Complications1-Table 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What causes physiologic anemia?

A

Normal changes in ratio of plasma to RBC volume

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2
Q

How is physiologic anemia reflected?

A

As decreased Hct d/t the dilutional effect relative to each trimester

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3
Q

What are lab findings associated with Iron def anemia?

A

decreased Hct

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4
Q

What finding may accompany iron def anemia?

A

PICA

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5
Q

How is iron def anemia tx in preggo people?

A

Add an additional 60-80mg elemental iron daily

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6
Q

Why it taking folate a good idea?

A

Reduce the risk of NTD

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7
Q

How much dietary folate should be taken in?

A

400-800 mcg or 0.4-0.8mg

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8
Q

How much folate is in a prenatal vitamin?

A

1mg, 1000mcg

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9
Q

What would indicate a need to increase daily folate to 4mg or 4000mcg daily?

A
  • multifetal gestation
  • mom on anticonvulsants
  • past hx of NTD pregnancy
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10
Q

What are hemoglobinopathies?

A

heterogeneous group of single gene disorders that include structural Hb variants

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11
Q

What is the Hb variant in sickle cell?

A

Hb A replaced with Hb S

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12
Q

What is sickle cell dz?

A

Homozygotes HbSS
Unstable sickled shape to RBC
Increased viscosity and hemolysis
Decreased oxygenation

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13
Q

What is sickle cell trait?

A

Heterozygoutes Hb AS

Asymptomatic

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14
Q

What is isoimmunization?

A

Formation of maternal antibodies, aka maternal alloimmunization

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15
Q

What leads to hemolytic dz of the newborn?

A

Binding of maternal antibodies to fetal RBC antigens

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16
Q

What is hemolytic dz of the newborn characterized by?

A

Hemolysis, bili relsease, anemia

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17
Q

How is the severity of hemolytic dz of the newborn determined?

A
  • how much antibody was produces
  • how strongly antibody binds to antigen
  • ability of the fetus to replenish the destroyed RBC
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18
Q

What are the 4 major blood groups determined by?

A

Presence or absence of A & B RBC surface antigens

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19
Q

What makes group A?

A

has A antigen on RBCs & B antibody in plasma

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20
Q

What makes group B?

A

has B antigen on RBCs & A antibody in plasma

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21
Q

What makes group AB?

A

has both A & B antigens on RBCs but neither A nor B antibody in plasma

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22
Q

What makes group O?

A

has neither A nor B antigens on RBCs but both A & B antibodies in plasma

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23
Q

What is the 3rd antigen? When is it a problem?

A

Rh (rhesus) factor
Either present + or absent –
Positive is ok, negative is an issue unless both mom and dad are negative

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24
Q

What is the Rh system composed of?

A

A complex of 5 antigens

C, c, D, E, e

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25
Q

What is the most common antigen? Hint its part of the Rh- CDE system

A

Antigen D

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26
Q

What is the deal with antigen D?

A

Present: Rh-D positive
Absent: Rh-D negative

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27
Q

Why is antigen D important?

A

There is isoimmunization potential when an Rh-D negative woman is preggo with a fetus that is positive!

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28
Q

How much Rh-D blood is sufficient to cause isoimmunization?

A
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29
Q

How does this work?

A

Maternal antibodies pass to baby via placenta and cause an antibody response that destroys fetal RBC

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30
Q

Is isoimmunization with Rh a concern with 1st pregnant?

A

Not really- first pregnancy is exposure to mom and second is when the fetus is typically attacked
Gets progressively worse with each subsequent pregnancy

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31
Q

What are some events that might precipitate maternal exposure to fetal RBC?

A

—1st trimester bleeding: abortion, ectopic
—Placental abruption or previa( placenta is in front of the fetus)
—Childbirth, delivery of placenta
—Procedures: amniocentesis, external cephalic version
—Trauma (fetomaternal hemorrhage), parvo, CMV, toxo, syphilis
The most common cause of events is Rh and Parvo

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32
Q

What needs to be screened for for Parvo virus?

A

IgM & IgG specific antibodies B19

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33
Q

What indicates an acute infection and need to evaluate the fetus?

A

IgM

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34
Q

What does parvo virus do?

A

inhibits erythropoiesis d/t preference for erythroid progenitor cells

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35
Q

When is the greatest fetal risk?

A
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36
Q

How is parvo assessed and diagnosed in the fetus?

A

Doppler MCA- to look at flow of blood through MCA
US- to r/o hydrops
Amniotic fluid- look for fetal blood B19 DNA

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37
Q

What finding of Doppler of MCA would indicate no fetal anemia?

A

measure blood viscosity based on peak velocity of systolic flow (PSV) … less viscous with increased flow in no anemia… more viscous and slower flow indicated anemia

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38
Q

When is the peak incidence for hydrops?

A

4-6wks following maternal infection

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39
Q

How often should you do US/ MCA Doppler?

A

Weekly through 12 weeks post infection

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40
Q

When maternal antibodies enter and bind to fetal RBC, there is significant hemolysis and release of bilirubin. What can markedly elevated bili levels lead to?

A

Kernicterus- leads to permanent neuro symptoms and death

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41
Q

Why does anemia occur with hemolysis?

A

Fetus cannot produce enough RBC to replenish the lysed RBC

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42
Q

What is significant fetal anemia?

A

increased fetal hematopoiesis w/recruitment of alternate sites for RBC production

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43
Q

What happens with the fetal liver in significant fetal anemia?

A

Decreased oncotic pressure can lead to ascites, SQ edema, or pleural effusions
High output cardiac failure and myocardial ischemia

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44
Q

What can severe anemia result in?

A

Hydrops fetalis

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45
Q

What are the 2 types of hydrops fetalis?

A

Immune

Non-immune

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46
Q

What is immune hydrops?

A

complication of severe Rh incompatibility that results massive red blood cell destruction

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47
Q

What is non-immune hydrops?

A

NIHF) caused by disease or medical condition (cardiac anomaly) that disrupts body’s ability to manage fluid

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48
Q

What would you expect to see on an US with fetal echo in hydrops?

A

—Anomalies: fetus, umbilical cord, placenta (thickening)
—Amniotic fluid volume
—Pericardial & pleural effusions, ascites

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49
Q

How are the antibodies reported? ( maternal)

A

They are reported as antibody titer… 1:4, 1:16, etc

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50
Q

What is the significance of the titer?

A

The higher the titer, the more significant antibody response

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51
Q

What titer is associated with significant risk for fetal hemolytic dz or hydrops?

A

Critical titer- 1:8- 1:32

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52
Q

What does US with fetal echo asses?

A

fluid volume, anomalies and hydropic changes

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53
Q

What is included in an amniotic fluid assessment?

A

Bili levels, genetics, ID studies

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54
Q

what should happen is an intrauterine fetal transfusion if planned?

A

Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling…PUBS

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55
Q

What is the fetal Hct cutoff for transfusion in a highrisk perinatal center?

A

30%

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56
Q

What can you do to try to prevent isoimmunization?

A

Anti-D immune globulin to all Rh-D negative women routinely at 28weeks GA AND within 72 hours of delivery or in any circumstance where fetal and maternal blood may come in contact

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57
Q

What does anit-D immune globulin do?

A

Effectively presents sensitization to the D antigen

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58
Q

What does the kleihauer- Betke test do?

A

ID fetal erythrocytes in maternal circulation

ID appropriate dose of Rh immunoglobulin to be administered

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59
Q

What does an indirect Coombs determine?

A

If the pt has received sufficient antibody

Positive result = inadequate dosing

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60
Q

What is the most important cause of hemolytic dz of the fetus NOT associated with D antigen?

A

Kell antigens (K,k)

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61
Q

What results in Kell antigens?

A

Usually from a prior blood transfusion

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62
Q

What is the result of kell antigens?

A

Unique anemia…. results from destruction & suppression of hematopoietic precursor cells but hemolysis is limited

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63
Q

What is ABO hemolytic dz?

A

Maternal fetal incompatibility associated with mild fetal anemia and newborn hyperbilirubinemia

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64
Q

What is the chorion?

A

extraembryonic mesoderm on the inner surface creates by the proliferating trophoblast

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65
Q

When does the amnion develop?

A

When cells at the dorsal surface of the embryonic disk form a transparent membranous sac (sac will fill with the amniotic fluid!)

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66
Q

What are risks associated with multifetal gestation?

A

Preterm L&D, IUGR, hydramnios, preeclampsia, placental abruption, PP hemorrhage

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67
Q

What has increased the rate of twins?

A

ART/ovulatory induction

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68
Q

What is dizygotic twin gestation?

A

Fraternal- 2 separate ova fertilized by 2 separate sperm

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69
Q

What is monozygotic twin gestation?

A

Identical: division of fertilized ovum following conception

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70
Q

What are the 4 forms of monozygotic twin gestation?

A

1) Diamnionic/Dichorionic: each fetus is surrounded by an amnion & a chorion w/1 or 2 placentas
- -Division w/in 3 days fertilization
2) Diamnionic/Monochorionic: each fetus will be surrounded by an amnion but will have a single chorion
- -Division w/in 4-8 days fertilization
3) Monoamnionic/Monochorionic: twins will share a common sac as amnion & chorion have already developed
- -Division w/in 9-12 days fertilization
4) Conjoined twins: incomplete division

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71
Q

What are the risks associated with monochorionic gesation?

A

Twin-twin transfusion syndrome

Chord entanglement and fetal death

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72
Q

What is twin- twin transfusion syndrome?

A

arterial-venous anastomoses may form between fetuses & result in blood flow from one twin to the other

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73
Q

What happens to the different fetus in twin-twin syndrome?

A

1) Donor twin: may have impaired growth, anemia, hypovolemia: have ↓ urine output → oligohydramnios
2) recipient twin: HTN, polycythemia, HF, hypervolemic: have ↑ urine output → hydramnios

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74
Q

How can twin- twin transfusion syndrome be tx?

A

Laser ablation of anastomoses

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75
Q

How is cord entanglement tx?

A

hospitalize @ 26-28 wks & steroid administration

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76
Q

When is twin gestation suspected? How is it confirmed?

A

When uterine size > GA

US: confirm twin and chorion status

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77
Q

When should serial US begin to monitor for discordant growth?

A

q3-4 wks begin @ 16-18 wks GA

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78
Q

When do multifetal gestations tend to deliver?

A

Preterm
Twin: 35 wk
Triplets: 32 wks
Quads: 30 wks

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79
Q

When can twins be delivered vaginally?

A

Both are in the cephalic position

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80
Q

When do twins need to be delivered via c-section?

A

Both breech presentation
1st twin vertex and 2nd twin isn’t
1st twin is breeched

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81
Q

What complications are associated with multifetal deliveries?

A

Higher risk of cord prolapse, postpartum atony, and hemorrhage

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82
Q

What defines SGA?

A

Infant whose birth weight is

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83
Q

What defines IUGR?

A

Fetus whose weight

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84
Q

Why are IUGR associated with higher risk?

A

Lack adequate reserves to survive in utero, deal w/stress of labor, adapt to neonatal life

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85
Q

What is the pathology behind early onset IUGR?

A

commonly associated w/hereditary factors, immunologic issues, chronic maternal disease, fetal infection, multiple pregnancies

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86
Q

What is the pathology late early onset IUGR?

A

primarily related to decreased placental function & nutrient transport = uteroplacental insufficiency

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87
Q

What meds that mom takes can affect IUGR?

A

anticonvulsants, warfarin, folic acid antagonists

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88
Q

What viral infection in mom can cause IUGR?

A

CMV, rubella, varicella

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89
Q

What placental factors can lead to IUGR?

A

Defective trophoblastic invasion of placenta
Uterine abnormalities: limit placental growth & development,
Genetic composition of placenta

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90
Q

How is IUGR diagnosed?

A

FH-serial measurements, US, direct invasive studies

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91
Q

What is FH looking for to diagnose IUGR?

A

20 - 36 weeks EGA: height should increase approx 1 cm/week

discrepancy >2cm may indicate IUGR

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92
Q

What is the US examining?

A

Fetal biometric parameters (provide estimated growth rate of fetus)

  • biparietal diameter (BPD)
  • head circumference (HC)
  • abdominal circumference (AC)
  • femur length
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93
Q

What direct invasive studies are used to look for IUGR?

A

Amniocentesis
Doppler velocimetry
Doppler MCA flow

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94
Q

What does Doppler velocimetry asses? What is normal?

A

Fetal-placental circulation in umbilical artery - measure systolic/diastolic (S/D) ratio
—Normal ratio @ term = 1.8 to 2.0

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95
Q

What is the management goal of IUGR fetus?

A

Deliver the healthiest possible infant and the optimal time

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96
Q

What should staff be prepped for when delivering a fetus with IUGR?

A

hypoglycemia, RDS, hypothermia, hyperviscosity syndrome

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97
Q

What is hyperviscosity syndrome?

A

d/t fetus’s attempt to compensate for poor placental oxygen transfer by increasing Hct > 65% marked polycythemia s/p birth

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98
Q

What can hyperviscosity syndrome lead to?

A

multiorgan thrombosis, HF, hyperbilirubinemia

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99
Q

What is LGA?

A

Infant whose birth weight > 90% for GA based on population specifics

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100
Q

What is macrosomia?

A

Fetus weighing > 4,500 grams (9 lbs = 4,800 grams or 4.8 kg)

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101
Q

What maternal factors contribute to macrosomia?

A
Prior hx macrosomia
Maternal prepregnancy weight, wt gain during pregnancy
Multiparity
GA > 40 weeks
Ethnicity
Maternal birth weight/height
Maternal age
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102
Q

What risks are associated wit macrosomia for the fetus?

A

Shoulder dystocia, brachial plexus injury, fx clavicle

If mom obese or DM: hypoglycemia, prematurity, stillbirth, hypothermia

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103
Q

What risks are associated wit macrosomia for mom?

A
  • Cesarean delivery
  • Postpartum atony/hemorrhage
  • Vaginal lacerations
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104
Q

How is macrosomia diagnosed?

A

Clinical estimation of fetal weight
- serial FH and Leopold
US
- fetal biometric parameters

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105
Q

What other conditions should you have on your DDX when dealing with macrosomia?

A

—Multifetal gestation
—Polyhydramnios
—Large placenta: molar IUP
—Large uterus: fibroids

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106
Q

How is macrosomia managed?

A

Non- GDM: no intervention, balance C section vs vaginal for safety
GDM: strict control of blood glucose and elective c section if EFW>4500

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107
Q

When is amniotic fluid produced?

A

Continuously after 16 wks

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108
Q

What is the role of amniotic fluid?

A

Protects against infection, trauma, umbilical cord compression, allows fetal mvmt and breathing

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109
Q

What is PROM? What is PPROM?

A

premature rupture of membranes before onset of labor; >37 weeks and is followed often by labor
Preterm PROM : occurs

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110
Q

What is the leading cause of neonate mobidity and mortality?

A

PPROM

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5
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111
Q

When is it a PPROM previable subset?

A

20-25.6 weeks

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112
Q

What can cause P/PP ROM?

A

STDs around 32 weeks, subclinical infection

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113
Q

What are risk factors?

A

Prior PROM, short cervical length, prior preterm delivery, multifetal gestation, threatened AB, polyhydramnios, smokers

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114
Q

What are major risks for P/PP ROM?

A

intrauterine infection (chorioamnionitis), prolapsed cord, placental abruption

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115
Q

What is Chorioamnionitis?

A

Infection of membranes & amniotic fluid fever

Risk of sepsis leading to CP and CAN abnormalities in baby

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116
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Chorioamnionitis?

A

fever > 100.5F, maternal & fetal tachycardia, uterine tenderness, spontaneous/dysfunctional labor
mom describes gush of fluid or a steady leak
late sign: purulent cervical discharge

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117
Q

How is Chorioamnionitis diagnosed?

A

Clinically- labs are non-specific

Vaginal fluid = amniotic fluid until proven otherwise!!!

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118
Q

What test will rile in amniotic fluid?

A

—Nitrazine test: uses pH to distinguish amniotic fluid from urine or vaginal secretions
•Amniotic fluid: alkaline w/pH > 7.1, vaginal secretions: pH 4.5-6.0; urine: pH

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119
Q

What should you look for on US in choriamnionitis?

A

Large pockets vs very little fluid

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120
Q

How is Chorioamnionitis tx?

A

IV antibiotics, deliver promptly

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121
Q

How is term PROM managed?

A

Induction with oxytocin or expectant management… most will go into labor within 24hrs

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122
Q

When can you do expectant management for PROM?

A

If there are no other risk factors, just make sure to do serial eval for IU infections

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123
Q

What is done regardless of management for PROM?

A

GBS prophylaxis

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124
Q

What is the latency period?

A

Time from PROM to labor and is inversely related to GA

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125
Q

How is PPROM managed?

A

34 wks: deliver
32-33: steroid for lung maturation
24-31: admit mom, abx, steroid for lungs, daily fetal assessment by US with CBC.WBC, try to manage expectantly until complete 33 weeks

126
Q

What are common causes of third trimester bleeding?

A

Intercourse, vaginitis, recent pelvic exam (cervix highly vascular & friable)

127
Q

What are the 2 most common causes?

A

Placenta previa

Placental abruption

128
Q

Third trimester bleeding is considered what?

A

A true OB EMERGENCY

129
Q

How is third trimester bleeding managed?

A
  • Admit
  • Establish IV access
  • Labs: CBC, coagulation panel, blood type & screen (cross match 4 units), Rh status, Kleihauer-Betke test
  • US: placental location
  • Electronic monitoring of fetal heart
130
Q

When does placenta previa occur?

A

When the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical oz

131
Q

What are the forms of previa?

A

—Complete: total coverage of internal cervical os
-Rarely resolves spontaneously
—Partial: overlies part of internal cervical os
—Low-lying: extends into lower uterine segment but does not reach internal cervical os

132
Q

Which form of previa usually resolves?

A

Low-lying partial

133
Q

What are risk factors for placenta previa?

A

advanced age, smoking, cocaine use, multiparity, previous history of previa

134
Q

What will be the typical pt presentation with previa?

A

Painless vaginal bleeding

135
Q

How is previa diagnosed?

A

US

136
Q

How is previa managed?

A

—1st episode usually cease in 1 - 2 hours
—Patient will be observed closely
-Either admit to Maternal Special Care Unit or compliant patients (stable condition, live close to hospital, have someone w/them at all times) can be monitored as an outpatient
—Patient delivered by C-section between 36 - 38 weeks
-s/p amniocentesis: fetal lung maturity

137
Q

What are complications of previa?

A

—Hemorrhage

—Placenta may be abnormally adherent to uterine wall

138
Q

What are the placenta to wall abnormalities?

A
  • Placenta accrete: placental tissue extends into superficial layer of myometrium
  • Placenta increta: extends further into myometrium
  • Placenta percreta: extends completely through myometrium to serosa & sometimes adjacent organs
139
Q

What is placental abruption?

A

Abruptio placentae…. Abnormal premature separation of normally implanted placenta after 20th week of gestation but before birth

140
Q

What are the types of abruption?

A

—Complete: entire placenta separates
—Partial: only portion separates
—Marginal: limited to edge of placenta

141
Q

What is the cause of abruption?

A

bleeding in decidua basalis causes separation of the placenta —- concealed hemorrhage

142
Q

What are risk factors for abruption?

A

—Trauma, previous hx of abruption, chronic HTN, preeclampsia, multifetal gestation, advanced maternal age, multiparity, smoking, cocaine, chorioamnionitis

143
Q

What are the clinical features of abruption?

A

—Hx: painful vaginal bleeding: uterine, abdominal or back pain
—PE: tender uterus on palpation

144
Q

How is abruption diagnosed?

A

US

145
Q

How is abruption managed?

A

—Monitor: VS, IV fluids, deliver w/severe hemorrhage

–C-section: most common but vaginal delivery possible especially w/rapid labor

146
Q

What are complications of abruption?

A

Couvelaire uterus

Coagulopathy: DIC

147
Q

What is couvelaire uterus?

A

blood will penetrate uterus causing serosa to appear blue or purple

148
Q

How is couvelaire uterus diagnosed?

A

Kleihauer-Betke test… determine amount of Rh-D needed and need for transfusion

149
Q

What should you look at to confirm DIC?

A

PT/INR & aPTT – both prolonged; platelet count low

150
Q

What is vasa previa?

A

Passage of fetal blood vessels over internal os below presenting part of fetus

151
Q

Where can vasa previa occur?

A

Velamentous insertion: fetal blood vessels insert into membranes between amnion & chorion instead of the placenta & not protected by Wharton jelly

Succenturiate lobe: lobe of the placenta separates from the main placenta

152
Q

What is a uterine rupture?

A

Spontaneous complete transection of uterus from endometrium to serosa

153
Q

What are the types of uterine rupture?

A
Partial rupture (uterine dehiscence) when peritoneum remains intact 
Complete rupture: fetal expulsion into abdomen w/ fetal mortality 50 -75%
154
Q

Where do most uterine ruptures occur?

A

Site of previous C section

155
Q

What are risk factors for uterine rupture?

A

vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC)

156
Q

What determines survivability?

A

whether large portion of placenta remains attached and how fast operative delivery is accomplished

157
Q

What causes physiologic anemia?

A

Normal changes in ratio of plasma to RBC volume

158
Q

How is physiologic anemia reflected?

A

As decreased Hct d/t the dilutional effect relative to each trimester

159
Q

What are lab findings associated with Iron def anemia?

A

decreased Hct

160
Q

What finding may accompany iron def anemia?

A

PICA

161
Q

How is iron def anemia tx in preggo people?

A

Add an additional 60-80mg elemental iron daily

162
Q

Why it taking folate a good idea?

A

Reduce the risk of NTD

163
Q

How much dietary folate should be taken in?

A

400-800 mcg or 0.4-0.8mg

164
Q

How much folate is in a prenatal vitamin?

A

1mg, 1000mcg

165
Q

What would indicate a need to increase daily folate to 4mg or 4000mcg daily?

A
  • multifetal gestation
  • mom on anticonvulsants
  • past hx of NTD pregnancy
166
Q

What are hemoglobinopathies?

A

heterogeneous group of single gene disorders that include structural Hb variants

167
Q

What is the Hb variant in sickle cell?

A

Hb A replaced with Hb S

168
Q

What is sickle cell dz?

A

Homozygotes HbSS
Unstable sickled shape to RBC
Increased viscosity and hemolysis
Decreased oxygenation

169
Q

What is sickle cell trait?

A

Heterozygoutes Hb AS

Asymptomatic

170
Q

What is isoimmunization?

A

Formation of maternal antibodies, aka maternal alloimmunization

171
Q

What leads to hemolytic dz of the newborn?

A

Binding of maternal antibodies to fetal RBC antigens

172
Q

What is hemolytic dz of the newborn characterized by?

A

Hemolysis, bili relsease, anemia

173
Q

How is the severity of hemolytic dz of the newborn determined?

A
  • how much antibody was produces
  • how strongly antibody binds to antigen
  • ability of the fetus to replenish the destroyed RBC
174
Q

What are the 4 major blood groups determined by?

A

Presence or absence of A & B RBC surface antigens

175
Q

What makes group A?

A

has A antigen on RBCs & B antibody in plasma

176
Q

What makes group B?

A

has B antigen on RBCs & A antibody in plasma

177
Q

What makes group AB?

A

has both A & B antigens on RBCs but neither A nor B antibody in plasma

178
Q

What makes group O?

A

has neither A nor B antigens on RBCs but both A & B antibodies in plasma

179
Q

What is the 3rd antigen? When is it a problem?

A

Rh (rhesus) factor
Either present + or absent –
Positive is ok, negative is an issue unless both mom and dad are negative

180
Q

What is the Rh system composed of?

A

A complex of 5 antigens

C, c, D, E, e

181
Q

What is the most common antigen? Hint its part of the Rh- CDE system

A

Antigen D

182
Q

What is the deal with antigen D?

A

Present: Rh-D positive
Absent: Rh-D negative

183
Q

Why is antigen D important?

A

There is isoimmunization potential when an Rh-D negative woman is preggo with a fetus that is positive!

184
Q

How much Rh-D blood is sufficient to cause isoimmunization?

A
185
Q

How does this work?

A

Maternal antibodies pass to baby via placenta and cause an antibody response that destroys fetal RBC

186
Q

Is isoimmunization with Rh a concern with 1st pregnant?

A

Not really- first pregnancy is exposure to mom and second is when the fetus is typically attacked
Gets progressively worse with each subsequent pregnancy

187
Q

What are some events that might precipitate maternal exposure to fetal RBC?

A

—1st trimester bleeding: abortion, ectopic
—Placental abruption or previa( placenta is in front of the fetus)
—Childbirth, delivery of placenta
—Procedures: amniocentesis, external cephalic version
—Trauma (fetomaternal hemorrhage), parvo, CMV, toxo, syphilis
The most common cause of events is Rh and Parvo

188
Q

What needs to be screened for for Parvo virus?

A

IgM & IgG specific antibodies B19

189
Q

What indicates an acute infection and need to evaluate the fetus?

A

IgM

190
Q

What does parvo virus do?

A

inhibits erythropoiesis d/t preference for erythroid progenitor cells

191
Q

When is the greatest fetal risk?

A
192
Q

How is parvo assessed and diagnosed in the fetus?

A

Doppler MCA- to look at flow of blood through MCA
US- to r/o hydrops
Amniotic fluid- look for fetal blood B19 DNA

193
Q

What finding of Doppler of MCA would indicate no fetal anemia?

A

measure blood viscosity based on peak velocity of systolic flow (PSV) … less viscous with increased flow in no anemia… more viscous and slower flow indicated anemia

194
Q

When is the peak incidence for hydrops?

A

4-6wks following maternal infection

195
Q

How often should you do US/ MCA Doppler?

A

Weekly through 12 weeks post infection

196
Q

When maternal antibodies enter and bind to fetal RBC, there is significant hemolysis and release of bilirubin. What can markedly elevated bili levels lead to?

A

Kernicterus- leads to permanent neuro symptoms and death

197
Q

Why does anemia occur with hemolysis?

A

Fetus cannot produce enough RBC to replenish the lysed RBC

198
Q

What is significant fetal anemia?

A

increased fetal hematopoiesis w/recruitment of alternate sites for RBC production

199
Q

What happens with the fetal liver in significant fetal anemia?

A

Decreased oncotic pressure can lead to ascites, SQ edema, or pleural effusions
High output cardiac failure and myocardial ischemia

200
Q

What can severe anemia result in?

A

Hydrops fetalis

201
Q

What are the 2 types of hydrops fetalis?

A

Immune

Non-immune

202
Q

What is immune hydrops?

A

complication of severe Rh incompatibility that results massive red blood cell destruction

203
Q

What is non-immune hydrops?

A

NIHF) caused by disease or medical condition (cardiac anomaly) that disrupts body’s ability to manage fluid

204
Q

What would you expect to see on an US with fetal echo in hydrops?

A

—Anomalies: fetus, umbilical cord, placenta (thickening)
—Amniotic fluid volume
—Pericardial & pleural effusions, ascites

205
Q

How are the antibodies reported? ( maternal)

A

They are reported as antibody titer… 1:4, 1:16, etc

206
Q

What is the significance of the titer?

A

The higher the titer, the more significant antibody response

207
Q

What titer is associated with significant risk for fetal hemolytic dz or hydrops?

A

Critical titer- 1:8- 1:32

208
Q

What does US with fetal echo asses?

A

fluid volume, anomalies and hydropic changes

209
Q

What is included in an amniotic fluid assessment?

A

Bili levels, genetics, ID studies

210
Q

what should happen is an intrauterine fetal transfusion if planned?

A

Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling…PUBS

211
Q

What is the fetal Hct cutoff for transfusion in a highrisk perinatal center?

A

30%

212
Q

What can you do to try to prevent isoimmunization?

A

Anti-D immune globulin to all Rh-D negative women routinely at 28weeks GA AND within 72 hours of delivery or in any circumstance where fetal and maternal blood may come in contact

213
Q

What does anit-D immune globulin do?

A

Effectively presents sensitization to the D antigen

214
Q

What does the kleihauer- Betke test do?

A

ID fetal erythrocytes in maternal circulation

ID appropriate dose of Rh immunoglobulin to be administered

215
Q

What does an indirect Coombs determine?

A

If the pt has received sufficient antibody

Positive result = inadequate dosing

216
Q

What is the most important cause of hemolytic dz of the fetus NOT associated with D antigen?

A

Kell antigens (K,k)

217
Q

What results in Kell antigens?

A

Usually from a prior blood transfusion

218
Q

What is the result of kell antigens?

A

Unique anemia…. results from destruction & suppression of hematopoietic precursor cells but hemolysis is limited

219
Q

What is ABO hemolytic dz?

A

Maternal fetal incompatibility associated with mild fetal anemia and newborn hyperbilirubinemia

220
Q

What is the chorion?

A

extraembryonic mesoderm on the inner surface creates by the proliferating trophoblast

221
Q

When does the amnion develop?

A

When cells at the dorsal surface of the embryonic disk form a transparent membranous sac (sac will fill with the amniotic fluid!)

222
Q

What are risks associated with multifetal gestation?

A

Preterm L&D, IUGR, hydramnios, preeclampsia, placental abruption, PP hemorrhage

223
Q

What has increased the rate of twins?

A

ART/ovulatory induction

224
Q

What is dizygotic twin gestation?

A

Fraternal- 2 separate ova fertilized by 2 separate sperm

225
Q

What is monozygotic twin gestation?

A

Identical: division of fertilized ovum following conception

226
Q

What are the 4 forms of monozygotic twin gestation?

A

1) Diamnionic/Dichorionic: each fetus is surrounded by an amnion & a chorion w/1 or 2 placentas
- -Division w/in 3 days fertilization
2) Diamnionic/Monochorionic: each fetus will be surrounded by an amnion but will have a single chorion
- -Division w/in 4-8 days fertilization
3) Monoamnionic/Monochorionic: twins will share a common sac as amnion & chorion have already developed
- -Division w/in 9-12 days fertilization
4) Conjoined twins: incomplete division

227
Q

What are the risks associated with monochorionic gesation?

A

Twin-twin transfusion syndrome

Chord entanglement and fetal death

228
Q

What is twin- twin transfusion syndrome?

A

arterial-venous anastomoses may form between fetuses & result in blood flow from one twin to the other

229
Q

What happens to the different fetus in twin-twin syndrome?

A

1) Donor twin: may have impaired growth, anemia, hypovolemia: have ↓ urine output → oligohydramnios
2) recipient twin: HTN, polycythemia, HF, hypervolemic: have ↑ urine output → hydramnios

230
Q

How can twin- twin transfusion syndrome be tx?

A

Laser ablation of anastomoses

231
Q

How is cord entanglement tx?

A

hospitalize @ 26-28 wks & steroid administration

232
Q

When is twin gestation suspected? How is it confirmed?

A

When uterine size > GA

US: confirm twin and chorion status

233
Q

When should serial US begin to monitor for discordant growth?

A

q3-4 wks begin @ 16-18 wks GA

234
Q

When do multifetal gestations tend to deliver?

A

Preterm
Twin: 35 wk
Triplets: 32 wks
Quads: 30 wks

235
Q

When can twins be delivered vaginally?

A

Both are in the cephalic position

236
Q

When do twins need to be delivered via c-section?

A

Both breech presentation
1st twin vertex and 2nd twin isn’t
1st twin is breeched

237
Q

What complications are associated with multifetal deliveries?

A

Higher risk of cord prolapse, postpartum atony, and hemorrhage

238
Q

What defines SGA?

A

Infant whose birth weight is

239
Q

What defines IUGR?

A

Fetus whose weight

240
Q

Why are IUGR associated with higher risk?

A

Lack adequate reserves to survive in utero, deal w/stress of labor, adapt to neonatal life

241
Q

What is the pathology behind early onset IUGR?

A

commonly associated w/hereditary factors, immunologic issues, chronic maternal disease, fetal infection, multiple pregnancies

242
Q

What is the pathology late early onset IUGR?

A

primarily related to decreased placental function & nutrient transport = uteroplacental insufficiency

243
Q

What meds that mom takes can affect IUGR?

A

anticonvulsants, warfarin, folic acid antagonists

244
Q

What viral infection in mom can cause IUGR?

A

CMV, rubella, varicella

245
Q

What placental factors can lead to IUGR?

A

Defective trophoblastic invasion of placenta
Uterine abnormalities: limit placental growth & development,
Genetic composition of placenta

246
Q

How is IUGR diagnosed?

A

FH-serial measurements, US, direct invasive studies

247
Q

What is FH looking for to diagnose IUGR?

A

20 - 36 weeks EGA: height should increase approx 1 cm/week

discrepancy >2cm may indicate IUGR

248
Q

What is the US examining?

A

Fetal biometric parameters (provide estimated growth rate of fetus)

  • biparietal diameter (BPD)
  • head circumference (HC)
  • abdominal circumference (AC)
  • femur length
249
Q

What direct invasive studies are used to look for IUGR?

A

Amniocentesis
Doppler velocimetry
Doppler MCA flow

250
Q

What does Doppler velocimetry asses? What is normal?

A

Fetal-placental circulation in umbilical artery - measure systolic/diastolic (S/D) ratio
—Normal ratio @ term = 1.8 to 2.0

251
Q

What is the management goal of IUGR fetus?

A

Deliver the healthiest possible infant and the optimal time

252
Q

What should staff be prepped for when delivering a fetus with IUGR?

A

hypoglycemia, RDS, hypothermia, hyperviscosity syndrome

253
Q

What is hyperviscosity syndrome?

A

d/t fetus’s attempt to compensate for poor placental oxygen transfer by increasing Hct > 65% marked polycythemia s/p birth

254
Q

What can hyperviscosity syndrome lead to?

A

multiorgan thrombosis, HF, hyperbilirubinemia

255
Q

What is LGA?

A

Infant whose birth weight > 90% for GA based on population specifics

256
Q

What is macrosomia?

A

Fetus weighing > 4,500 grams (9 lbs = 4,800 grams or 4.8 kg)

257
Q

What maternal factors contribute to macrosomia?

A
Prior hx macrosomia
Maternal prepregnancy weight, wt gain during pregnancy
Multiparity
GA > 40 weeks
Ethnicity
Maternal birth weight/height
Maternal age
258
Q

What risks are associated wit macrosomia for the fetus?

A

Shoulder dystocia, brachial plexus injury, fx clavicle

If mom obese or DM: hypoglycemia, prematurity, stillbirth, hypothermia

259
Q

What risks are associated wit macrosomia for mom?

A
  • Cesarean delivery
  • Postpartum atony/hemorrhage
  • Vaginal lacerations
260
Q

How is macrosomia diagnosed?

A

Clinical estimation of fetal weight
- serial FH and Leopold
US
- fetal biometric parameters

261
Q

What other conditions should you have on your DDX when dealing with macrosomia?

A

—Multifetal gestation
—Polyhydramnios
—Large placenta: molar IUP
—Large uterus: fibroids

262
Q

How is macrosomia managed?

A

Non- GDM: no intervention, balance C section vs vaginal for safety
GDM: strict control of blood glucose and elective c section if EFW>4500

263
Q

When is amniotic fluid produced?

A

Continuously after 16 wks

264
Q

What is the role of amniotic fluid?

A

Protects against infection, trauma, umbilical cord compression, allows fetal mvmt and breathing

265
Q

What is PROM? What is PPROM?

A

premature rupture of membranes before onset of labor; >37 weeks and is followed often by labor
Preterm PROM : occurs

266
Q

What is the leading cause of neonate mobidity and mortality?

A

PPROM

267
Q

When is it a PPROM previable subset?

A

20-25.6 weeks

268
Q

What can cause P/PP ROM?

A

STDs around 32 weeks, subclinical infection

269
Q

What are risk factors?

A

Prior PROM, short cervical length, prior preterm delivery, multifetal gestation, threatened AB, polyhydramnios, smokers

270
Q

What are major risks for P/PP ROM?

A

intrauterine infection (chorioamnionitis), prolapsed cord, placental abruption

271
Q

What is Chorioamnionitis?

A

Infection of membranes & amniotic fluid fever

Risk of sepsis leading to CP and CAN abnormalities in baby

272
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Chorioamnionitis?

A

fever > 100.5F, maternal & fetal tachycardia, uterine tenderness, spontaneous/dysfunctional labor
mom describes gush of fluid or a steady leak
late sign: purulent cervical discharge

273
Q

How is Chorioamnionitis diagnosed?

A

Clinically- labs are non-specific

Vaginal fluid = amniotic fluid until proven otherwise!!!

274
Q

What test will rile in amniotic fluid?

A

—Nitrazine test: uses pH to distinguish amniotic fluid from urine or vaginal secretions
•Amniotic fluid: alkaline w/pH > 7.1, vaginal secretions: pH 4.5-6.0; urine: pH

275
Q

What should you look for on US in choriamnionitis?

A

Large pockets vs very little fluid

276
Q

How is Chorioamnionitis tx?

A

IV antibiotics, deliver promptly

277
Q

How is term PROM managed?

A

Induction with oxytocin or expectant management… most will go into labor within 24hrs

278
Q

When can you do expectant management for PROM?

A

If there are no other risk factors, just make sure to do serial eval for IU infections

279
Q

What is done regardless of management for PROM?

A

GBS prophylaxis

280
Q

What is the latency period?

A

Time from PROM to labor and is inversely related to GA

281
Q

How is PPROM managed?

A

34 wks: deliver
32-33: steroid for lung maturation
24-31: admit mom, abx, steroid for lungs, daily fetal assessment by US with CBC.WBC, try to manage expectantly until complete 33 weeks

282
Q

What are common causes of third trimester bleeding?

A

Intercourse, vaginitis, recent pelvic exam (cervix highly vascular & friable)

283
Q

What are the 2 most common causes?

A

Placenta previa

Placental abruption

284
Q

Third trimester bleeding is considered what?

A

A true OB EMERGENCY

285
Q

How is third trimester bleeding managed?

A
  • Admit
  • Establish IV access
  • Labs: CBC, coagulation panel, blood type & screen (cross match 4 units), Rh status, Kleihauer-Betke test
  • US: placental location
  • Electronic monitoring of fetal heart
286
Q

When does placenta previa occur?

A

When the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical oz

287
Q

What are the forms of previa?

A

—Complete: total coverage of internal cervical os
-Rarely resolves spontaneously
—Partial: overlies part of internal cervical os
—Low-lying: extends into lower uterine segment but does not reach internal cervical os

288
Q

Which form of previa usually resolves?

A

Low-lying partial

289
Q

What are risk factors for placenta previa?

A

advanced age, smoking, cocaine use, multiparity, previous history of previa

290
Q

What will be the typical pt presentation with previa?

A

Painless vaginal bleeding

291
Q

How is previa diagnosed?

A

US

292
Q

How is previa managed?

A

—1st episode usually cease in 1 - 2 hours
—Patient will be observed closely
-Either admit to Maternal Special Care Unit or compliant patients (stable condition, live close to hospital, have someone w/them at all times) can be monitored as an outpatient
—Patient delivered by C-section between 36 - 38 weeks
-s/p amniocentesis: fetal lung maturity

293
Q

What are complications of previa?

A

—Hemorrhage

—Placenta may be abnormally adherent to uterine wall

294
Q

What are the placenta to wall abnormalities?

A
  • Placenta accrete: placental tissue extends into superficial layer of myometrium
  • Placenta increta: extends further into myometrium
  • Placenta percreta: extends completely through myometrium to serosa & sometimes adjacent organs
295
Q

What is placental abruption?

A

Abruptio placentae…. Abnormal premature separation of normally implanted placenta after 20th week of gestation but before birth

296
Q

What are the types of abruption?

A

—Complete: entire placenta separates
—Partial: only portion separates
—Marginal: limited to edge of placenta

297
Q

What is the cause of abruption?

A

bleeding in decidua basalis causes separation of the placenta —- concealed hemorrhage

298
Q

What are risk factors for abruption?

A

—Trauma, previous hx of abruption, chronic HTN, preeclampsia, multifetal gestation, advanced maternal age, multiparity, smoking, cocaine, chorioamnionitis

299
Q

What are the clinical features of abruption?

A

—Hx: painful vaginal bleeding: uterine, abdominal or back pain
—PE: tender uterus on palpation

300
Q

How is abruption diagnosed?

A

US

301
Q

How is abruption managed?

A

—Monitor: VS, IV fluids, deliver w/severe hemorrhage

–C-section: most common but vaginal delivery possible especially w/rapid labor

302
Q

What are complications of abruption?

A

Couvelaire uterus

Coagulopathy: DIC

303
Q

What is couvelaire uterus?

A

blood will penetrate uterus causing serosa to appear blue or purple

304
Q

How is couvelaire uterus diagnosed?

A

Kleihauer-Betke test… determine amount of Rh-D needed and need for transfusion

305
Q

What should you look at to confirm DIC?

A

PT/INR & aPTT – both prolonged; platelet count low

306
Q

What is vasa previa?

A

Passage of fetal blood vessels over internal os below presenting part of fetus

307
Q

Where can vasa previa occur?

A

Velamentous insertion: fetal blood vessels insert into membranes between amnion & chorion instead of the placenta & not protected by Wharton jelly

Succenturiate lobe: lobe of the placenta separates from the main placenta

308
Q

What is a uterine rupture?

A

Spontaneous complete transection of uterus from endometrium to serosa

309
Q

What are the types of uterine rupture?

A
Partial rupture (uterine dehiscence) when peritoneum remains intact 
Complete rupture: fetal expulsion into abdomen w/ fetal mortality 50 -75%
310
Q

Where do most uterine ruptures occur?

A

Site of previous C section

311
Q

What are risk factors for uterine rupture?

A

vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC)

312
Q

What determines survivability?

A

whether large portion of placenta remains attached and how fast operative delivery is accomplished