow fat. Serve to store lipids

74
Q

What are multilocular adipocytes?

A

Brown fat. Found in infants and newborns. Thermogenic. Multiple lipid droplets

75
Q

Unilocular adipocytes store lipids as…?

A

TAGs that are synthesized in the adipocyte or synthesized in the liver and imported as VLDL

76
Q

What happens in unilocular adipocytes upon mobilization of lipids by hormonal of neurogenic control?

A

TAGs broken down to FA and glycerol

77
Q

T or F: Adipocytes produce leptin

A

T

78
Q

What is leptin?

A

Produced by adipocytes to decrease food intake and increase metabolism

79
Q

What percentage of newborn body weight is multilocular adipocyte?

A

2-5%

80
Q

Why is multilocular adipocyte brown?

A

Due to high amoud of cytochrome present in mitochondria

81
Q

How is heat generated in multilocular adipocyte?

A

Mitochondria contain thermogenin which allows flow of H back into MM from IM without producing ATP

82
Q

T or F: Multilocular adipocytes are located in a rich capillary bed

A

T

83
Q

How is heat production controlled in multilocular adipocytes?

A

Sympathetic innervation

84
Q

What are the two types of obesity?

A

Hypertrophic (adult onset increase in cell size, liposuction!) and Hypercellular (childhood onset increase in cell number, harder to deal with because cells tend to retain ability to replicate)

85
Q

What are histiocytes/macrophages?

A

Principal phagocytic cells of CT

86
Q

Where do histiocytes come from?

A

Originate in bone marrow as monocytes. Part of the mononuclear phagocyte system (MPS)

87
Q

T or F: Histiocytes can fuse to form foreign body giant cells

A

T (often multinucleate)

88
Q

Where are histiocytes located?

A

CT

89
Q

Where are Kupffer cells located?

A

Liver

90
Q

Where are alveolar macrophages found?

A

Lung

91
Q

Where are macrophages found?

A

Bone marrow, lymph node, spleen, and thymus

92
Q

Where are pleural ad peritoneal macrophages found?

A

Serous cavities

93
Q

Where are osteoclasts found?

A

Bone

94
Q

Where are microglia found?

A

CNS

95
Q

Where are langerhan’s cells found

A

Epidermis

96
Q

T or F: Plasma cells are transient

A

T

97
Q

Where do plasma cells originate from?

A

B lymphocytes (become plasma cells upon interaction with antigen)

98
Q

What is characteristic of plasma cells?

A

Cartwheel nucleus and basophilic cytoplasm

99
Q

Where are plasma cells abundant? What is their function?

A

Sites of chronic inflammation and synthesize and secrete immunoglobulins.

100
Q

Why is the cytoplasm of the plasma cell basophilic?

A

Huge Golgi apparatus

101
Q

What are mast cells?

A

20-30 micron diameter cells that mediate inflammatory response

102
Q

Where do mast cells originate from?

A

Bone marrow

103
Q

What are the characteristics of mast cells?

A

Basophilic granules with primary mediators of inflammation (heparin, histamine, eosinophil, and neutrophil chemotactic factors).
Synthesize and secrete secondary mediators (leukotrienes, thromboxanes, and prostaglandins to cause contraction)

104
Q

What is a hypersensitivity reaction facilitated by mast cells?

A

Anaphylactic shock

105
Q

Generally describe mast cell activation

A

Binding of antigen, cAMP cascade leading to release of calcium to trigger release of primary mediators (histamine and heparin among others). Phospholipases are also activated to release secondary mediators like prostaglandins

106
Q

What is the function of neutrophils?

A

Phagocytic and digest bacteria

107
Q

What is the function of eosinophils?

A

Attack parasites

108
Q

What is the function of basophil?

A

Inflammatory response

Histology Exam 2 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions