Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

What must be excluded in a nasal trauma?

A
  • exclude septal haematoma
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2
Q

When should someone be reviewed in the ENT clinic post nasal fracture?

A
  • 5-7 days
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3
Q

Complications of a nasal fracture?

A
  • Epistaxis
  • CSF leak
  • Meningitis
  • Anosmia
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4
Q

Treatment of a severe epistaxis?

A
  • resusictate
  • lignocaine + adrenaline
  • remove clot
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5
Q

Systemic treatment for epistaxis?

A
  • tranexamic acid
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6
Q

Treatment of a pinna haematoma?

A
  • aspirate

- incision and drainage

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7
Q

Battle sign bruising may appear in what injury?

A
  • temporal bone fracture
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8
Q

What is the most common classification of temporal bone fractures?

A
  • longitudinal
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9
Q

What are causes of conductive hearing loss?

A
  • fluid
  • tympanic membrane perforation
  • ossicular problem
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10
Q

Treatment of a sudden sensorineural hearing loss?

A
  • steroids 1mg/kg
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11
Q

Zone 1 neck injury affects what area?

A
  • trachea
  • oesophagus
  • thyroid
  • thoracic duct
  • subclavian
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12
Q

What can cause a deep neck space infection?

A
  • extension of infection from tonsil or oropharynx into deeper tissue
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13
Q

Symptoms of a deep neck space infection?

A
  • sore throat
  • unwell
  • previous URTI
  • limited neck movement
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14
Q

Treatment of a deep neck space infection?

A
  • Fluids
  • IV antibiotics
  • incision and drainage
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15
Q

Complication of a deep neck space infection?

A
  • enters mediastinum
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16
Q

What sign will be seen on CT of sinuses during a facial trauma?

A
  • tear drop sign
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17
Q

What is the most common LeFort fracture?

A
  • Le Fort 1
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18
Q

What comprises Waldeyer’s ring?

A
  • palatine tonsils
  • adenoids
  • inguinal tonsils
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19
Q

Histology of tonsil tissue?

A
  • specialised squamous
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20
Q

Histology of adenoid tissue?

A
  • ciliated pseudostratified columnar stratified squamous

- deep folds

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21
Q

Viral causes of acute tonsillitis?

A
  • EBV
  • Rhinovirus
  • adenovirus
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22
Q

Bacterial causes of acute tonsillitis?

A
  • s.pyogenes

- h. influenza

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23
Q

Bacterial symptoms of acute tonsillitis?

A
  • systemic upset
  • fever
  • odynophagia
  • lasts 1 week
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24
Q

Viral symptoms of acute tonsillitis?

A
  • malaise
  • sore throat
  • 3-4days
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25
Q

High FEVERPAIN score treatment?

A
  • penicillin 500mg 4 times daily for 10 days
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26
Q

When is tonsillectomy recommended?

A
  • 7 or more infections a year
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27
Q

Peritonsillar abscess is also known as?

A
  • quinsy
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28
Q

What causes a peritonsilar abscess?

A
  • bacteria between muscle and tonsil and production of pus
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29
Q

Treatment of quinsy?

A
  • aspiration and antibiotics
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30
Q

Glandular fever is also known as?

A
  • infectious mononucleosis
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31
Q

What causes glandular fever?

A
  • ebstein-barr virus
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32
Q

Signs of glandular fever?

A
  • gross tonsillar enlargement

- cervical lymphadenopathy

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33
Q

Diagnosis of glandular fever?

A
  • EBV IgM

- Low CRP

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34
Q

Management of glandular fever?

A
  • antibitotics

- steroids

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35
Q

Signs of adenoid hyperplasia?

A
  • mouth breathing
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36
Q

What is otitis media with effusion also known as?

A
  • glue ear
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37
Q

What age group is most commonly affected by glue ear?

A
  • children
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38
Q

What is glue ear?

A
  • inflammation of the middle ear, fluid without the signs or symptoms of acute inflammation
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39
Q

Symptoms of glue ear?

A
  • deafness
  • speech delay
  • behavioural changes
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40
Q

What would a tympanometry graph look in glue ear?

A
  • flat

- bone conduction > air conduction

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41
Q

Treatment of glue ear?

A
  • wait 3 months
  • grommets
  • adenoidectomy
  • hearing aids
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42
Q

Glue ear is a __conductive/sensorineural__ hearing loss?

A
  • conductive
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43
Q

Types of hearing loss?

A
  • conductive
  • sensorineural
  • mixed
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44
Q

When would an adenoidectomy be considered in glue ear?

A
  • having had 2 or 3 grommets
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45
Q

On audiometry the circles are what ear?

A
  • right ear
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46
Q

On audiometer the crosses are what ear?

A
  • left war
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47
Q

Otitis externa can present with __conductive/sensorineural__ hearing loss?

A
  • conductive
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48
Q

Causes of otitis externa?

A
  • water
  • cotton buds
  • skin conditions
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49
Q

Acute otitis media can present with __conductive/sensorineural__ hearing loss?

A
  • conductive
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50
Q

Acute otitis media treatment?

A
  • wait 3 or 4 days

- fail to resolve –> amoxicillin

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51
Q

Causes of chronic otitis media?

A
  • cholesteatoma

- perforation

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52
Q

What is done prior to a grommet insertion?

A
  • myringotomy
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53
Q

Treatment of perforation of the tympanic membrane?

A
  • usually spontaneous recovery
54
Q

Describe cholesteatoma?

A
  • presence of keratin within the middle ear

- may erode surrounding bone

55
Q

Cholesteatoma can present with __conductive/sensorineural__ hearing loss?

A
  • conductive
56
Q

Symptoms of cholesteatoma?

A
  • conductive hearing loss

- discharge

57
Q

Treatment of cholesteatoma?

A
  • surgical excision
58
Q

If cholesteatoma spreads superiorly it may cause?-

A
  • brain abscess

- meningitis

59
Q

Describe otosclerosis?

A
  • genetic condition
  • conductive hearing loss
  • gradual fixation of the stapes foot plate
60
Q

When is otosclerosis most prevalent?

A
  • pregnancy

- HRT therapy

61
Q

Treatment of otosclerosis?

A
  • stapedectomy
62
Q

Presbycusis an present with __conductive/sensorineural__ hearing loss?

A
  • sensorineural
63
Q

In presbycusis what frequency of soun is lost?

A
  • high frequency
64
Q

In presbycusis there is not a difference between bone and air conduction?

65
Q

Vestibular schwannoma can present with __conductive/sensorineural__ hearing loss?

A
  • sensorineural hearing loss
66
Q

What is vestibular schwannoma?

A

-Benign tumour arising in internal auditory meatus

67
Q

Symptoms of vestibular schwannoma?

A

o Hearing loss (asymmetrical)
o Tinnitus
o Imbalance

68
Q

Diagnosis of vestibular schwannoma?

69
Q

Symptom of vertigo?

A

-Sensation of movement, usually spinning, failing, being pushed

70
Q

Verigo lasting seconds may indicate?

A

BPPV (Benign , paroxysmal positional vertigo)

71
Q

Vertigo lasting hours may suggest?

A
  • Meniere’s
72
Q

Vertigo lasting days may suggest?

A
  • vestibular neuritis
73
Q

Semi-circular canals sense?

A

-Rotational acceleration

74
Q

Saccule and utricle sense?

A
  • linear acceleration
75
Q

Head impulse test used to diagnose?

A
  • vestibulo-ocular reflex
76
Q

What causes bening paroxysmal positional vertigo?

A

-Otoconia from utricle are displaced into semicircular canals (typically the posterior)

77
Q

Otoconia tends to fall into what semi-circular canal?

78
Q

When is Benign positional paroxysmal vertigo present?

A
  • looking up

- rolling over in bed

79
Q

What diagnoses BPPV?

A
  • Dix Hallpike test
80
Q

Treatment of BPPV?

A
  • Epley manoeuvre
81
Q

What is the name of the at home exercises a patient with BPPV can do?

A
  • Brandt-daroff exercises
82
Q

Vestibular neuronitis/labyrinthitis is vertigo lasting___

83
Q

Treatment of vestibular neuronitis

A
  • Self-limiting
  • Vestibular sedatives
  • 3 days in bed, 3 weeks off work, off-balance for 3 months
84
Q

Describe Meniere’s disease

A
  • Endolymphatic hydrops
  • Recurrent, spontaneous rotational vertigo
  • 2 episodes >20mins
  • New tinnitus
  • Usually affects only one side
85
Q

Hearing loss in Meniere’s disease?

A
  • sensioneural

- affects low frequency hearing

86
Q

Treatment of Meniere’s disease?

A
  • Supportive during episodes
  • Tinnitus therapy
  • Hearing aids
  • Salt restriction/ caffeine/alcohol stress
87
Q

First line facial surgery healing technique?

A

-Healing by secondary intention

88
Q

Low frequency hearing loss, fullness and tinnitus?

A
  • Meniere’s disease
89
Q

Vestibular schwannoma affects what nerve sheath?

A
  • CN VIII

- Vestibulocochlear

90
Q

Treatment of migraines?

A
  • Lifestyle modification
  • Triptans
  • Propranolol or amitriptyline as prophylaxis
91
Q

What drugs can be used in the prevention of migranes?

A
  • propanolol or amitriptyling
92
Q

Explain a type I hypersensitivity reaction?

A
  • protein allergen in sensitied patient
  • IgE on mast cell
  • release of histamine and leukotrienes
93
Q

Treatment of a stuffy nose?

A
  • topical corticosteroids
  • anti–histamine
  • decongestant
  • anti-cholinergic
  • LTR blocker
94
Q

Name an anti-cholinergic drug and its affect on the nose?

A
  • ipratropium

- reduces nasal mucus

95
Q

Symptoms of a blocked nose?

A
  • blockages
  • loss of smell
  • discharge
  • facial pain
96
Q

What are the 2 broad causes of rhinitis?

A
  • infective

- non-infective

97
Q

What is the most common infective cause of rhinitis?

98
Q

Non-infective causes of rhinitis?

A
  • allergic

- non-allergic

99
Q

What are intermittent causes of allergic rhinitis?

A
  • grass pollen
  • tree pollen
  • fungal spores
100
Q

What defines persistent allergic rhinitis?

A
  • symptoms > 4 days per week
101
Q

Treatment of allergic rhinitis?

A
  • allergen avoidance
  • nasal steroids
  • antihistamines
  • immunotherapy
102
Q

What examinations may be conducted for allergic rhinitis?

A
  • IgE bloods

- skin prick test

103
Q

Treatment of nasal polyps?

A
  • oral then topic steroids

- surgery

104
Q

What is vasomotor rhinitis?

A
  • drippy nose
  • over 50s
  • parasympathetic overdrive
105
Q

Treatment of vasomotor rhinitis?

A
  • ipratropium
106
Q

Treatment of infective rhinitis?

A
  • analgesics

- persistance > 10days –> antibiotics

107
Q

Complications of sinusitis?

A
  • orbital cellulitis

- meningitis

108
Q

Complication of nasal trauma?

A
  • septal haematoma
109
Q

Causes of nasal blockage, non-infective?

A
  • adenoid hypertrophy
  • foreign body
  • tumour
110
Q

Causes of airway obstruction?

A
  • inflammation
  • foreign bodies
  • trauma
  • neoplastic
111
Q

Why are children more prone to airway obstruction?

A
  • large heads
  • small nares
  • neonates are nasal breathers
  • narrow subglottis
112
Q

Define stridor?

A
  • high pitch harsh inspiratory noise
113
Q

Define stertor?

A
  • low pitch

- snoring sound

114
Q

Causes of obstructive sleep apnoea in children?

A
  • adenoid hypertrophy

- enlarged tonsils

115
Q

Causes of epiglottitis?

A
  • Influenza bacteria
116
Q

Management of airway obstruction?

A
  • resuscitation
  • oxygen
  • heliox
  • steroid
  • adrenaline
117
Q

What is the most common cell type in head and neck cancer?

A
  • squamous cell carcinoma
118
Q

Most common site of head and neck cancer?

119
Q

Risk factors for head and neck cancer

A
  • tobacco
  • alcohol
  • viruses (HPV and EBV)
120
Q

Commonest head and neck cancer in south china?

A
  • nasopharyngeal

- link to EBV

121
Q

Symptoms of nasopharyngeal cancer due to EBV?

A
  • Hearing changes due to glue ear

- lump in neck

122
Q

Symptoms of head and neck cancer?

A
  • dysphonia
  • dysphagia
  • odynophagia
123
Q

Supra-glottic tumour may spread where?

A
  • superior deep cervical nodes
124
Q

Glottic tumours spread where?

A
  • 95% stay on vocal cords

- minimum lymphatic drainage

125
Q

Sub-glottic tumours spread where?

A
  • paratracheal nodes
126
Q

Diagnosis of head and neck tumours?

A
  • USS/ FNA
  • CT
  • MRI
  • PET
127
Q

Treatment of early laryngeal cancer?

A
  • transoral laser surgery

- radiotherapy

128
Q

Treatment of late and advanced laryngeal cancers?

A
  • partial or total laryngectomy

- chemo and radiotherapy

129
Q

Malignant salivary gland pathology is associated with what size of gland?

A
  • smaller glands = more chance of malignancy
130
Q

Most common arterial branch to bleed in epistaxis?

A
  • sphenopalatine

- branch of the external carotid