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Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

What age does stranger anxiety onset?

A

6 months

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2
Q

What age does separation anxiety affect?

A

10-18 months

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3
Q

What is anxiety?

A

greater severity/duration/frequency than is appropriate for the circumstances

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4
Q

What is a panic disorder?

A

feelings of intense fear/discomfort with quick heights

  • minimum of four symptoms
  • decreased GABA activity
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5
Q

Urbach Wiethe disease

A

bilateral calcifications of the amygdala

  • AR
  • doesn’t experience fear
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6
Q

What is a mental disorder

A

clinically significant disturbance in an individuals cognition, emotional regulation, or behavior

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7
Q

Illusion

A

misinterpretation of real external sensory stimuli

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8
Q

Hallucinations

A

false perception in absence of external stimuli

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9
Q

Delusion

A

fixed false belief

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10
Q

Paranoia

A

abnormal distrust of others

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11
Q

Psychosis

A

loss of contact with reality (including delusions/hallucinations)
- jump between thoughts

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12
Q

Three types of organic disorder

A

Delirium, Dementia, Amnestic disorder

  • disturbance in cognitive function
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13
Q

Anhedonia

A

lack of ability to experience pleasure and loss of interest

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14
Q

Expansive Affect

A

over exagerated range of affect associated with high mood

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15
Q

Inappropriate affect

A

incongruence between effectual expression and associated thought

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16
Q

Lability of affect

A

affective expression with frequent/abrupt changes

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17
Q

Ambivalence

A

coexistence of two opposing affects/impulses toward situation at the same time

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18
Q

Neologism

A

new words created

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19
Q

Alexithymia

A

not having words for emotions

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20
Q

Rumination

A

repetitive and negative form of thinking

- usually toward the past

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21
Q

Somatization

A

psychological suffering transferred and lived in form of physical symptoms

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22
Q

increase of what during alcohol withdrawal causes delirium/seizures?

A

L-glutamic acid

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23
Q

decrease of what during alcohol withdrawal causes anxiety, insomnia, and seizures?

A

GABA

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24
Q

How do you treat alcohol withdrawal symptoms?

A

Benzodiazepines

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25
epileptic kindling applied to bipolar disorder Explain it
The first episode may require provocation but the next ones come quicker
26
What does Valproex treat? (anticonvulsant)
Bipolar - acute mania/mixed episodes
27
What does Lamotrigine treat?
bipolar - depressed phase
28
What does Methylphenidate treat and what is its MOA?
ADHD (stimulant) inc synaptic levels of dopamine and NE --> inhibit Dopamine and NE transporters - agonist at 5HT1A receptor
29
Acute dystonia Treatment?
extrapyramidal side effect - spasm of tongue, face, neck, back - treat with antiparkinsons agent (Cogentin)
30
Akathisia Treatment?
extrapyramidal side effect motor restlessness due to need to move - Treat = reduce dose, antiparkinsons, benzo, propranolol
31
Iatrogenic Parkinsonism Treatment?
extrapyramidal side effect bradykinesia, rigidity, mask faces, shuffle gait - Treat = antiparkinson (benztropine)
32
Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome Treatment?
extrapyramidal side effect Catatonia, stupor, fever, unstable BP, can be fatal - Treat = antiparkinsons
33
Perioral tremor Treatment?
extrapyramidal side effect - months to years down the road - Treat = antiparkinsons
34
Tardive dyskinesia Treatment?
extrapyramidal side effect Oral facial dyskinesia, dystonia, after prolonged treatment - Treat = prevention is crucial, Reserpine if severe
35
What age of men are at higher risk for suicide?
75+
36
What age of women are at higher risk for suicide?
middle aged (45-64)
37
Who gets the Columbia Suicide Severity Rating scale?
everyone
38
What is the most common neurodegenerative disorder?
Alzheimers Disease
39
What stain demonstrates the neurofibrillary tangles in Alzheimers?
Bielschowsky stain (silver)
40
What stain visualizes amyloid plaques in Alzheimers?
Congo red
41
What initial change in a migraine causes aura?
vasoconstriction
42
Neuromyelitis optica has antibodies against what?
Aquaporin 4 on astrocytes
43
What does central pontine myelinolysis usually follow?
rapid correction of hyponatremia
44
What increases in metachromatic Leukodystrophy (causing pigment)
Sulfatide
45
What gross pathology is found with thiamine deficiency?
mamillary body hemorrhage and discoloration
46
Atrophy of what structure is associated with chronic alcohol use?
Superior Vermis in cerebellum
47
In what grade of Scheie Classification of Hypertensive retinopathy is there arterial vein nicking?
Grade 2
48
What can hydroxychloroquine cause in the eye?
irreversible toxicity in the retina --> parafoveal macula
49
What does Ethambutol toxicity look like and what does it usually treat?
Treats RA degree loss of central vision
50
What are the ocular side effects of Prednisone?
cataracts and glaucoma
51
What is Meibomian Gland disease?
Blepharitis - clogged Meibomian glands and aberrant oils causing dry eye
52
What is a Stye?
Blocked oil gland that becomes fibrous (can become infected)
53
What is the difference between the Hordeolum and a chalazion?
Hordeolum is acute with inflammation Chalazion is chronic without tenderness
54
What is pterygium?
accumulation of degenerated sub epithelial tissue under cornea
55
What is wrong with the refractive power and axial length in myopia?
refractive is too strong axial is too long
56
People with pathologic myopia are at increased risk for what?
Retinal detachments and atrophy
57
What is wrong with the refractive power and axial length in hyperopia?
Refractive too weak Axial too short
58
What is an astigmatism?
irregular shape of the cornea
59
What is lost in presbyopia?
ability to accommodate the eye
60
Describe ectopia lentis
dislocation of the natural lens | - poor near vision
61
How does a vitreous hemorrhage occur?
pulls on blood vessel and tears it
62
How do you recognize a macular hole and then how do you manage it?
loss of central vision vitrectomy with gas
63
What does seidels sign indicate?
ruptured globe of eye
64
What antibiotics would you consider for a ruptured globe?
Fluoroquinolones, clindamycin, vancomycin
65
What is likely the cause of anterior uveitis?
HSV
66
What is likely the cause of posterior uveitis?
VZV, HSV, CMV
67
What is the characteristic ocular finding in intermediate uveitis? What is it usually caused by?
snowballs Lyme disease
68
What is the major infectious etiology of panuveitis?
syphilis
69
What do you treat Loiasis with?
Diethylcarbazamine or ivermectin
70
How do you treat Ocular Larva Migrans?
worm removal, albendazole, topical corticosteroid
71
What do you treat river blindness with?
Ivermectin
72
Where do you get Acanthamoeba from? What does it cause? What is the structure of the protozoa?
freshwater lakes keratitis double walled polygonal structure
73
Where do you get Naegleria fowlei? What does it cause? What does it look like on stain?
freshwater lakes/rivers meningoencephalitis mononuclear cells with nucleolus
74
Which viruses cause Pharyngoconjuctival fever? what is the triad?
Adenovirus 3,4,7, fever, pharyngitis, conjunctivitis
75
Which viruses cause acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis?
Coxsackievirus A24 and enterovirus 70 - causes tearing and hemorrhages
76
What are the most common causes of acute bacterial conjunctivitis?
S. aureus, S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae
77
What are the most common causes of Bacterial keratitis?
S. aureus, Streptococcus sp, P. aeruginosa
78
What is the most common cause of Endophthalmitis post cataract surgery?
coagulase negative staph sp.
79
What is the most common cause of Endophthalmitis post traumatic?
coagulase negative staph sp, Bacillus cereus
80
What is the most common cause of Endophthalmitis with regards to endogenous bacteria?
S. aureus, streptococci
81
What is the most common cause of eye structure infections?
S. aureus

CNS (7 decks)

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