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Complex Final Exam New Info Flashcards

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1
Q

What happens to the lens of the eye with cataracts?

A

clouding

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2
Q

What do cataracts interfere with?

A

the ability to see images clearly

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3
Q

What does glaucoma increase?

A

intraocular pressure (IOP)

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4
Q

What is normal IOP?

A

10-20

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5
Q

What type of vision is lost with glaucoma?

A

peripheral vision

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6
Q

Which type of glaucoma is most common?

A

open-angle

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7
Q

What type of vision is lost with macular degeneration?

A

central vision

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8
Q

What are the characteristics of DRY AMD?

A
  • more common
  • gradual blackage
  • painless
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9
Q

What are the characteristics of WET AMD?

A
  • less common
  • more severe
  • rapid onset
  • thin blood vessels leak blood/fluid
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10
Q

What should you use to examine the eye with cataracts?

A
  • snellen chart
  • ophthalmoscope
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11
Q

Should the light be increased or decreased in the room of someone with cataracts?

A

increased

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12
Q

What adaptive devices can be used for cataracts?

A
  • magnifying lens
  • large print books
  • talking clock
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13
Q

What should you monitor for post-cataract surgery?

A

nausea and severe eye pain

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14
Q

What should you assess with glaucoma?

A

visual acuity and visual fields

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15
Q

When talking to a patient with MD, what should you do?

A
  • introduce yourself and say goodbye
  • make eye contact
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16
Q

What assistive devices can be used for MD?

A
  • braille
  • audiobooks
  • text-to-speech
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17
Q

What is atropine 1% ophthalmic solution used for?

A

cataracts
- prevents pupil constriction
- relaxes muscles in the eye

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18
Q

What is timolol used for?

A

open-angle glaucoma 1st line tx
- decreases IOP

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19
Q

What are some side effects of timolol?

A
  • bronchoconstriction
  • hypoglycemia
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20
Q

What is pilocarpine ophthalmic solution used for?

A

open-angle glaucoma
- pupil constriction
- increases circulation

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21
Q

What is the antidote for pilocarpine ophthalmic solution?

A

atropine

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22
Q

What is the side effect of the pilocarpine ophthalmic solution?

A

blurred vision

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23
Q

What are the “-mide’s” used for in open-angle glaucoma?

A

decreases IOP

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24
Q

What is IV/oral mannitol used for?

A

closed-angle glaucoma
- emergency tx to decrease IOP

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25
Q

What medications slows the rate of vision loss in macular degeneration?

A

intravitreal injectable drugs (antiangiogenic)
- bevacizumab
- ranibizumab

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26
Q

When should you get eye exams with cataracts?

A

annually

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27
Q

When should you avoid driving with cataracts?

A

at night

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28
Q

When should those aged 40-64 get dilated eye exams for glaucoma?

A

every 2-4 years

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29
Q

When should those over 65 y/o get dilated eye exams for glaucoma?

A

every 1-2 years

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30
Q

How long do those with glaucoma have to use eyedrops?

A

lifelong

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31
Q

How should you instill eye drops for glaucoma?

A
  • one drop each eye 2 times/day
  • wait 5-10 minutes between drops is more than one is needed per eye
  • do not touch applicator to eye
  • apply pressure to inner corner of eye and pinch eyelid closed after instilling
  • wash hands before and after
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32
Q

What vitamins are important for cataracts?

A

C and E

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33
Q

What vitamins are important for MD?

A

C, E, B12, beta-carotene, zinc, copper, carotene (Vitamin A)

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34
Q

What foods are high in carotene (vitamin A)?

A
  • orange/yellow fruits & veggies
  • apricots, carrots, yams, squash, cantelope
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35
Q

What kind of pain is felt with peripheral neuropathy?

A

aching, shooting, burning

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36
Q

What happens to the extremities with peripheral neuropathy?

A

numbness, tingling

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37
Q

What is felt in the feet and hands with peripheral neuropathy?

A

pins, needles

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38
Q

What vitamin should you increase your intake of with peripheral neuropathy?

A

vitamin B12

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39
Q

What is important with foot care?

A
  • test water temp with hand
  • close-toed shoes
  • NO lotion
  • massage (UNLESS DIABETIC)
  • avoid repetitive motion and prolonged pressure
  • guided imagery, relaxation techniques
  • look at feet daily
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40
Q

What forms on the myelin sheath with MS?

A

plaques

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41
Q

What is myelin replaced with in MS?

A

glial scar tissue

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42
Q

How does MS affect the eyes?

A
  • loss of vision
  • diPloPia (double vision)
  • nystagmus
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43
Q

What is Uhtoff’s sign (MS)?

A

decreased motor function and worsening of vision after being in heat (hot bath/shower)

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44
Q

How can the Romberg test be used for MS?

A

to assess balance because loss of balance is a symptom of MS

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45
Q

How does MS affect the brain?

A
  • fatigue/brain fog
  • mild depression
  • ataxia (impaired coordination)
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46
Q

How does MS affect the muscles?

A
  • impairment of the trunk/limbs
  • spasticity
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47
Q

How does MS affect the extremities?

A
  • numbness/tingling/pain in extremities
  • fine tremors of the fingers
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48
Q

What immunosuppressants decrease the frequency of relapse in MS?

A
  • azathioprine
  • cyclosporine
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49
Q

What does the steroid prednisone do in MS?

A

decrease inflammation

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50
Q

What antispasmodics can be used to treat spasticity and stiffness with MS?

A
  • dantrolene
  • baclofen
  • diazepam
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51
Q

What is carbamazepine used for with MS?

A

paresthesias

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52
Q

How is propranolol used in MS?

A

to treat tremors

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53
Q

What does CSF show increases in for MS?

A
  • protein
  • WBC (slightly)
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54
Q

What does an MRI show in someone who has MS?

A

lesions/plaques of the brain and spine

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55
Q

Who should a patient with MS be referred to for problems with walking?

A

PT/OT

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56
Q

What are the classic symptoms of Parkinson’s Disease?

A
  • tremors
    -muscle rigidity
  • shuffling gait
  • bradykinesia
  • shakiness
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57
Q

What neurotransmitters are involved with Parkinson’s?

A
  • increased acetylcholine (tremors)
  • decreased dopamine
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58
Q

Why should you slowly increase Levodopa?

A

to avoid resistance

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59
Q

How does Levodopa affect bodily fluids?

A

turns them dark

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60
Q

What is a side effect of amantadine?

A

drowsiness

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61
Q

What type of food should you avoid with Parkinson’s? What should you eat more of?

A
  • avoid high-protein foods
  • increase calories
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62
Q

What type of chair should someone with Parkinson’s sit in?

A

an upright chair to facilitate standing and sitting and for eating and drinking

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63
Q

Who should a patient with Parkinson’s be referred to for LTC?

A

PT

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64
Q

What type of foods should someone with Parkinson’s eat if swallowing is affected?

A

thick foods

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65
Q

How should you speak to someone with Parkinson’s?

A

slowly with frequent pauses, using alternative communication if needed

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66
Q

Why should you space out meds and protein intake with Parkinson’s?

A

they compete for space
- LEVadopa does not LEAVE enough room for protein

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67
Q

What are the characteristics of normal cartilage?

A

smooth, white, translucent
- can withstand wear and strain

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68
Q

What are the characteristics of osteoarthritis cartilage?

A

dull, yellow, granular

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69
Q

How does cartilage get damaged?

A

by injury or use, destruction outweighs production

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70
Q

What happens to the bones when there is damaged/no cartilage?

A

they rub against each other, causing the synovium to become inflamed

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71
Q

When does joint pain occur with OA?

A

during motion/activity

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72
Q

When does joint stiffness occur with OA?

A

after rest/static positions, “early morning stiffness”

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73
Q

Crepitation occurs with OA. What is crepitation?

A

bones rubbing together

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74
Q

What forms osteocytes in the hands and fingers?

A

Heberden’s nodes and Bouchard’s nodes

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75
Q

What things should you assess for OA?

A
  • pain
  • functional limitation
  • gait
  • fatigue & pain after activity
  • ROM
  • anxiety/depression
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76
Q

What should be used to protect the joint and encourage use of larger joints?

A

splinting

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77
Q

What exercises should someone with OA participate in?

A
  • low impact: walking
  • strength training: weights
  • ROM
  • NO high impact: running
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78
Q

When should you do high-energy activities? When should you take meds (OA)?

A
  • high energy activities in the morning
  • take meds before activity
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79
Q

What should heat be used for (OA)?

A

pain

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80
Q

What should cold be used for (OA)?

A

inflammation

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81
Q

What assistive devices can be used for OA?

A
  • elevated toilet seat
  • shower bench
  • long-handed reacher
  • shoe horn
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82
Q

How long does acute back pain last?

A

4 weeks or less

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83
Q

How long does chronic back pain last?

A

greater than three months with repeated episodes of pain

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84
Q

How can back pain affect the hips, legs, and ankles?

A

paresthesias, pain, weakness

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85
Q

What is the leading cause of work disability?

A

back pain

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86
Q

Is acetaminophen helpful for back pain?

A

NO

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87
Q

What should be used instead of acetaminophen for back pain?

A

NSAIDS, mild opioids if NSAIDS do not work

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88
Q

Why are topical medications beneficial for back pain?

A

they can dull pain by using heat or cold

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89
Q

What are proper body mechanics for lifting?

A

with legs, not back

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90
Q

How should someone with back pain sleep?

A
  • on a firm mattress
  • semi-fowlers position
  • pillow under flexed knees
  • NO stomach sleeping
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91
Q

What medication should someone with back pain take daily?

A

aspirin

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92
Q

What causes a hemorrhagic stroke?

A

a ruptured artery or aneurysm

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93
Q

Where does bleeding occur with a hemorrhagic stroke?

A

inside and around brain tissue

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94
Q

What are the two types of ischemic stroke?

A

thrombotic and embolic

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95
Q

What causes a thrombotic stroke?

A

a blood clot or atherosclerotic plaque that gradually shuts off the artery

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96
Q

What causes an EMBolic stroke? (think EMBarking on an adventure)

A

an embolus travels to a cerebral artery

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97
Q

What is a TIA a warning sign for?

A

an impending stroke

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98
Q

How long do symptoms of a TIA last, and how many progress to a stroke?

A
  • s/sx last more than 1 hr
  • 1/3 progress to stroke
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99
Q

What are visual disturbances, dizziness, slurred speech, and weak extremity manifestations for?

A

TIA

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100
Q

What are common s/sx of stroke? (FAST)

A

F: face - drooping, uneven smile
A: arms - numbness, weakness
S: speech - slurred speech
T: time - act fast, record onset and duration of stroke

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101
Q

What are the 4 “A’s” of left brain damage?

A
  • aphasia (expressive and receptive)
  • agnosia
  • alexia
  • agraphia
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102
Q

What are expressive and receptive aphasia (L brain damage)?

A
  • inability to speak
  • inability to understand language
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103
Q

What is agnosia (L brain damage)?

A

inability to recognize familiar objects

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104
Q

What is alexia (L brain damage)?

A

difficulty reading

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105
Q

What is agraphia (L brain damage)?

A

difficulty writing

106
Q

When LEFT brain damage occurs, which side of the body experiences hemiplegia or hemiparesis?

A

the RIGHT side

107
Q

What is hemiplegia (stroke)?

A

paralysis

108
Q

What is hemiparesis (stroke)?

A

weakness

109
Q

What is hemianopsia (stroke)?

A

loss of visual field in one or both eyes

110
Q

When the RIGHT side of the brain is damaged, the patient may experience unilateral neglect syndrome. What happens with this?

A
  • ignoring the LEFT side of the body
  • inability to see, move or feel affected extremity
  • clenched fingers
  • contracted extremities
111
Q

When RIGHT brain damage occurs, which side of the body experiences hemiplegia or hemiparesis?

A

the LEFT side

112
Q

Which side of the brain is damaged when the patient experiences altered perception of deficits, loss of depth perception, and poor impulse control/judgment?

A

the RIGHT side

113
Q

What is altered perception of deficits (R brain damage)?

A

overestimation of abilities

114
Q

To what degree should the bed be elevated for a stroke?

A

at least 30 degrees

115
Q

How often should ROM exercises be done after a stroke, and when should they be started?

A
  • every 2 hours
  • start early
116
Q

Which side of the body should use passive ROM exercises after a stroke?

A

the AFFECTED side

117
Q

Which side of the body should use active ROM exercises after a stroke?

A

the UNAFFECTED side

118
Q

How can the nurse help with contracture after a stroke?

A
  • give the patient a washcloth to hold
  • contracture makes it hard to clean hands
119
Q

What vital sign is important to monitor after a stroke, and when should the provider be notified?

A
  • BP
  • notify if >180/110
120
Q

To ensure safe feeding, what should the SLP do (stroke)?

A

a swallow study

121
Q

What consistency should liquids be for a patient recovering from a stroke?

A

thickened
- apple sauce
- cream soup
- pudding
- cooked cereal

122
Q

What side should be dressed first after a stroke?

A

the AFFECTED side

123
Q

Stroke, hypoxia, and substance withdrawal are risk factors for what?

A

seizures

124
Q

Infants under what age are at risk for seizures?

A

< 2 y/o

125
Q

Abrupt cessation of what kind of drug is a risk factor for seizures?

A

anti-epileptics

126
Q

What metabolic disorders put someone at risk for seizures?

A

HYPOglycemia and HYPOnatremia

127
Q

Exposure to what toxins are a risk factor for seizures?

A

carbon monoxide and lead

128
Q

What does the prodromal phase of a seizure look like?

A

signs or activity that precedes a seizure

129
Q

What does the aural phase of a seizure look like?

A

a sensory warning, the first few seconds of a seizure

130
Q

What does the ictal phase of a seizure look like?

A

a full seizure, 1-3 minutes

131
Q

What does the postictal phase of a seizure look like?

A

recovery

132
Q

What can generalized seizures begin with?

A

aura

133
Q

What is an aura (seizure)?

A

alterations in vision, smell, hearing, emotional feelings

134
Q

What is a tonic seizure characterized by?

A

stiffening of muscles

135
Q

What is a clonic seizure characterized by?

A

jerky spastic movements

136
Q

How long does a tonic episode last during a tonic-clonic seizure? What happens after?

A

a few seconds and then loss of consciousness

137
Q

How long does a clonic episode last during a tonic-clonic seizure?

A

1-2 minutes

138
Q

What is a myoclonic seizure characterized by, and how long does it last?

A
  • brief jerking and stiffening of the extremities
  • lasts a few seconds
139
Q

What characterizes an atonic/akinetic seizure, and what is it followed by?

A

loss of muscle tone for a few seconds followed by confusion

140
Q

Can you put anything in a patient’s mouth or use restraints during a seizure?

A

NO!!!

141
Q

What position should a patient be in while having a seizure?

A

side lying

142
Q

What should be protected during a seizure?

A
  • the head
  • privacy
  • the body from injury
143
Q

What needs to be documented about a seizure?

A

onset and duration

144
Q

When is a seizure considered a medical emergency?

A

if it lasts longer than 5 mins

145
Q

What assessments should be done after a seizure?

A
  • injury
  • neuro, PERRLA
  • vitals
  • trigger of seizure
146
Q

How many antiepileptic meds should be used every day?

A

ONE

147
Q

What is an adverse effect of phenytoin?

A

bleeding gums

148
Q

What are some adverse effects of phenobarbital?

A

respiratory depression and hypotension

149
Q

What do most meds for seizures cause at the beginning of treatment?

A

drowsiness

150
Q

What do seizure precautions consist of?

A
  • bed in the lowest position
  • side rails up
  • padded side rails
  • suction and oxygen available
151
Q

When does the prodromal stage of migraine with aura start?

A

hours to days before onset

152
Q

How long does the aura stage of migraine with aura take to develop?

A

minutes to an hour

153
Q

What symptoms occur during the aura stage of a migraine?

A
  • numbness and tingling in the mouth, lips, face, and hands
  • visual disturbances
154
Q

When do a severe headache, N/V, drowsiness, and vertigo occur for migraine with aura?

A

the second stage

155
Q

What does the headache feel like in the third stage of migraine with aura?

A

dull

156
Q

What symptoms occur in the recovery phase of a migraine with aura?

A

muscle ache and contracture of the head/neck muscles

157
Q

What causes a migraine without aura? How long does it last?

A
  • pain is aggravated by physical activity
  • can be caused by stress, premenstrual tension, and fluid retention
  • 4-72 hours
  • early in the morning
158
Q

How long does an atypical migraine last?

A

longer than 72 hours

159
Q

What does migraine pain feel like?

A

throbbing, unilateral

160
Q

What does a cluster HA feel like, and how long does it last?

A

non-throbbing, intense, unilateral
- 30 mins to 2 hours

161
Q

What type of environment is good for someone with a migraine?

A

cool, dark, quiet

162
Q

What should a HA journal consist of?

A

patterns, auras, symptoms, triggers

163
Q

How much and how long should oxygen therapy be used for cluster HA?

A

12 L for 15-20 mins

164
Q

What foods trigger migraines?

A

foods with tyramine, MSG, high-preservatives

165
Q

What foods trigger cluster HA?

A

foods with tyramine, MSG, nitrates (preservatives)

166
Q

What medications induce migraines?

A
  • ranitidine
  • estrogen
  • nitroglycerin
  • nifedipine
167
Q

What can a lack of quality rest, stress/anger/anxiety, and glare/flickering/excess light trigger?

A

migraines and cluster HA

168
Q

What can environmental odors, changes in altitude, and menstrual cycle trigger?

A

migraine

169
Q

What can excessive physical activity trigger?

A

cluster HA

170
Q

What causes photophobia and phonophobia?

A

migraines

171
Q

What causes sweating and tearing?

A

cluster HA

172
Q

When are cluster HA most common?

A

spring and fall

173
Q

During the spring and fall, how often does cluster HA occur?

A
  • daily
  • at about the same time everyday
  • then 9-12 months of remission
174
Q

What happens to H&H with anemia?

A

decreases

175
Q

How does general anemia present?

A
  • hypotension
  • tachycardia
  • cold, pale
  • decreased LOC
176
Q

Which kind of anemia is a blood transfusion done for?

A

general

177
Q

What dietary deficiencies can cause iron deficiency anemia?

A
  • vegetarian
  • inadequate protein
178
Q

Decreased absorption can cause ID anemia. How can this occur?

A
  • gastrectomy
  • diarrhea
  • malabsorption syndrome
179
Q

Increased metabolic requirements can cause ID anemia. How can this occur?

A
  • pregnancy
  • lactation
180
Q

What are the early signs of ID anemia?

A
  • fatigue
  • SOB
  • cold intolerance
181
Q

What are the late signs of ID anemia?

A
  • brittle, spoon-shaped nails
  • cheilosis
  • glossitis
  • pica
182
Q

What is cheilosis (ID anemia)?

A

cracks at the corners of the mouth

183
Q

What is glossitis (ID anemia)?

A

smooth, sore tongue

184
Q

What is pica (ID anemia)?

A

eating things that are not food

185
Q

What does total iron-binding capacity measure (ID anemia)?

A

serum transferrin

186
Q

What does serum ferritin indicate (ID anemia)?

A

the body’s total iron stores

187
Q

What does serum iron measure (ID anemia)?

A

the amount of iron in the blood

188
Q

What diagnostic results indicate ID anemia?

A
  • decreased serum iron
  • increased TIBC
189
Q

What foods should someone with ID anemia eat, and how many meals?

A
  • soft, cool, bland foods
  • increased protein and vitamins
  • 4-6 small meals
190
Q

What type of anemia are ferrous sulfate, ferrous fumarate, and ferrous gluconate used for?

A

iron deficiency

191
Q

What does vitamin C do to iron absorption and what can it not be given with?

A
  • increases absorption
  • no milk
192
Q

What foods contain heme iron?

A
  • beef
  • chicken
  • clams
  • egg yolks
  • turkey
  • pork loin
  • veal
193
Q

What foods contain nonheme iron?

A
  • bran flakes
  • brown rice
  • whole grain bread
  • dried beans and fruit
  • greens
  • oatmeal
194
Q

What causes pernicious anemia?

A

inadequate B12 (vegetarian), lack of intrinsic factor

195
Q

How does pernicious anemia present?

A
  • jaundice
  • smooth/sore/beefy red tongue
  • diarrhea
  • problems with proprioception and balance
  • weakness
196
Q

What is a progressive symptom of pernicious anemia?

A

paresthesias

197
Q

What does the Schilling test do (pernicious anemia)?

A

measures vitamin B12 absorption

198
Q

What is cyanocobalamin used for?

A

B12 supplement for pernicious anemia

199
Q

How would cyanocobalamin be given if B12 deficiency was due to dietary intake?

A

orally

200
Q

How would cyanocobalamin be given if B12 deficiency is due to a lack of intrinsic factor, malabsorption, or bowel removal?

A

parenterally or intranasally

201
Q

What foods have increased amounts of B12 (pernicious anemia)?

A
  • meat
  • eggs
  • dairy
  • liver
  • shrimp
  • cheese
202
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of thrombocytopenia?

A
  • petechiae
  • ecchymosis
  • bleeding gums
  • nose bleeds
  • blood in stools/urine/vomit
203
Q

What is the neutropenic ANC level associated with thrombocytopenia?

A

<1,000

204
Q

At what PLT level is there the greatest risk for bleeding?

A

<50,000

205
Q

At what PLT level might spontaneous bleeding occur?

A

<20,000

206
Q

When should PLT be administered?

A

<10,000

207
Q

What bleeding precautions should be taken for thrombocytopenia?

A
  • avoid IVs/injections
  • apply pressure 10 mins after blood draws
  • use an electric razor
  • use a soft-bristled toothbrush
  • avoid blowing the nose vigorously
  • make sure dentures fit
  • avoid restrictive clothing
  • NO crossing legs
208
Q

What do WBCs invade and destroy in leukemia?

A

bone marrow, where PLT and H&H are made (so they will decrease)

209
Q

What should be monitored with filgrastim (leukemia)?

A

bone pain

210
Q

What lab levels are decreased with leukemia?

A

H&H and PLT

211
Q

What precautions should be used for leukemia?

A

neutropenic precautions

212
Q

Chemotherapy causes immunosuppression and neutropenia. What should be monitored?

A
  • temp (report >100)
  • WBC
  • ANC (<1000 = weak immune system)
213
Q

Chemotherapy can cause N/V and anorexia. What should you assess for?

A
  • dehydration
  • fluid and electrolyte imbalances
214
Q

What medication should you give before chemotherapy to prevent N/V?

A

ondansetron

215
Q

How should you eat when going through chemotherapy?

A
  • low fat
  • high-calorie, protein, and nutrient-dense foods
  • cold foods that do not need cooking
  • dry foods (crackers, toast)
  • no salty, acidic, or spicy foods
  • bland, soft foods
  • several small meals a day
  • no liquids with meals
216
Q

When should you select a hairpiece for chemotherapy?

A

before starting tx

217
Q

When does hair loss begin after starting chemo?

A

7-10 days

218
Q

What is mucositis, and when does it occur?

A
  • during chemotherapy
  • inflamed mucous lining of the upper GI tract (mouth to stomach)
219
Q

What is stomatitis, and when does it occur?

A
  • during chemotherapy
  • inflamed tissues of the oral cavity (gums, tongue, roof/floor of mouth, inside lips/cheeks)
220
Q

What types of mouthwash should you avoid during chemotherapy?

A

glycerin-based or with alcohol

221
Q

What medications should be avoided with chemotherapy?

A

NSAIDS

222
Q

During chemotherapy, what can cause loss of sensation, ortho hypo, loss of taste, and constipation?

A

peripheral neuropathy

223
Q

What 3 things can radiation cause?

A
  • skin changes
  • hair loss
  • debilitating fatigue
224
Q

Where is internal radiation therapy placed?

A

in body orifice or cavity

225
Q

What becomes radioactive with internal radiation?

A

waste products

226
Q

What does a dosimeter film badge do during internal radiation?

A

records personal radiation exposure

227
Q

How long can visitors stay, and where can they stand in the room of someone receiving internal radiation? Who cannot visit?

A
  • 30 mins, 6 feet away
  • no pregnant women or anyone under 18
228
Q

How is external radiation therapy done?

A

teletherapy, small doses over several weeks

229
Q

What skin injuries are associated with external radiation?

A
  • blanching
  • erythema
  • desquamation (skin peeling)
  • sloughing
  • hemorrhage
230
Q

What mouth injuries are associated with external radiation?

A

mucositis and dry mouth

231
Q

What neck injuries are associated with external radiation?

A

difficulty swallowing

232
Q

What abdominal injuries are associated with external radiation?

A

gastroenteritis

233
Q

External radiation can cause dysgeusia, which affects taste. What food is unpalatable?

A

red meat

234
Q

How should you wash the skin during external radiation?

A

with mild soap and water using a patting motion

235
Q

What should you NOT remove/wash off from radiation?

A

radiation tattoos and markings

236
Q

What do interleukins do during immunotherapy?

A

help coordinate inflammatory and immune response

237
Q

What should you watch for with interleukins?

A

flu-like symptoms and edema

238
Q

What do interferons do during immunotherapy?

A

exert exert an antitumor effect

239
Q

What should you watch for with interferons?

A

lethargy and ortho hypo

240
Q

What is the ABCDE evaluation for skin cancer?

A

A: asymmetry
B: borders
C: color
D: diameter
E: evolving

241
Q

Breast changes, pain, and soreness are manifestations of what type of cancer?

A

breast

242
Q

How many servings of veggies should someone with breast cancer eat a day?

A

at least 5

243
Q

How often should you do a self-breast exam?

A

monthly

244
Q

How often should a clinical breast exam be done?

A
  • every 3 years for 20-39 y/o
  • yearly for 40+ y/o
245
Q

What cancer is a thoracentesis done for?

A

lung cancer

246
Q

Where does the scope go when bronchoscopy is done for lung cancer?

A

through the trachea

247
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of prostate cancer?

A

enlarged/hard prostate and urinary symptoms

248
Q

What confirms prostate cancer after a digital rectal exam or prostate-specific antigen test?

A

biopsy

249
Q

Changes in stool consistency/shape and the presence of blood in the stool are manifestations of what type of cancer?

A

colorectal

250
Q

How often should a colonoscopy be done to screen for colorectal cancer?

A

every 10 years

251
Q

How often should a sigmoidoscopy be done to screen for colorectal cancer?

A

every 5 years for ages 50-75

252
Q

How often should a fecal occult blood test be done to screen for colorectal cancer?

A

annually for ages 50-75

253
Q

What tests determine cervical cancer?

A

PAP test followed by a biopsy

254
Q

How often should HPV screening be done?

A

every 5 years for women 30-65 y/o

255
Q

What are the vaginal manifestations of cervical cancer?

A

bleeding between menses and water/blood-tinged discharge

256
Q

What are the urinary manifestations of cervical cancer?

A

dysuria and hematura

257
Q

What cancers are being childless, having your first child after 30, HRT, early menarche, and late menopause risk factors for?

A

breast and ovarian

258
Q

What can protect against ovarian cancer?

A

birth control and pregnancy

259
Q

What abdominal symptoms are present with ovarian cancer?

A
  • pain/swelling/discomfort
  • dyspepsia
  • gas
  • distention
260
Q

What happens to the mouth with oropharyngeal cancer?

A
  • lesions
  • red patches
  • bleeding
  • difficulty chewing/swallowing
261
Q

How can you tell if oropharyngeal cancer is present by doing to Toluidine Blue 1% staining test?

A

malignant cells stain blue

262
Q

Chemotherapy can cause N/V and anorexia. What should you assess for?

A
  • dehydration
  • fluid and electrolyte imbalances

Level 2 (8 decks)

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