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Level 2 > Community Exam 3 > Flashcards

Community Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are health disparities linked to?

A
  • gender
  • ethnicity
  • race
  • education
  • income differences
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2
Q

What are racial and ethnic minority barriers linked to?

A
  • reduced access to care
  • decreased use of preventative care
  • poorer health outcomes
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3
Q

What is homicide often related to?

A

Substance use

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4
Q

Who is homicide usually committed by, and when?

A
  • someone known to the victim
  • during an argument
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5
Q

What often precedes homicide in families?

A

Violence

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6
Q

In what age group is homicide increasing?

A

adolescents

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7
Q

Who is more likely to be assaulted?

A

males

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8
Q

Who is at increased risk for assault?

A

youth

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9
Q

What are the most common types of rape?

A
  • spousal (marital)
  • acquaintance (date)
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10
Q

Who is more likely to be raped?

A

females

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11
Q

When is there an increased risk for rape to occur?

A
  • cities
  • between 8pm and 2 am
  • weekends
  • summer months
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12
Q

What age group has the highest suicide rates?

A

45-65

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13
Q

Who is more likely to ATTEMPT suicide?

A

females

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14
Q

Who is more likely to COMPLETE suicide?

A

males

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15
Q

What are the 4 types of physical violence?

A
  • infant/child
  • spouse/partner
  • older adult
  • non-spouse/partner
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16
Q

What are the 4 types of neglect?

A
  • physical
  • emotional
  • educational
  • health/dental care
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17
Q

What could unexplained or unmentioned injury/wounds be a sign of?

A

potential abuse/neglect

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18
Q

For violence primary prevention, it is important to teach alternative methods of what?

A
  • conflict resolution
  • anger management
  • coping strategies
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19
Q

How can you reduce the stress that leads to violence? What level of prevention is this?

A
  • respite services
  • finding employment
  • social support network
  • PRIMARY PREVENTION
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20
Q

What should safeguarding be encouraged for? What type of prevention is this?

A
  • funds
  • property
  • PRIMARY PREVENTION
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21
Q

How do you safeguard funds and property?

A
  • representative trust
  • durable power of attorney
  • representative payee
  • joint tenancy
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22
Q

What level of prevention is screening?

A

SECONDARY PREVENTION

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23
Q

What indicates dependence?

A
  • manifestations of tolerance and withdrawal
  • denial
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24
Q

How does recovery occur?

A
  • over years
  • involves relapses
  • with support system and 12-step program
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25
Q

Can tolerance develop with alcohol?

A

yes

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26
Q

What happens to excess alcohol that is not metabolized?

A

It circulates in the blood and affects the CNS and the brain

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27
Q

When does alcohol withdrawal start?

A

Within 4-12 hours of last drink

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28
Q

What should you determine with alcohol withdrawal?

A

The time of the last drink

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29
Q

How does carbonation affect the blood alcohol level?

A

It increases absoption

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30
Q

Can you develop a tolerance to tobacco?

A

Yes and quickly

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31
Q

What are the risks of tobacco use?

A
  • cancer
  • cardio disease
  • respiratory disease
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32
Q

When do tolerance and dependence develop with marijuana?

A

With long-term use

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33
Q

What are examples of stimulants?

A
  • tobacco
  • caffeine
  • amphetamines
  • methamphetamines
  • cocaine
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34
Q

What are examples of depressants?

A
  • alcohol
  • barbituates
  • benzos
  • chloral hydrate
  • GHB
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35
Q

What are examples of opiates?

A
  • morphine
  • heroin
  • codeine
  • fentanyl
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36
Q

What are examples of hallucinogens?

A
  • LSD
  • PCP
  • MDMA (ecstacy)
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37
Q

How can inhalants cause death?

A
  • dysrhythmias
  • asphyxiation
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38
Q

How should you ask questions to those with substance use disorder?

A
  • in a matter-of-fact tone
  • explain that the purpose is because of the effects that different substances can have on health
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39
Q

When questioning someone with substance use disorder, what information should you seek?

A
  • info about specific substances
  • methods
  • quantity
  • frequency
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40
Q

How do vitals present in substance use disorder?

A

Vary based on substance

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41
Q

How does appearance present in substance use disorder?

A
  • disheveled
  • unsteady gait
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42
Q

How do eyes present in substance use disorder?

A
  • pupils dilated/pinpoint
  • red
  • poor eye contact
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43
Q

How does skin present in substance use disorder?

A
  • diaphoretic
  • cold/clammy
  • needle track marks
  • spider angiomas
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44
Q

How does the nose present with substance use disorder?

A
  • runny
  • congested
  • red
  • cauliflower-shaped
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45
Q

How do tremors present in substance use disorder?

A

fine or coarse

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46
Q

What does the National Alliance for the Mentally Ill (NAMI) do?

A
  • advocacy group
  • reduce stigma
  • provide services
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47
Q

What are those with mental illness at an increased risk for?

A
  • substance use disorder
  • suicide
  • chronic illness
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48
Q

Why are incidence and prevalence counts often inaccurate?

A

Many homeless people are transient, staying with friends, or residing in difficult to access locations

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49
Q

When do impoverished and homeless people usually seek health care?

A

In times of acute exacerbation or crisis

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50
Q

What is the population of a rural area?

A

< 20,000 residents

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51
Q

What is the population of a frontier area?

A

< or equal to 6 persons per square mile

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52
Q

What is the population of an urban area?

A

20,000 to 49,999 residents

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53
Q

What is the population of larger central cities?

A

1 million + residents

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54
Q

What can cause injury for those living rurally?

A
  • lightning
  • drowning
  • boating
  • farm machinery
  • snowmobile
  • all-terrain vehicles
  • motorcycle crashes
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55
Q

What are occupational risks for those living rurally?

A
  • agriculture
  • mining
  • fishing
  • construction
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56
Q

What challenges do nurses face when working rurally?

A
  • limited resources
  • isolation from other providers
  • broad age range and range of conditions
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57
Q

What are barriers to care for those living rurally?

A
  • distance
  • transportation
  • weather/travel conditions
  • insurance/paying for care
  • shortage of hospitals and providers
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58
Q

How are migrant workers usually employed?

A

In farming during the time of caring for and harvesting crops

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59
Q

Are ag workers covered by common labor laws?

A

No

60
Q

Are minors 12 y/o and under covered by the child labor act?

A

No

61
Q

What does the migrant health act do?

A

Provides funding for migrant health centers

62
Q

What does the department of labor do?

A

Has regulations regarding standards for migrant/seasonal ag workers

63
Q

Why might undocumented workers not seek services?

A

Fear of deportation

64
Q

How can you decrease exposure to pesticides?

A
  • hand washing
  • washing food
  • changing clothes after work
65
Q

What is the VHA responsible for?

A
  • purchasing coverage
  • delivering health care
66
Q

What does the americans with disabilities act do?

A

promotes rights

67
Q

What does the individuals with disabilities education act do?

A

promotes rights of children
- ensures free education and assists with funding
- accommodations to prepare child for independent living
- evaluates effectiveness of education

68
Q

What care are immigrants eligible for?

A
  • immunizations
  • school lunch
  • tx for communicable disease
  • emergency care
69
Q

What does the federal bureau of prisons do?

A

promotes rights of inmates

70
Q

How can nurses help decrease the risk of future violent behavior in inmates?

A

By providing transitional care

71
Q

What public health processes should be strengthened during disaster prevention?

A
  • immunizations
  • isolations
  • quarantine
72
Q

What should you determine about a community during disaster prevention?

A
  • threats
  • vulnerabilities
  • capabilities
  • demographics
73
Q

What should be used to prepare for a disaster?

A

the threats and vulnerabilities identified during prevention

74
Q

What is the goal of the National Incident Management System?

A

effective communication and a clear chain of command to manage disasters

75
Q

How are disasters classified?

A
  • type
  • level
  • scope
76
Q

When is the National Response Framework activated?

A

if a federal emergency is declared

77
Q

When does disaster recovery begin?

A

when danger no longer exists and needed representatives/agencies can assist with rebuilding

78
Q

When does disaster recovery last until?

A

until the economic and civil life of the community are restored

79
Q

What is the heroic phase of emotional reaction during a disaster?

A

intense excitement/concern for survival

80
Q

What is the honeymoon phase of emotional reaction during a disaster?

A

affected individuals begin to bond and relive their experiences

81
Q

What is the disillusionment phase of emotional reaction during a disaster?

A

responders may experience depression and exhaustion, causing delays in receiving aid

82
Q

What is the reconstruction phase of emotional reaction during a disaster?

A

involves adjusting to a new reality and continued rebuilding of the area, counseling, looking ahead

83
Q

What should a disaster kit consist of?

A
  • at least 3 days’ supply of food
  • water
  • medication
  • clothing
  • hygiene items
  • copies of personal documents
  • first aid supplies
84
Q

Why are category A agents the highest priority?

A

They are easily transmitted and have high mortality rates

85
Q

What category does smallpox fall under?

A

A

86
Q

What category does botulism fall under?

A

A

87
Q

What category does anthrax fall under?

A

A

88
Q

What category does tularemia fall under?

A

A

89
Q

What category does ebola fall under?

A

A

90
Q

What category does plague fall under?

A

A

91
Q

What category does typhus fever fall under?

A

B

92
Q

What category does ricin toxin fall under?

A

B

93
Q

What category does E. Coli fall under?

A

B

94
Q

What category does west nile virus fall under?

A

B

95
Q

What category does hantavirus fall under?

A

C

96
Q

What category does influenza fall under?

A

C

97
Q

What category does TB fall under?

A

C

98
Q

What category does rabies fall under?

A

C

99
Q

What are the characteristics of category B agents?

A
  • moderately easy to disseminate
  • high morbidity rates, low mortality rates
100
Q

What are the characteristics of category C agents?

A
  • can be engineered for mass dissemination
  • easy to produce
  • potential for high morbidity and mortality rates
101
Q

How can you prevent inhalational anthrax?

A
  • vaccine (if at high risk for exposure)
  • ciprofloxacin, doxycycline (following exposure)
102
Q

How can you treat inhalational anthrax?

A
  • antitoxin
  • IV antibiotics
  • antimicrobial agents
103
Q

Is there a vaccine for botulism?

A

no

104
Q

How can you treat botulism?

A
  • airway management
  • antitoxin
105
Q

How can you eliminate botulism toxins?

A
  • vomiting
  • enema
  • surgical excision of wound tissue
106
Q

Is there a vaccine for ebola?

A

no

107
Q

What PPE should you wear for Ebola?

A
  • gown
  • two pairs of gloves
  • boot covers
  • apron
  • N95 mask
108
Q

What precautions are used for Ebola?

A

droplet and contact

109
Q

How can you prevent smallpox?

A

vaccine within 3 days of exposure

110
Q

What precautions are used for smallpox?

A

contact and airborne

111
Q

Is there a cure for smallpox?

A

no

112
Q

Is there a vaccine for the plague?

A

not available in the US

113
Q

What precautions should be used for the plague?

A
  • contact until decontaminated
  • droplet until 72 hours of finishing antibiotics
114
Q

How can you treat the plague?

A

gentamicin, fluoroquinolones

115
Q

Is there a vaccine for tularemia?

A

yes but it is under review by the FDA and not available

116
Q

How can you treat tularemia?

A
  • streptomycin, gentamicin
  • in mass casualty, doxycycline, ciprofloxacin
117
Q

Who should nurses report bioterrorism activity to?

A

the local health department

118
Q

How should you prepare for bioterrorism?

A
  • drills
  • vaccines
  • ensuring the availability of antibiotics
  • have a bioterrorism response plan`
119
Q

What are infection control and containment measures?

A
  • disinfection
  • decontamination
  • PPE
  • education/notification
  • quarantine
120
Q

What are referrals based on in acute care?

A

medical diagnosis or other clinical information

121
Q

Is rehab a health care service or specialty service agency?

A

health care service

122
Q

Are PT and OT health care services or specialty service agencies?

A

health care services

123
Q

Are transportation services health care services, or specialty service agencies?

A

specialty service agencies

124
Q

Are home care services health care services or specialty service agencies?

A

health care services

125
Q

Are support groups health care services or specialty service agencies?

A

specialty service agencies

126
Q

When does discharge planning start?

A

on admission

127
Q

Why should nurses have good communication skills?

A
  • saves time
  • promotes successful outcomes
128
Q

Case managers are at risk for liability. What is this related to?

A
  • care management
  • referrals
  • experimental tx
  • confidentiality
  • fraud/abuse
129
Q

Why must case managers be proactive?

A

to balance the effect of illness against cost of care

130
Q

How does the use of community agencies contain costs?

A

Monitoring of clients leads to better disease management

131
Q

What does some technology assist with?

A

cost control

132
Q

How can nurses use technology?

A
  • increase awareness
  • provide education
  • collect data
133
Q

What are examples of how nurses can use technology?

A
  • social media campaigns
  • electronic surveys
  • health literature databases
134
Q

What are some examples of informatics?

A
  • EHR, EMR, databases, billing
  • computers, smartphones, geographic information systems, internet
135
Q

How is informatics used?

A
  • meetings, chat rooms, asynchronous discussion
  • education, support groups, peer collaboration, staff orientation/training
136
Q

What situation is telehealth useful in?

A

rural areas

137
Q

Who is using telehealth more increasingly?

A

Home health

138
Q

What types of data can telecommunication transmit?

A

physical, audio, visual

139
Q

What do laws related to healthcare regulate?

A

licensing

140
Q

What do laws related to healthcare define?

A

scope of practice/negligent care

141
Q

What do laws related to healthcare outline?

A

responsibilities in specific settings

142
Q

How can nurses influence those who develop policies?

A
  • professional communication
  • presenting evidence-based solutions
143
Q

How can nurses act as change agents?

A

advocate for change at local, state, or federal level

144
Q

How can nurses act as lobbyists?

A

by persuading or influencing legislators

145
Q

How can nurses act as coalitions?

A

by facilitation of goal achievement through collaboration of 2+ groups

146
Q

How can nurses act as public office?

A

by serving society and advocating for change by influencing policy development

Level 2 (8 decks)

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