Comprehensive Final Flashcards

1
Q

The nurse is attempting to provide comfort measure for the patient experiencing pain. When assessing the patient, the nurse must remember pain is:

A

Subjective for the patient.

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2
Q

Which of the following useful tool for assessing the intensity of pain is easy to use?

A

Numeric pain scale.

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3
Q

Mr. Levy, a 45 year old man, has experienced chronic low back pain since a fall 8 years ago. He describes his pain as a “gnawing, constant dull pain” that makes him feel tired. The nurse caring for him recognizes that one of the differences between acute and chronic pain is:

A

chronic pain is often described as dull and lasting for a long period of time.

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4
Q

One of the general principles of pain management is:

A

anticipated or mild pain is easier to relieve than severe pain.

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5
Q

A nurse attending a conference asks if anyone can give a definition of drug tolerance. The correct response is:

A

a potentially serious condition may go unnoticed.

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6
Q

The term intractable pain means:

A

unrelieved, persistent pain.

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7
Q

When administering a narcotic medication, the most important vital sign to assess first is:

A

respiration.

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8
Q

The most common adverse reaction to NSAIDS is:

A

GI distress including nausea, vomiting and pain.

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9
Q

Which of the following descriptions best defines the gate control theory?

A

only one impulse is transmitted at a time.

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10
Q

Mary Dolan, age 50, has gallbladder disease. She is complaining of right shoulder pain. What type of pain is she experiencing?

A

referred.

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11
Q

A 55 year old patient has diabetes. He has just had a below the knee amputation of his left leg. He is complaining of pain in his left leg. What term describes this pain?

A

phantom limb.

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12
Q

Certain types of drugs act on higher centers of the brain to modify perception and reaction to pain. They are the cornerstone of managing moderate to severe acute pain. They are:

A

opioid analgesics.

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13
Q

Identifying that pain may be intensified when combined with fatigue, sleep disturbances and depression, the nurse understands this relationship is termed:

A

synergistic.

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14
Q

Regarding the pain, the nurse identifies onset, duration, and severity. These steps are which part of the nursing process with regard to pain management?

A

Assessment.

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15
Q

When the nurse is assessing the patient for objective signs of pain, one might observe:

A

restless.
increased blood pressure.
moaning.

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16
Q

Morphine like substances found in the pituitary of the brain is activated in times of stress and pain, and produce analgesic effects. These substances are called:

A

endorphins.

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17
Q

The nurse can assist the patient in pain relief and should begin pain intervention as soon as the:

A

the patient states he/she is in pain.

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18
Q

A non-narcotic analgesic used to treat mild pain might be:

A

Tylenol.

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19
Q

A commonly prescribed over the counter NSAID used to treat pain is:

A

Ibuprofen.

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20
Q

The rational for making pain the 5th vital sign is:

A

it makes pain visible and raises awareness.

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21
Q

You are examining a patient’s lower leg and see a draining ulceration. Which one of the following actions is most appropriate in this situation?

A

Wash your hands, proceed with the rest of the physical examination, and then continue with the examination of the leg ulceration.

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22
Q

You are bathing an 80-year-old man and you notice that his skin is wrinkled, thin, lax, and dry. Which on of the following would be related to these findings?

A

an increased loss of elastin and a decrease in subcutaneous fat occurs in the elderly.

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23
Q

A 75-year-old woman who has a history of diabetes and peripheral vascular disease has been trying to remove a corn on the bottom of her foot with a pair of scissors. You will encourage her to stop trying to remove the corn with her scissors because of which one of the following?

A

she could be at risk for infection and lesions that are slow to heal because of her chronic disease.

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24
Q

During a skin assessment, you notice that a Mexican-American patient has skin that is yellowish-brown in color. However, the skin on the hard/soft palate is also yellow in color. Which of the following conditions is most likely the cause of these assessment findings?

A

jaundice.

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25
Q

A 65-year-old male with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has come to your clinic for a skin assessment. Which one of the following might you expect to find?

A

clubbing of the nails.

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26
Q

You notice that Mr. W. has a solid, elevated, circumscribed lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter. In your charting, which one of the following is the appropriate term for this lesion?

A

papule.

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27
Q

Your patient’s mother has noticed that her son, who has been to a new babysitter, has some blisters and yellow-colored crusts on his face and buttocks. On examination, you notice moist, thin-roofed vesicles with an erythematous base. Which one of the following would you suspect?

A

impetigo contagiosa.

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28
Q

Your patient has AIDS, and you are assessing his skin. You notice widely disseminated, violet-colored tumors covering the skin and mucous membranes. Which one of the following is the most appropriate conclusion?

A

he is in the advanced state of AIDS.

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29
Q

A 45-tear-old farmer comes in for a skin evaluation and complains of hair loss on his head. He has noticed that his hair seems to be breaking off in patches and that he has some scaling on his head. Which one of the following would you suspect?

A

tinea capitis.

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30
Q

A 40-year-old female reports a change in mole size, accompanied by color changes, itching, burning, and bleeding over the past month. She has a dark complexion and has no family history of skin cancer, but she has had many blistering sunburns in the past. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate response?

A

report her symptoms to the physician due to the suspicion of melanoma.

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31
Q

Decreased skin turgor or tenting is an expected finding in which one of the following conditions?

A

severe dehydration.

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32
Q

A 52-year-old woman has a papule on her nose that has rounded pearly borders and a central red ulcer. She said she has noticed it for several months and it has slowly grown larger. What condition do you suspect?

A

basal cell carcinoma.

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33
Q

Your patient, age 14, has been walking in the woods. He complains of severe pruritus. The nurse notes an erythematous area on his lower legs. Which one of the following interventions should the nurse do first?

A

wash area with copious amounts of water.

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34
Q

Your patient, age 29, is diagnosed with genital herpes. She is receiving acyclovir (Zovirax). Which one of the following would indicate a therapeutic response?

A

decrease in pain.

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35
Q

Your client has shedding, silvery white, scaling plaques on her shins and elbows. Which one of the following actions should be the first one taken by the nurse for treatment of psoriasis?

A

administer and instruct the client regarding daily soaks and tepid, wet compresses to the affected area.

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36
Q

Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of decubitus ulcers?

A

immobility.

shearing and friction.

prolonged exposure to moisture.

nutrition.

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37
Q

Your client has a sterile wet-to-dry dressing change ordered. After you remove the old dressing, you note a wound on the right heel of your client measuring 3 x 4 x 1 cm with a small amount of black eschar present in the base of the wound and visible muscle and tendons. There is purulent exudate present. Which of the following describes the stage of decubitus ulcer formation?

A

stage 4.

38
Q

Your client has sustained a burn to her left leg. The area has many large blisters and has a wet, shiny, mottled red base with weeping surface. She reports that it is quite painful. You recognize this as which one of the following burn depths?

A

partial thickness.

39
Q

Drug therapy in a client with SLE does not include which one of the following?

A

keratolytic agents.

40
Q

Mrs. P tells the nurse that she has not gone out of the house for weeks because she hasn’t been able to cover the lesions on her face with makeup. Based on this information, which of the following would be an appropriate nursing diagnosis?

A

disturbed body image R/T change in personal appearance.

41
Q

The nurse instructs a patient who has a drain in a surgical wound that his wound will heal by which of the following?

A

tertiary intention.

42
Q

The day following surgery, the nurse notes bloody drainage on the dressing. The nurse should document this type of drainage as which of the following?

A

sanguineous.

43
Q

When the nurse discovers that a gauze dressing has adhered to a wound, the nurse should do which of the following?

A

moisten it with sterile saline.

44
Q

The nurse follows the basic concept of wound irrigation when they direct the flow of the irrigant in which of the following ways?

A

from the area of least contaminated to most contaminated.

45
Q

The nurse is horrified to see a loop of bowel protruding from the surgical incision. Which of the following should be the initial action taken by the nurse?

A

cover the bowel with a sterile saline dressing.

46
Q

Because the physician has not ordered a dressing change for a draining wound, the nurse should assess the amount of drainage by doing which of the following?

A

circling and dating the outline of the exudate on the dressing.

47
Q

The nurse prepares a patient by telling him that a wet-to-dry dressing is applied wet and allowed to dry. Which of the following occurs as a result of adherence of the dressing to the wound after this drying process?

A

mechanical debridement.

48
Q

During assessment of the postoperative patient, the nurse discovers that the pulse is rapid, the blood pressure is lower, urinary output has decreased, and the dressing is dry. Which of the following does the nurse believe that this indicates?

A

internal hemorrhage.

49
Q

When the nurse assess that blood and fluid flow into the vascular space and produce edema, erythema, heat and pain, the nurse is aware that the phase of healing is which of the following?

A

inflammatory.

50
Q

In an attempt to keep the patient comfortable during a dressing change, when should the nurse best administer an analgesic?

A

at least 30 minutes before the change.

51
Q

Which of the following is the major advantage of primary intention over other phases of wound healing?

A

minimal scarring results.

52
Q

Suture removal may be done by the nurse. The nurse would explain to the patient that which of the following is the usual length of time before the sutures will be removed?

A

7 to 10 days.

53
Q

A patient has come to the PACU (post-anesthesia care unit) after hp replacement surgery. Following your assessment, you need to set up a plan of care. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would have the highest priority?

A

impaired skin integrity.

54
Q

The physician has ordered a sterile dry dressing change. Which of the following is the most appropriate way to cleanse the wound and surrounding area?

A

using an antiseptic swab, start from the incision outward, one stroke per swab, then allow to air dry.

55
Q

When removing staples from a surgical incision, which of the following interventions is most appropriate?

A

remove every other staple first and replace with steri-strips while monitoring that the incision remains closed.

56
Q

You are the nurse caring for a patient with a wound on the right arm. The wound is covered by a bandage. For which of the following sings would you most observe when assessing the skin distal to the bandage?

A

circulatory impairment.

57
Q

When classifying wounds, which of the following classifications results from the presence of gastrointestinal products?

A

contaminated.

58
Q

When caring for a pressure ulcer, which of the following is true?

A

eschar must be removed before the wound will heal.

59
Q

A wound that is infected is not immediately closed because the infection has to first be controlled. Tertiary intention results in the weaving together of a special tissue which develops as healing occurs. Which of the following is the name of this tissue?

A

granulation.

60
Q

Which one of the following is the major purpose for application of any dressing to a wound?

A

to absorb drainage.

61
Q

Nursing diagnosis for the post surgical patient may include all of the following except:

A

impaired stagnant column.

62
Q

Two considerations of the older adult surgical patient include:

A

pre and post operative teaching.

surgery causes much physiological stress.

63
Q

Which of the following is not a classification of surgery?

A

explanative.

64
Q

A preoperative patient is required to sign and informed consent. After the Doctor has explained the procedure to the patient, your responsibilities are?

A

to witness the patient’s signature on the consent form.

65
Q

When teaching post operative incentive spirometer exercises to the preoperative patient, your teaching should include:

A

practice breath control techniques.

teach the patient to examine sputum for consistency, amount and color changes.

have the patient return demonstration of the procedure.

66
Q

The primary reasons for using the incentive spirometer include all the following except:

A

to induce a collapsing of the lungs.

67
Q

Sudden chest pain combined with dyspnea, cyanosis, and tachycardia is an indication of:

A

pulmonary embolus.

68
Q

Which of the following patients would be at greatest risk during surgery?

A

27 year old taking an anticoagulant agent.

69
Q

Which of the following early postoperative observations is abnormal and should be reported immediately?

A

emesis that is red in color.

70
Q

A patient will have an incision in the lower abdomen. Which of the following measures by the nurse will help decrease discomfort in the incisional area when she coughs post operatively?

A

apply a pillow directly over the lower abdomen.

71
Q

Although informed about the proposed surgical procedure, the patient has only vague responses about the post-operative period. A nursing diagnosis at this time would be:

A

deficient knowledge, post operative.

72
Q

A patient and a nurse develop a preoperative teaching plan. In teaching the patient to cough effectively after surgery, the nurse should tell her to practice:

A

taking three deep breaths and coughing from the chest.

73
Q

What is the responsibility of the nurse regarding informed consent?

A

obtain the patient’s signature.

74
Q

Guidelines for ensuring that all nursing interventions are completed on the day of surgery are located on which document?

A

preoperative checklist.

75
Q

The patient is a 38 year old and is in her second post operative day after surgery on her left femur. She is receiving analgesia via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) device. Which of the following is not a nursing intervention related to the use of a PCA?

A

administering analgesia to the patient.

76
Q

Which of the following nursing interventions would be appropriate after a wound evisceration?

A

apply a moist normal saline sterile dressing.

77
Q

A 45 year old patient has had a repair of a cerebral aneurysm and is presenting signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following post operative nursing interventions would be contraindicated?

A

coughing every 2 hours.

78
Q

A male patient, age 80, has had a total hip replacement. Anxiety, hypotension, and jarring during transfer from the recovery room to his room can cause a post operative increase in which of his vital signs?

A

pulse rate.

79
Q

Your patient is on her second post operative day. The nurse is aware that the most effective way to increase her peristalsis is?

A

ambulation.

80
Q

A patient is transferred from the operating room to the recovery room after undergoing an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of his left ankle. Which is the first assessment to make?

A

check airway for patency.

81
Q

Frequent assessment of a post operative patient is essential. One of the first signs and symptoms of hemorrhage may be:

A

restlessness.

82
Q

Surgery is performed for various purposes, which include all the following except:

A

retentive.

83
Q

A 73 year old patient with diabetes was admitted for below the knee amputation of his right leg. Removal of his right leg is an example of which type of surgery?

A

ablative.

84
Q

The Patient’s Bill of Rights states that a patient must give his or her permission for any specific test or procedure to be performed. What is the legal term for this permission?

A

informed consent.

85
Q

An informed consent was to be obtained from the patient scheduled for surgery. Which of the following circumstances could prevent him from signing his informed consent?

A

an injection of Demerol 75mg IM, 1 hour ago.

86
Q

The anesthesiologist provides this type of anesthesia by inhalation and IV administration routes:

A

general.

87
Q

A type of anesthesia which requires a depressed level of consciousness is?

A

conscious sedation.

88
Q

The older adult patient may not respond to surgical treatment as well as a younger adult because of:

A

his or her body’s response to physiological anesthesia.

89
Q

Decreased activity in an obese surgical patient predisposes the patient to which complication?

A

pneumonia.

90
Q

A patient, age 65, underwent open abdominal surgery one week ago. Her surgical wound dehisced. This means:

A

there is a partial or complete wound separation.