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1532 A&P > Comprehensive Exam > Flashcards

Comprehensive Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Peristalsis is:

  • progressive, involuntary movements
  • inflammation of mucosa
  • the act of swallowing
  • a tortuous dilatation
A

progressive, involuntary movements

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2
Q

Reflux esophagitis is:

  • progressive, involuntary movements
  • inflammation of mucosa
  • the act of swallowing
  • a tortuous dilatation
A

inflammation of mucosa

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3
Q

Deglutition is:

  • progressive, involuntary movements
  • inflammation of mucosa
  • the act of swallowing
  • a tortuous dilatation
A

the act of swallowing

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4
Q

Varix is:

  • progressive, involuntary movements
  • inflammation of mucosa
  • the act of swallowing
  • a tortuous dilatation seen as filling defects
A

a tortuous dilatation seen as filling defects

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5
Q

Which of the following is/are correct concerning the Parotid gland:
1. it is the smallest of the salivary glands
2. it is located under and in front of the ears
3. it is associated with Wharton’s duct

  • 2 only
  • 2 and 3
  • 1 and 3
  • 1 only
A

2 only

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6
Q

Wharton’s duct is:

  • the main sublingual duct
  • associated with the submandibular gland
  • associated with parotid gland
  • sublingual ducts that open around tongue
A

associated with the submandibular gland

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7
Q

Ducts of Rivinus is:

  • submandibular ducts that drain into the mouth
  • associated with the submandibular gland
  • associated with parotid gland
  • sublingual ducts that open around tongue
A

sublingual ducts that open around tongue

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8
Q

Stenson’s duct is:

  • the main sublingual duct
  • associated with the submandibular gland
  • associated with parotid gland
  • sublingual ducts that open around tongue
A

associated with parotid gland

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9
Q

In the tomographic study of the pharynx and larynx, you would ask the patient to make which sound during the exposure:

  • h-h-h
  • o-o-o
  • e-e-e
  • z-z-z
A

e-e-e

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10
Q

Cleft palate studies are done to:

  • demonstrate the vocal cords and their size and shape
  • visualize foreign bodies
  • visualize the range of motion of the soft palate and the position of the tongue during different phonations
  • visualize the movement of the epiglottis
A

visualize the range of motion of the soft palate and the position of the tongue during different phonations

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11
Q

Which of the following is a function of the pharynx:

  • for deglutition
  • for passage of food
  • for passage of air
  • for sound resonance
A

all of the above

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12
Q

The entrance to the larynx is guarded by the:

  • glottis
  • epiglottis
  • glossoepiglottic fold
  • piriform recess
A

epiglottis

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13
Q

Dysphagia is:

  • a pouch or sac of lining membrane
  • a narrowing or a body passageway or opening
  • difficultly in swallowing
  • failure of peristalsis and relaxation of cardia
A

difficultly in swallowing

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14
Q

Stenosis is the:

  • pouch or sac of lining membrane
  • narrowing of a body passageway or opening
  • inability to swallow
  • failure of peristalsis and relaxation of cardia
A

narrowing of a body passageway or opening

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15
Q

Achalasia is the:

  • pouch or sac of lining membrane
  • narrowing or a body passageway or opening
  • inability to swallow
  • failure of peristalsis and relaxation of the sphincter
A

inability to swallow

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16
Q

Diverticulum is the:

  • pouch or sac of lining membrane
  • narrowing or a body passageway or opening
  • inability to swallow
  • failure of peristalsis and relaxation of the sphincter
A

pouch or sac of lining membrane

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17
Q

The parathyroid glands control what?

  • Thyroid hormones
  • Heart rate
  • Calcium levels
  • Thyroxine (T3)
A

Calcium levels

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18
Q

What is the normal state of the cricopharyngeus muscle?

  • Contracted
  • Relaxed
  • Spasm
  • None of the above
A

Relaxed

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19
Q

What is the primary distal attachment point of the pharynx?

  • Larynx
  • Epiglottis
  • Lower esophageal sphincter
  • Esophagus
A

Esophagus

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20
Q

What is the reason for taking “control” images before the start of the sialography exam?

  • Look for radio-opaque calculi.
  • To visualize Stensen’s duct.
  • To find the salivary glands.
  • Look for sialadentis.
A

Look for radio-opaque calculi.

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21
Q

What is the term for an infected pharyngeal tonsil?

  • Von Ebner’s gland.
  • Sublingualitis.
  • Calcitonin.
  • Adenoid.
A

Adenoid.

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22
Q

What are the main spot film views used in sialography?

  • Tangential and Lateral.
  • AP and SMV.
  • Lateral oblique and Townes.
  • No spot films, only fluoroscopy.
A

Tangential and Lateral.

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23
Q

Another name for the gastric folds is:

  • Cardia
  • Rugae
  • Pylora
  • Angula
A

Rugae

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24
Q

If the kidneys are not a primary concern.What is the reason for performing an upright abdomen as a PA projection as opposed to an AP projection

  • Easier to assess the gastroesophageal junction.
  • Its easier for the patient to hang on to the wall bucky.
  • Better view of the fundus.
  • Less dose to the gonads
A

Less dose to the gonads

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25
Q

The superior portion of the stomach is:

  • cardia
  • pyloric portion
  • body
  • fundus
A

fundus

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26
Q

Continuous with the duodenum is:

  • cardia
  • pyloric portion
  • body
  • fundus
A

pyloric portion

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27
Q

The largest portion of the stomach is:

  • cardia
  • pyloric portion
  • body
  • fundus
A

body

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28
Q

Continuous with the esophagus is:

  • cardia
  • pyloric portion
  • body
  • fundus
A

cardia

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29
Q

When obtaining projections of the stomach on a hypersthenic patient, which of the following may be necessary to assure inclusion of all pertinent anatomy:
1. Adjusting CR to enter at a higher level than for the sthenic patient
2. Adjusting CR to enter at a lower level than for the sthenic patient
3. Adjusting the image receptor to a crosswise orientation

  • 2 only
  • 2 and 3
  • 1 and 3
  • 1 only
A

1 and 3

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30
Q

In the stomach, the narrowing of the lumen is called:

  • gastritis
  • pyloric stenosis
  • pylorospasm
  • Antrumitis
A

pyloric stenosis

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31
Q

Inflammation of the stomach is called:

  • gastritis
  • pyloric stenosis
  • pylorospasm
A

gastritis

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32
Q

You are positioning an average sized patient for oblique projections of the stomach. The CR should enter at the level of:

  • L3/L4
  • L4/L5
  • T12/L1
  • L1/L2
A

L1/L2

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33
Q

To avoid retention of food in the stomach, and upper gastrointestinal contrast study should not be performed for at least:

  • 10 to 12 hours after last food and water
  • there is no preparation required
  • 8 to 9 hours after last food and water
  • 4 to 5 hours after last food and water
A

8 to 9 hours after last food and water

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34
Q

Compression projections of the stomach are useful for:

  • demonstration of small mucosal lesions
  • preventing contrast from leaving stomach
  • creating a double contrast effect
  • moving obstructions
A

all of the above

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35
Q

During an upper gastrointestinal procedure the radiologist adjusts the table into a slight Trendelenburg position. What is the purpose of this adjustment in patient and table position:

  • to smooth out the gastric serosa
  • to evaluate for a hiatal hernia
  • to best demonstrate the cardiac sphincter
  • to demonstrate esophageal varices
A

to evaluate for a hiatal hernia

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36
Q

What is the principle advantage of the double-contrast method over the single-contrast method in upper gastrointestinal procedures:

  • the contrast will pass easier
  • no patient preparation is necessary for double-contrast studies
  • the double-contrast is more comfortable
  • smaller lesions are more obvious
A

smaller lesions are more obvious

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37
Q

The right border of the stomach is called the:

  • angular notch
  • sulcus intermedius
  • greater curvature
  • lesser curvature
A

lesser curvature

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38
Q

The hand-held compression paddle is often placed under which anatomical part during an upper gastrointestinal procedure:

  • body
  • pylorus
  • duodenal bulb
  • distal esophagus
A

duodenal bulb

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39
Q

In which of the following positions does the stomach move superiorly and to the left, and in most cases, the pyloric end raising to spill barium into the fundic and cardiac portions:

  • Upright
  • Lateral
  • Supine
  • Prone
A

Supine & Prone

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40
Q

When performing a double-contrast study of the stomach, what is the best way to assure that the barium is coating the mucosal lining:

  • take all upright projections
  • roll the patient from side to side
  • ask the patient to perform the Valsalva maneuver
  • place the patient in the Trendelenburg position
A

roll the patient from side to side

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41
Q

Reflux esophagitis is:

  • progressive, involuntary movements
  • inflammation of mucosa
  • the act of swallowing
  • a tortuous dilatation
A

inflammation of mucosa

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42
Q

Varix is:

  • progressive, involuntary movements
  • inflammation of mucosa
  • the act of swallowing
  • a tortuous dilatation seen as filling defects
A

a tortuous dilatation seen as filling defects

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43
Q

According to Merrill’s, for the RAO or LPO projections of the esophagus, what is the degree of angle needed for the patient?

  • 45 to 60 degrees from Ap
  • 60 to 75 degrees from Ap
  • 35 to 40 degrees from Ap
  • 15 to 20 degrees from Ap
A

35 to 40 degrees from Ap

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44
Q

The mucosal lining in the lower esophagus changes to a mucosal lining similar to that found in the stomach. What condition causes this?

  • a Presbyesophagus
  • reflux esophagitis
  • a Barrett’s esophagus
  • an esophageal web
A

a Barrett’s esophagus

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45
Q

Diverticulum is the:

  • pouch or sac of lining membrane
  • narrowing or a body passageway or opening
  • inability to swallow
  • failure of peristalsis and relaxation of the sphincter
A

pouch or sac of lining membrane

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46
Q

Which projection allows a wider space for an unobstructed image of the esophagus between the vertebrae and the heart:

  • AP
  • Lateral
  • RAO
  • LAO
A

RAO

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47
Q

When positioning a patient for the lateral projection of the esophagus, you would direct the CR to:

  • the level of T10-T11
  • the level of T5 -T6
  • the level of T3-T4
  • the level of T8-T9
A

the level of T5 -T6

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48
Q

After positioning the patient for a RAO projection of the esophagus, how do you adjust the CR:

  • it should enter approximately 2 inches lateral to the midsagittal plane
  • it should enter along the coronal plane
  • it should enter approximately 2 inches medial to the midsagittal plane
  • it should enter at the midsagittal plane
A

it should enter approximately 2 inches lateral to the midsagittal plane

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49
Q

Which of the following is NOT general evaluation criteria for all projections of the esophagus:

  • there will be adequate penetration of the contrast
  • the ribs posterior to the vertebrae will be superimposed
  • the esophagus will be filled or partially filled with contrast
  • the esophagus will be visualized from the lower part of the neck to its entrance into the stomach
A

the ribs posterior to the vertebrae will be superimposed

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50
Q

According to Merrill’s, the PA oblique for hiatal hernia is called the ___________ method.

  • Compression
  • Valsalva
  • Wolf
  • Bi phasic
A

Wolf

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51
Q

The small bowel starts at the junction of what 2 structures?

  • Duodenum and jejunum.
  • Stomach antrum and duodenum.
  • Body of the stomach and duodenum.
  • Pyloric sphincter and duodenum.
A

Pyloric sphincter and duodenum.

52
Q

Which of the following conditions benefits the most by using a water soluable contrast agent?

  • Varices
  • Hernias
  • Diverticulum
  • Perforation
A

Perforation

53
Q

The patient position that best demonstrates the rectum and distal sigmoid portion of the colon is:

  • Lateral
  • AP Upright
  • LPO
  • RPO
A

Lateral

54
Q

The small bowel attaches to the large intestine at what point?

  • Appendix
  • Ascending colon
  • Ileocecal valve
  • Jejunum
A

Ileocecal valve

55
Q

The duodenojejunal flexure is supported by what structure?

  • Small bowel mesentary.
  • Right colic flexure.
  • Hepatic flexure.
  • Ligament of Treitz.
A

Ligament of Treitz.

56
Q

Intussusception of the bowel is:

  • A sac or pouch on the walls of the colon
  • The slipping of one part of the intestine into another
  • A form of colitis
  • A twisting of the bowel upon itself
A

The slipping of one part of the intestine into another

57
Q

Which of the following is located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen:

  • Jejunum
  • Cecum
  • Splenic flexure
  • Transverse duodenum
A

Splenic flexure

58
Q

The loops within the ileum are called?

  • Kerckring folds
  • Ampulla
  • Sulci
  • Gyri
A

Gyri

59
Q

The segmented appearance of the colon on a radiograph is know as:

  • Haustra
  • Phylospasms
  • Lumen
  • Rugal folds
A

Haustra

60
Q

The radiographic projection which best demonstrates the transverse colon is:

  • A right anterior oblique
  • An AP/PA projection
  • A 350 cephalad tube tilt
  • A lateral view
A

An AP/PA projection

61
Q

When performing enteroclysis, the catheter is places in what part of the small bowel?

  • Distal ileum
  • Distal duodenum
  • Distal jejunum
  • Proximal cecum
A

Distal duodenum

62
Q

When inserting an enema tip into the rectum what direction does the tip take?

  • Anterior for 3-4 inches, then upward
  • Straight in toward the hypogastric region
  • Along the rectal canal
  • Toward the umbilicus for 4-5 inches
A

Along the rectal canal

63
Q

A complete obstruction of the G.I. tract may be ruled out:

  • When the pain is centered on the right side
  • If reflux into the ileum is apparent
  • If gas appears in the rectum
  • When the patient is not nauseated
A

If gas appears in the rectum

64
Q

Which is the most superior:

  • Anus
  • Transverse colon
  • Ascending colon
  • Cecum
A

Transverse colon

65
Q

Gas within the small bowel is normal for which type of patient(s)?

  • Patients with appendicitis
  • Hyposthenic patients
  • Asthenic patients
  • Infant and small children
A

Infant and small children

66
Q

When performing an air-contrast large intestine exam, the radiographic position/projection which best demonstrates the “up” or medial side of the ascending colon and the lateral side of the descending colon is:

  • A right anterior oblique
  • An anteroposterior projection
  • A 35 degree cephalic tube angle
  • A right lateral decubitus
A

A right lateral decubitus

67
Q

In a normal patient, the portion of the colon located most superiorly is the:

  • Splenic flexure
  • Rectum
  • Cecum
  • Hepatic flexure
A

Splenic flexure

68
Q

If untreated, Celiac disease eventually causes malabsorbtion of nutrients because of what mechanism?

  • Wheat husks are not digested by the stomach
  • Inflammation causes atrophy of intestinal villi.
  • Lack of bile from the gallbladder
  • Reflux of gastic juices
A

Inflammation causes atrophy of intestinal villi.

69
Q

When performing a small bowel series, transit time images are performed periodically until the oral contrast reaches the ____________, at which time the exam is completed.

  • Ileum
  • Jejunum
  • Cecum
  • Sigmoid colon
A

Cecum

70
Q

When examining the colon, which of the following will be demonstrated with the patient in a Lateral position?

  • Cecum
  • Splenic flexure
  • Hepatic flexure
  • Rectum and rectosigmoid
A

Rectum and rectosigmoid

71
Q

When examining the colon, which of the following will be demonstrated with the patient in a Chassard-Lapine position?

  • Rectosigmoid junction and sigmoid
  • Splenic flexure
  • Hepatic flexure
  • Cecum
A

Rectosigmoid junction and sigmoid

72
Q

When performing an UGI or colon study an initial KUB is performed. Which item is not assessed on the initial film?

  • Aortic aneurysm
  • Dialated bowel
  • Lithiasis
  • Ulcerative colitis
  • Foreign bodies
A

Ulcerative colitis

73
Q

Which one of these is NOT an advantage of using a water soluble media for the examination of the G.I. tract?

  • Good delineation of the colon
  • In adults, it acts as a lubricant to reduce intussusception
  • Not subject to drying or flaking
  • The transit time from injection to colonic filling is fast, 3-4 hours
A

In adults, it acts as a lubricant to reduce intussusception

74
Q

An inflammation of the bowel is known as:

  • Diverticulitis
  • Intussusception
  • Colitis
  • Appendicitis
A

Colitis

75
Q

KUB stands for what?

  • Keep Upright Bowel
  • Keckring Upper Bowel
  • Kidneys, Ureter, Bowel
  • Kidneys, Ureter, Bladder
A

Kidneys, Ureter, Bladder

76
Q

The Chassard-Lapine Method (Axial Projection) is used to visualize what 3 parts of the large intestine?

  • Rectum, rectosigmoid junction and sigmoid.
  • Cecum, jejunum and ileum.
  • Descending colon, sigmoid colon and rectum
  • Ascending colon, transverse colon and descending colon
A

Rectum, rectosigmoid junction and sigmoid.

77
Q

The definition of lithiasis is:

  • Formation in consecretions of calculi in the body
  • Absence of bilirubin in the blood
  • An abnormal discoloration of urine due to an obstruction in the gallbladder
  • Rhythmic contractions of the cystic duct
A

Formation in consecretions of calculi in the body

78
Q

A function of the gallbladder is:

  • Formation of bile
  • To secrete enzymes that digest food in the small intestine
  • To evacuate bile during digestion
  • To secrete cholecystokinin to induce liver action
A

To evacuate bile during digestion

79
Q

On a hypersthenic patient, the gallbladder will be located:

  • away from the spine and low in the abdomen
  • away from the spine and high in the abdomen
  • near the spine and high in the abdomen
  • near the spine and low in the abdomen
A

away from the spine and high in the abdomen

80
Q

The lateral decubitus position for the gallbladder is used to:

  • Demonstrate the cystic duct more clearly
  • Demonstrate the mobility of the gallbladder
  • Identify the concentration of contrast media
  • Demonstrate stratification of calculi
A

Demonstrate stratification of calculi

81
Q

The head of the pancreas extends to the:

  • Hilum of spleen
  • Inferior pole of right kidney
  • Antrum of the stomach
  • “C” loop of the duodenum
A

“C” loop of the duodenum

82
Q

The sphincter of Oddi controls which of the following:

  • Collum
  • Infundibulum
  • Common bile duct
  • Hepatic duct
A

Common bile duct & Hepatic duct

83
Q

T-tube cholangiography is done:

  • After surgery
  • For diagnosis of jaundice
  • For diagnosis for calcification within the pancreas
  • Before surgery
A

After surgery

84
Q

Which of the following allows for the stratification of stones within the gallbladder?

  • Upright and lateral decubitus
  • Lateral and A.P. supine
  • R.P.O. and lateral decubitus
  • Supine A.P. erect
A

Upright and lateral decubitus

85
Q

The ampulla of Vater is formed by the union of the pancreatic duct and the:

  • Common bile duct
  • Duodenum
  • Cystic duct
  • Common hepatic duct
A

Common bile duct

86
Q

Which of the ducts allows fluid to travel in both directions?

  • Right Hepatic Duct.
  • Cystic Duct.
  • Common Hepatic Duct.
  • Common Bile Duct.
A

Cystic Duct.

87
Q

Bile produced by the liver has what purpose in the digestive tract?

  • Controls the contraction of the sphincter of oddi.
  • Reduces cholesterol in the duodenum.
  • Increases pH levels to neutralize acid from the stomach.
  • Digestion of lipids.
A

Digestion of lipids.

88
Q

A cholangiogram is used primarily to visualize the:

  • The gallbladder
  • Spiral valves of Heister
  • Duodenum
  • Bile ducts
A

Bile ducts

89
Q

The hormone which activates the muscular contractions of the gallbladder is:

  • Insulin
  • Cholecibum
  • Cholecystokinin
  • Chyme
A

Cholecystokinin

90
Q

Which contrast agent is normally used for upper GI series?

  • High Osmolality iodine contrast
  • Low Osmolality iodine contrast
  • Thin barium sulfate
  • Gastrografin
A

Thin barium sulfate

91
Q

What is the Porta Hepatis?

  • Portion of the liver in which only the hepatic ducts enter and leave the liver.
  • Portion of the liver in which the ducts and vascular structures enter and leave the liver.
  • Portion of the liver in which only the nerves and blood supply enter and leave the liver.
  • Curvature of the liver in which the gallbladder and head of pancreas reside.
A

Portion of the liver in which the ducts and vascular structures enter and leave the liver.

92
Q

Which of the following does a moderate reaction of iodine NOT include:

  • Tachycardia,
  • Hypertension
  • Dyspnea
  • Anaphylaxis
A

Anaphylaxis

93
Q

Acute Acalculous Cholecystitis describes what pathology?

  • Acute inflammation of the gallbladder without calculi or “stone” involvement.
  • Acute infection of the gallbladder because of a calculi or “stone”.
  • Common Hepatic Duct occlusion by calculi or “stone”.
  • Acute inflammation of the gallbladder caused by a calculi or “stone” in cystic duct.
A

Acute inflammation of the gallbladder without calculi or “stone” involvement.

94
Q

What is the purpose of Glucagon excreted from the pancreas?

  • Elevates the concentration of glucose and fat in the bloodstream.
  • Elevates the acidity in the duodenum..
  • Converts glucose into fat.
  • Aids in the digestion of lipids.
A

Elevates the concentration of glucose and fat in the bloodstream.

95
Q

When performing an ERCP, the radiologist utilizing an endoscope tries to insert a catheter into what anatomy?

  • Common Hepatic Duct
  • Ampulla of Vader
  • Cystic duct
  • Gallbladder
  • Pancreas
A

Ampulla of Vader

96
Q

Anuria describes which condition?

  • Loss of bladder control.
  • Urea in the blood.
  • Kidneys fail to produce urine.
  • Kidneys produce abnormally large amounts of urine.
A

Kidneys produce abnormally large amounts of urine.

97
Q

Before giving IV contrast, the technologist needs to; I) have the patient sign an informed consent, II) check Creatinine lab values (if over 65 years of age), III) check identifiers for the correct patient, and IV) start an IV.

  • II only
  • II & III only
  • all of the above
  • I, III & IV only
A

all of the above

98
Q

Which structure is not a part of the urinary system?

  • Adrenal glands
  • Ureter
  • Urethra
  • Renal pelvis
A

Adrenal glands

99
Q

Which of the following describes “antegrade” filling?

  • contrast medium is introduced directly into the kidney
  • voiding of contrast medium
  • contrast medium enters the kidney in the opposite direction of blood flow
  • contrast medium enters the kidney in the normal direction of blood/urine flow
A

contrast medium enters the kidney in the normal direction of blood/urine flow

100
Q

What is the “function” of the kidneys? (Mark all that apply)

  • Maintains fluid balance.
  • Maintains the bodies electrolyte balance.
  • Maintains the bodies calcium balance.
  • Maintains blood pressure.
  • Maintains the number of erythrocytes in the blood.
A
  • Maintains fluid balance.
  • Maintains the bodies electrolyte balance.
  • Maintains the bodies calcium balance.
  • Maintains blood pressure.
101
Q

All of the following are functions of the kidneys except:

  • urine excretion
  • urine suppression
  • urine production
  • remove waste products from the body
A

urine suppression

102
Q

Horseshoe kidneys are connected at the ____________ 90% of the time.

  • Renal hilum
  • Upper poles
  • Renal veins
  • Lower poles
A

Lower poles

103
Q

An examination which investigates the bladder, lower ureters and the urethra is called a:

  • cystourethrography
  • pyelography
  • intravenous urogram
  • excretory urogram
A

cystourethrography

104
Q

Some of the contraindications for giving intravenous contrast media include: I) diabetes, II) elevated BUN, III) micturition, IV) pregnancy

  • I & IV only
  • I, II and IV
  • II & III
  • all of the above
A

I, II and IV

105
Q

A calculus may cause all of the following except:

  • uremia
  • polyuria
  • hematuria
  • dysuria
A

polyuria

106
Q

Retrograde pyelography does not demonstrate:

  • kidney function
  • kidney stones
  • kidney disease
  • kidney structures
A

kidney function

107
Q

The upper expanded portion of the ureter is called the:

  • cortex
  • hilum
  • medulla
  • renal pelvis
A

renal pelvis

108
Q

A patient who may be experiencing a moderate reaction to the contrast may exhibit signs and symptoms such as; hypertension, __________, __________, dyspnea and laryngospasms.

  • convulsions, tachycardia
  • wheezing, dehydration
  • cardiopulmonary arrest,
  • convulsions
  • itching, wheezing
A

itching, wheezing

109
Q

Which of the following might be demonstrated radiographically when there is an obstruction of the ureter?:

  • hydronephrosis
  • pyelonephritis
  • hematuria
  • uremia
A

hydronephrosis

110
Q

According to Merrill’s, approximately how many degrees should the patient be rotated, from the supine position, to an oblique position to demonstrate renal and urinary structures?

  • 30 degrees
  • 40 degrees
  • 20 degrees
  • 10 degrees
A

30 degrees

111
Q

Which of the following words identify a toxic condition produced by urinary constituents in the blood?

  • uremia
  • polyuria
  • anuria
  • hematuria
A

uremia

112
Q

The ureters enter the superior portion of the bladder at what point?

  • Posterior and lateral.
  • Posterior and medial.
  • Anterior and lateral
  • Anterior and medial.
A

Posterior and lateral.

113
Q

The functional unit of the kidney is the:

  • cortex
  • capsule
  • calyx
  • nephron
A

nephron

114
Q

The type of catheter normally inserted into the bladder for radiographic examinations is known as a:

  • extension
  • butterfly
  • French
  • Foley
A

Foley

115
Q

Retrograde pyelography is accomplished by:

  • filling the bladder with contrast material
  • inserting a catheter into the femoral artery
  • I. V. injection of contrast material
  • insertion of a catheter into the ureter
A

insertion of a catheter into the ureter

116
Q

A method to investigate renal cysts and tumor masses via a needle insertion into the lesion is known as a:

  • antegrade urogram
  • percutaneous renal puncture
  • cystourethrogram
  • voiding cystogram
A

percutaneous renal puncture

117
Q

Which part of the urinary system is most prone to collecting system duplication?

  • Kidney
  • Urethra
  • Ureter
  • Bladder
A

Ureter

118
Q

A patient who presents with a Wilm’s Tumor is usually within which age group?

  • Teenager
  • Child
  • Elderly
  • Middle age
A

Child

119
Q

Urinary tract infections caused by infections of the blood stream are called?

  • Hematogenous dissemination
  • Enterobacter
  • Polynephritis
  • Chlamydia trachomatis
A

Hematogenous dissemination

120
Q

Which of the following is not present in each renal hilum?

  • adrenal gland
  • ureter
  • renal vein
  • renal artery
A

adrenal gland

121
Q

Which of the following could cause bilateral hydronephrosis?

  • space occupying pelvic tumor
  • cancer tumor of the hepatic flexure
  • right adrenal gland tumor
  • right renal calculi
A

space occupying pelvic tumor

122
Q

A lower urinary tract infection is usually called a?

  • Urinary tract infection
  • Pyelonephritis
  • Fungal infection
  • Cystitis
A

Cystitis

123
Q

When assessing a needle for venipuncture, the larger the “gauge” the ___________ the needle bore.

  • Larger
  • Gauge does not pertain to the size of the bore, just length.
  • Smaller
  • All needles have the same bore size.
A

Smaller

123
Q

Which iodinated contrast type has a stronger molecular bond and is less likely to cause an adverse reaction in a patient?

  • Non-ionic
  • Ionic
A

Non-ionic

124
Q

When performing venipuncture, what PPE’s should be used routinely? (Mark all that apply)

  • Gloves
  • Mask
  • Safety glasses
  • Respirator
  • Lead apron
A
  • Gloves
  • Mask
  • Safety glasses
125
Q

When disposing of a used needle after venipuncture, the best method to use is?

  • Cap and discard.
  • Hold with both hands and discard.
  • Have the patient discard the needle.
  • One hand technique.
A

One hand technique.

1532 A&P (7 decks)

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