Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

What age does stranger anxiety onset?

A

6 months

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2
Q

What age does separation anxiety affect?

A

10-18 months

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3
Q

What is anxiety?

A

greater severity/duration/frequency than is appropriate for the circumstances

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4
Q

What is a panic disorder?

A

feelings of intense fear/discomfort with quick heights

  • minimum of four symptoms
  • decreased GABA activity
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5
Q

Urbach Wiethe disease

A

bilateral calcifications of the amygdala

  • AR
  • doesn’t experience fear
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6
Q

What is a mental disorder

A

clinically significant disturbance in an individuals cognition, emotional regulation, or behavior

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7
Q

Illusion

A

misinterpretation of real external sensory stimuli

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8
Q

Hallucinations

A

false perception in absence of external stimuli

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9
Q

Delusion

A

fixed false belief

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10
Q

Paranoia

A

abnormal distrust of others

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11
Q

Psychosis

A

loss of contact with reality (including delusions/hallucinations)
- jump between thoughts

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12
Q

Three types of organic disorder

A

Delirium, Dementia, Amnestic disorder

  • disturbance in cognitive function
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13
Q

Anhedonia

A

lack of ability to experience pleasure and loss of interest

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14
Q

Expansive Affect

A

over exagerated range of affect associated with high mood

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15
Q

Inappropriate affect

A

incongruence between effectual expression and associated thought

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16
Q

Lability of affect

A

affective expression with frequent/abrupt changes

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17
Q

Ambivalence

A

coexistence of two opposing affects/impulses toward situation at the same time

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18
Q

Neologism

A

new words created

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19
Q

Alexithymia

A

not having words for emotions

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20
Q

Rumination

A

repetitive and negative form of thinking

- usually toward the past

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21
Q

Somatization

A

psychological suffering transferred and lived in form of physical symptoms

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22
Q

increase of what during alcohol withdrawal causes delirium/seizures?

A

L-glutamic acid

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23
Q

decrease of what during alcohol withdrawal causes anxiety, insomnia, and seizures?

A

GABA

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24
Q

How do you treat alcohol withdrawal symptoms?

A

Benzodiazepines

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25
Q

epileptic kindling applied to bipolar disorder

Explain it

A

The first episode may require provocation but the next ones come quicker

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26
Q

What does Valproex treat? (anticonvulsant)

A

Bipolar - acute mania/mixed episodes

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27
Q

What does Lamotrigine treat?

A

bipolar - depressed phase

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28
Q

What does Methylphenidate treat and what is its MOA?

A

ADHD (stimulant)

inc synaptic levels of dopamine and NE –> inhibit Dopamine and NE transporters
- agonist at 5HT1A receptor

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29
Q

Acute dystonia

Treatment?

A

extrapyramidal side effect

  • spasm of tongue, face, neck, back
  • treat with antiparkinsons agent (Cogentin)
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30
Q

Akathisia

Treatment?

A

extrapyramidal side effect

motor restlessness due to need to move
- Treat = reduce dose, antiparkinsons, benzo, propranolol

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31
Q

Iatrogenic Parkinsonism

Treatment?

A

extrapyramidal side effect

bradykinesia, rigidity, mask faces, shuffle gait
- Treat = antiparkinson (benztropine)

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32
Q

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

Treatment?

A

extrapyramidal side effect

Catatonia, stupor, fever, unstable BP, can be fatal
- Treat = antiparkinsons

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33
Q

Perioral tremor

Treatment?

A

extrapyramidal side effect

  • months to years down the road
  • Treat = antiparkinsons
34
Q

Tardive dyskinesia

Treatment?

A

extrapyramidal side effect

Oral facial dyskinesia, dystonia, after prolonged treatment
- Treat = prevention is crucial, Reserpine if severe

35
Q

What age of men are at higher risk for suicide?

A

75+

36
Q

What age of women are at higher risk for suicide?

A

middle aged (45-64)

37
Q

Who gets the Columbia Suicide Severity Rating scale?

A

everyone

38
Q

What is the most common neurodegenerative disorder?

A

Alzheimers Disease

39
Q

What stain demonstrates the neurofibrillary tangles in Alzheimers?

A

Bielschowsky stain (silver)

40
Q

What stain visualizes amyloid plaques in Alzheimers?

A

Congo red

41
Q

What initial change in a migraine causes aura?

A

vasoconstriction

42
Q

Neuromyelitis optica has antibodies against what?

A

Aquaporin 4 on astrocytes

43
Q

What does central pontine myelinolysis usually follow?

A

rapid correction of hyponatremia

44
Q

What increases in metachromatic Leukodystrophy (causing pigment)

A

Sulfatide

45
Q

What gross pathology is found with thiamine deficiency?

A

mamillary body hemorrhage and discoloration

46
Q

Atrophy of what structure is associated with chronic alcohol use?

A

Superior Vermis in cerebellum

47
Q

In what grade of Scheie Classification of Hypertensive retinopathy is there arterial vein nicking?

A

Grade 2

48
Q

What can hydroxychloroquine cause in the eye?

A

irreversible toxicity in the retina –> parafoveal macula

49
Q

What does Ethambutol toxicity look like and what does it usually treat?

A

Treats RA

degree loss of central vision

50
Q

What are the ocular side effects of Prednisone?

A

cataracts and glaucoma

51
Q

What is Meibomian Gland disease?

A

Blepharitis

  • clogged Meibomian glands and aberrant oils causing dry eye
52
Q

What is a Stye?

A

Blocked oil gland that becomes fibrous (can become infected)

53
Q

What is the difference between the Hordeolum and a chalazion?

A

Hordeolum is acute with inflammation

Chalazion is chronic without tenderness

54
Q

What is pterygium?

A

accumulation of degenerated sub epithelial tissue under cornea

55
Q

What is wrong with the refractive power and axial length in myopia?

A

refractive is too strong

axial is too long

56
Q

People with pathologic myopia are at increased risk for what?

A

Retinal detachments and atrophy

57
Q

What is wrong with the refractive power and axial length in hyperopia?

A

Refractive too weak

Axial too short

58
Q

What is an astigmatism?

A

irregular shape of the cornea

59
Q

What is lost in presbyopia?

A

ability to accommodate the eye

60
Q

Describe ectopia lentis

A

dislocation of the natural lens

- poor near vision

61
Q

How does a vitreous hemorrhage occur?

A

pulls on blood vessel and tears it

62
Q

How do you recognize a macular hole and then how do you manage it?

A

loss of central vision

vitrectomy with gas

63
Q

What does seidels sign indicate?

A

ruptured globe of eye

64
Q

What antibiotics would you consider for a ruptured globe?

A

Fluoroquinolones, clindamycin, vancomycin

65
Q

What is likely the cause of anterior uveitis?

A

HSV

66
Q

What is likely the cause of posterior uveitis?

A

VZV, HSV, CMV

67
Q

What is the characteristic ocular finding in intermediate uveitis?

What is it usually caused by?

A

snowballs

Lyme disease

68
Q

What is the major infectious etiology of panuveitis?

A

syphilis

69
Q

What do you treat Loiasis with?

A

Diethylcarbazamine or ivermectin

70
Q

How do you treat Ocular Larva Migrans?

A

worm removal, albendazole, topical corticosteroid

71
Q

What do you treat river blindness with?

A

Ivermectin

72
Q

Where do you get Acanthamoeba from?

What does it cause?

What is the structure of the protozoa?

A

freshwater lakes

keratitis

double walled polygonal structure

73
Q

Where do you get Naegleria fowlei?

What does it cause?

What does it look like on stain?

A

freshwater lakes/rivers

meningoencephalitis

mononuclear cells with nucleolus

74
Q

Which viruses cause Pharyngoconjuctival fever?

what is the triad?

A

Adenovirus 3,4,7,

fever, pharyngitis, conjunctivitis

75
Q

Which viruses cause acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis?

A

Coxsackievirus A24 and enterovirus 70

  • causes tearing and hemorrhages
76
Q

What are the most common causes of acute bacterial conjunctivitis?

A

S. aureus, S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae

77
Q

What are the most common causes of Bacterial keratitis?

A

S. aureus, Streptococcus sp, P. aeruginosa

78
Q

What is the most common cause of Endophthalmitis post cataract surgery?

A

coagulase negative staph sp.

79
Q

What is the most common cause of Endophthalmitis post traumatic?

A

coagulase negative staph sp, Bacillus cereus

80
Q

What is the most common cause of Endophthalmitis with regards to endogenous bacteria?

A

S. aureus, streptococci

81
Q

What is the most common cause of eye structure infections?

A

S. aureus