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COMMUNICABLE DISEASES Flashcards

1
Q

entry/ invasion, growth, and proliferation of microorganism into the body

A

Infection

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2
Q

Needs vector

A

infectious

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3
Q

easily transmitted and easily infects others

A

contagious

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4
Q

presence of infection in the body

A

Sepsis

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5
Q

absence of infection

A

asepsis

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6
Q

medical hand washing
clean technique

A

Medical Asepsis

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7
Q

surgical hand washing
sterile technique

A

Surgical Asepsis

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7
Q

temporary stay of microorganisms in the body or not permanent inhabitants of the body. Meaning, they stay in the body for hours/ weeks only. eg. Candida albicans.

A

Transient Flora

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8
Q

any microorganism that can cause infection

A

pathogen

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9
Q

EASILY TRANSMITTED FROM ONE PERSON TO ANOTHER

A

CONTAGIOUS

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10
Q

permanent inhabitants of the body

A

resident flora

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11
Q

bacilli that normally reside in the vagina

A

Doderlein Bacillus

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12
Q

ability of microorganism to cause disease in the body

A

pathogenicity

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13
Q

vigor/ strength of microorganism to grow and multiply

A

Virulence

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14
Q

nosocomial infection

A

hospital-acquired infection

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15
Q

something is rendered unclean/ unsterile

A

contamination

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16
Q

somebody who carries the microorganism but does not show signs and symptoms

A

Carrier

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17
Q

direct/ close association with an infected person

A

Contact

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18
Q

patients shows signs and symptoms

A

case

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19
Q

process of destroying microorganisms but not their spores

A

disinfection

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20
Q

halts/ prevent the speed, growth, and multiplication of the microorganism

A

bacteriostatic

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21
Q

process of killing microorganism including their spores via autoclave

A

sterilization

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22
Q

PRESENCE OF INFECTION

A

SEPSIS

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23
Q

HARBORS MICROBES BUT NO S/S

A

CARRIER

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24
Q

SHOWS S/S

A

CASE

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25
Q

CLOSE ASSOCIATION WITH AN INFECTED PERSON

A

CONTACT

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26
Q

NATURAL HABITAT

A

RESERVIOR

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27
Q

MICROBES IN THE BLOODSTREAM

A

SEPTICEMIA

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28
Q

TEMPORARY INHABITANTS OF THE SUPERFICIAL LAYER

A

TRANSIENT FLORA

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29
Q

ABILITY TO CAUSE DISEASE

A

PATHOGENICITY

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30
Q

THE STRENGTH OF THE MICROBE TO GROW AND MULTIPLY

A

VIRULENCE

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31
Q

DISEASE CAUSING ORGANISM

A

PATHOGEN

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32
Q

HOSPITAL-ACQUIRED INFECTION

A

NOSOCOMIAL

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33
Q

CLEAN TECHNIQUE

A

MEDICAL ASEPSIS

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34
Q

MEDICAL HAND WASHING

A

MEDICAL ASEPSIS

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35
Q

STERILE TECHNIQUE

A

SURGICAL ASEPSIS

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36
Q

DESTROYS MICROBES BUT NOT SPORES

A

DISINFECTION

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37
Q

KILLS MIBROBES INCLUDING SPORES

A

STERILIZATION

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38
Q

REDUCES THE NUMBER OF MICROBES

A

MEDICAL ASEPSIS

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39
Q

KEEPING OBJECTS FREE FROM MICROBES

A

SURGICAL ASEPSIS

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40
Q

PREVENTS BACTERIAL MULTIPLICATION

A

BACTERIOSTATIC

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41
Q

KILLS BACTERIA

A

BACTERICIDAL

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42
Q

Stages of infection

A
  1. Incubation Period
  2. Prodromal Period
  3. Illness Period
  4. Convalescence Period/ Recovery Period
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43
Q

SPECIFIC S/S DEVELOP AND BECOME EVIDENT

A

ILLNESS

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44
Q

S/S START TO ABATE OR DECLINE UNTIL THE CLIENT RETURNS TO NORMAL STATE OF HEALTH

A

CONVALESCENCE

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45
Q

EXTENDS FROM THE ENTRY OF MICROORGANISM TO THE ONSET/BEGINNING OF S/S

A

INCUBATION

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46
Q

EXTENDS FROM THE ONSET OF NON-SPECIFIC S/S TO THE APPEARANCE OF SPECIFIC S/S

A

PRODROMAL

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47
Q

CHAIN OF INFECTION

A
  1. CAUSATIVE AGENT
  2. RESERVOIR
  3. PORTAL OF EXIT
  4. MODE OF TRANSMISSION
  5. PORTAL OF ENTRY
  6. SUSCEPTIBLE HOST
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48
Q

Microorganisms, such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites, that can cause infectious disease.

A

ETIOLOGIC AGENT

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49
Q

The SOURCE which infectious agents live, grow, and multiply.

A

RESERVOIR

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50
Q

The route by which an infectious agent escapes or leaves the reservoir.

A

PORTAL OF EXIT

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51
Q

The way in which an infectious agent travels to other people and places because they cannot travel on their own.

A

MODE OF TRANSMISSION

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52
Q

The route by which an infectious agent enters a new host

A

PORTAL OF ENTRY

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53
Q

person at elevated risk for developing an infection when exposed to an infectious agent due to changes in their immune system defenses

A

SUSCEPTIBLE HOST

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54
Q

It takes place through skin-to-skin contact, as well as kissing and sexual intercourse

A

Direct

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55
Q

This involves contact between a person and a contaminated object. This is often a result of unclean hands contaminating an object or environment.

A

Indirect

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56
Q

It occurs when mucous membrane of the nose, mouth, or conjunctiva are exposed to secretions of an infected person Who is coughing, sneezing, laughing, or talking, usually within a distance of 3 feet.

A

droplet

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57
Q

This ocours when fine particles are suspended in the air for a long time or when dust particles contain pathogens.

A

Airborne

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58
Q

TYPES OF IMMUNITY

A

I. ACTIVE IMMUNITY
A. NATURAL ACTIVE IMMUNITY
B. ARTIFICIAL ACTIVE IMMUNITY

II. PASSIVE IMMUNITY
A. NATURAL PASSIVE IMMUNITY
B. ARTIFICIAL PASSIVE IMMUNITY

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59
Q

antibodies produced by the body

A

ACTIVE IMMUNITY

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60
Q

antibodies are formed in the presence of active infection in the body; lifelong

A

NATURAL ACTIVE IMMUNITY

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61
Q

Antigens are administered to stimulate antibody production

A

ARTIFICIAL PASSIVE IMMUNITY

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62
Q

antibodies are produced by another source

A

PASSIVE IMMUNITY

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63
Q

transferred from mother to newborn through placenta or colostrum

A

NATURAL PASSIVE IMMUNITY

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64
Q

immune serum from an animal or human is injected to a person

A

ARTIFICIAL PASSIVE IMMUNITY

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65
Q

VACCINES AND TOXOIDS

A

ARTIFICIAL ACTIVE

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66
Q

Lifelong

A

NATURAL ACTIVE

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67
Q

FIRST LINE OF DEFENSE; THEY KILL AND ENGULF BACTERIA AND FUNGI

A

NEUTROPHILS

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68
Q

HELPS TO BREAK DOWN BACTERIA

A

MONOCYTES

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69
Q

CONSISTS OF T CELLS AND B CELLS

A

LYMPHOCYTES

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70
Q

SERVE AS ALARM WHEN INFECTIOUS AGENT STRIKES; SECRETE CHEMICALS LIKE HISTAMINE THAT PRODUCE ALLERGIC RESPONSE

A

BASOPHILS

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71
Q

ANTI-INFLAMMATORY EFFECTS; ATTACK AND KILL PARASITES; HELPS BASOPHILS IN ALLERGIC RESPONSE

A

EOSINOPHILS

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72
Q

Five subclasses of antibodies

A
  1. IgM
  2. IgA
  3. IgG
  4. IgE
  5. IgD
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73
Q

An anti body which is found mainly in the blood and lymph fluid, is the first antibody to be made by the body to fight a new infection.

A

IgM

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74
Q

An antibody which is found in high concentrations in the mucous membranes, particularly those lining the respiratory passages and gastrointestinal tract, as well as in saliva and tears.

A

IgA

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75
Q

An antibody which is the most abundant type of antibody, is found in all body fluids and protects against bacterial and viral infections.

A

IgG

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76
Q

An antibody which is associated mainly with allergic reactions and parasitic infections . It is found in the lungs, skin, and mucous membranes.

A

IgE

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77
Q

PATTERNS OF DISEASES

A
  1. SPORADIC
  2. ENDEMIC
  3. EPIDEMIC
  4. PANDEMIC
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78
Q

irregular occurrence of disease

A

SPORADIC

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79
Q

occurs only infrequently, or occasionally, from time to time in a few isolated places

A

SPORADIC

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80
Q

when it is consistently/constantly/continuously present but limited to a particular region.

A

ENDEMIC

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81
Q

Sudden increase in the number of cases of a disease in a short period of time

A

EPIDEMIC

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82
Q

unexpected increase in the number of disease cases in a specific geographical area.

A

EPIDEMIC

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83
Q

Worldwide

A

PANDEMIC

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84
Q

Standard Precautions
Wear clean gloves when touching

A

A. BLOOD AND BODY FLUIDS
B. MUCOUS MEMBRANES
C. NON-INTACT SKIN

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85
Q

Standard Precautions
Perform handwashing immediately

A

A. DIRECT CONTACT WITH BLOOD AND BODY FLUIDS
B. AFTER REMOVAL OF GLOVES
C. BETWEEN PATIENT CONTACT

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86
Q

Prevent injuries

A

A. NEVER RECAP A USED NEEDLE
B. NEVER POINT A NEEDLE TO ANY PART OF THE BODY
C. USE PUNCTURE PROOF NEEDLE CONTAINER

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87
Q

Airborne Precautions.
Private room
Nurse wears?
Client wears?

A

N: N95 MASK/ WELL FITTED RESPIRATOR MASK

C: MASK

REMEMBER TO LET AN HOUR PAST BEFORE LETTING ANOTHER PATIENT USE THE X-RAY ROOM

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88
Q

Droplet Precautions.
Private room
❑The nurse wears?
❑The client wears?

A

N: MASK
C: MASK

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88
Q

Cohorting
Personnel use gloves, when?
Remove gloves:

A

Personnel use gloves when entering room
Remove gloves before leaving the room

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89
Q

TB appropriate measure

A

N-95

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90
Q

3 FEET

A

DROPLET

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91
Q

COHABITUATION

A

CONTACT

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92
Q

“Law on Reporting of Communicable Diseases”.

A

RA 3573

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93
Q

Mandatory Reporting of Notifiable Diseases and Health Events of

A

RA 11332

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94
Q

Domiciliary treatment of LEPROSY

A

RA 4073

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95
Q

Compulsory immunization of children below 8 years old

A

PD 996

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96
Q

Mandatory Infant and Children Health Immunization Act (MICHA Act)

A

RA 10152

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97
Q

Compulsory immunization against Hepa B

A

RA 7846

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98
Q

PENALTY FOR IMPROPER GARBAGE DISPOSAL

A

PD 825

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99
Q

CLEAN AIR ACT

A

RA 8749

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100
Q

CODE OF SANITATION

A

PD 856

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101
Q

TOXIC SUBSTANCE, HAZARDOUS WASTES AND NUCLEAR WASTE ACT

A

RA 6969

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102
Q

ANTI-RABIES LAW

103
Q

TOBACCO CONTROL ACT

104
Q

PHILIPPINE MEDICAL ACT

105
Q

AIDS AND HIV PREVENTION AND CONTROL

106
Q

NATIONAL IMMUNIZATION DAY

107
Q

WHEN IS NATIONAL IMMUNIZATION DAY

A

MAY AND APRIL

108
Q

ROOMING IN AND BREASTFEEDING

109
Q

Causative agents of pulmonary tuberculosis

A

A. Mycobacterium Tuberculae
B. Mycobacterium Africanum
C. Mycobacterium Bovis

110
Q

Mycobacterium Tuberculae is a?

A

gram positive bacteria, thick peptidoglycan, purple under microscope

111
Q

found in cattles

A

Mycobacterium Bovis

112
Q

common PTB among children

A

Primary Complex

113
Q

Two types of tuberculosis

A

Pulmonary Tuberculosis
Extrapulmonary Tuberculosis

114
Q

Mode of Transmission of PTB

A

Airborne
Droplet
Milk as a vehicle specifically unpasteurized milk

115
Q

temp degree of pasteurized milk

A

A. 63 degrees celsius for 30 minutes
B. 71.7 or 72 degrees celsius for 15 minutes

116
Q

INCUBATION PERIOD OF TB?

A

2- 10 WEEKS

117
Q

CARDINAL SIGNS OF PTB

A

COUGHING
NEGHT SWEATS
WEIGHT LOSS
ANOREXIA/ LOSS OF APPETITE
HEMOPTYSIS
LOW GRADE FEVER IN THE AFTERNOON

118
Q

CONVENTIONAL STRATEGY (SPOT)

A

Pt. return early morning the next day

119
Q

Direct sputum sweat microscopy

A
  1. CONVENTIONAL STRATEGY (SPOT)
  2. SPOT –SPOT METHOD
120
Q

SPOT –SPOT – HOW MANY SPECIMEN?

121
Q

A. ONE SPOT –_________
B. 2ND SPOT – _________
C. THIRD SPECIMEN – __________

A

A. ONE SPOT – RIGHT THERE AND THEN
B. 2ND SPOT – AFTER 1 HOUR
C. THIRD SPECIMEN – EARLY MORNING THE NEXT DAY

122
Q

SPUTUM ANALYSIS

A

A. 2 Positive confirmed: (+) PTB
B. 1 (+) & 1 (-): Chest x-ray to determine the extent of lesion in lung parenchyma

123
Q

used to test susceptibility/ exposure and immunity to tuberculin/ mycobacterium

A

Purified Protein Derivative/ Mantoux test

124
Q

Explain process of tuberculin skin test

A

0.1 mL of PPD is administered ID to left forearm. Then, after 2-3 days or 48-72 hours, the result is red. A wheal formation or 10mm induration is positive in healthy individual. 5 mm induration in immunocompromised or HIV/ AIDS patients.

125
Q

Classification based on history of previous TB treatment.
NEW

A

A. Newly diagnosed
B. (+) sputum
C. A person who has taken anti-TB drugs for less than one month

126
Q

The patient was treated for TB but diagnosed again for TB

127
Q

Undergone treatment but failed

A

Treatment After Failure (TAF)

128
Q

started treatment but failed to follow-up for 2 months

A

Treatment after lost to follow- up (TALF)

129
Q

claims that patient undergone treatment but no document/ record to support the claim

A

Previously treatment Outcome Unknown (PTOU)

130
Q

a patient who does not fit to any category

131
Q

C1

A

Newly diagnosed
(+) sputum smear
extensive parenchymal lesions
seriously ill

132
Q

C2

A

Relapse
TAF
TALF
PTOU
Others

133
Q

C3

A

Newly diagnosed
(+) sputum smear
mild parenchymal lesions
not seriously ill

134
Q

C4

A

chronic PTB
Still w/ TB after supervised treatment

135
Q

FIRST LINE DRUGS FOR PTB

A
  1. Rifampicin
  2. Isoniazid (H)
  3. Pyrazinamide (Z)
  4. Ethambutol
  5. STreptomycin
136
Q

YELLOW ORANGE URINE

A

RIFAMPICIN

137
Q

PERIPHERAL NEURITIS

138
Q

HYPERURICEMIA

A

PYRAZINAMIDE (Z)

139
Q

NEPHROTOXIC, HEPATOTOXIC

A

PYRAZINAMIDE (Z)

140
Q

OPTIC NEURITIS

A

ETHAMBUTOL

141
Q

IMPAIRED GREEN-YELLOW DISCRIMINATION

A

ETHAMBUTOL

142
Q

TINNITUS/VERTIGO

A

STREPTOMYCIN

143
Q

SECOND LINE DRUGS

A

AMINOGLYCOSIDE
FLUROQUINOLONE

144
Q

INJECTABLE AMINOGLYCOSIDE

A

Amikacin
Kanamycin
Capreomycin

145
Q

Tx for C1

A

2HRZE | 4HR

146
Q

Tx for C2

A

2HRZES | 5HRE

147
Q

Tx for C3

A

2HRZ | 4HR

148
Q

C4

149
Q

Isoniazid is taken with what med

A

B6 (Pyridoxine)

150
Q

Pyrazinamide (Z) side effects

A

Hyperuricemia
Hepatotoxic
Nephrototoxic

151
Q

Serum Creatinine normal range

A

04-1.2 mg/ dL

152
Q

BUN Normal range

A

10-20 mg/ dL

153
Q

What food should a patient avoid when taking pyrazinamide?

A

purine-rich foods
organ foods

154
Q

Ethambutol Side Effects

A

Optic Neuritis - optic disc
Blurring of vision
Transient/ temporary loss of vision
Snellen’s chart- 20/ 20
difficulty discriminating yellow and green colors- Ishihara Diagram

155
Q

What nerve can be damaged when taking streptomycin

A

8th cranial nerve/ vestibulocochlear/ Acoustic Nerve

156
Q

Side effects of streptomycin

A

tinnitus- ringing in the ears
vertigo
loss of balance
ototoxicity

157
Q

side effect of rifampicin

A

red orange urine, sweat, urine, semen, and tears

158
Q

Oral meds for PTB: fluroquinolone

A

Ciprofloxacin
Moxifloxacin
Levofloxacin

159
Q

prevention for TB: BCG
CONTENT:
GIVEN WHEN:
DOSAGE:
NUMBER OF DOSES:
ROUTE:
OLD SCHEDULE
NEW SCHEDULE:
SIDE EFFECTS
ABSOLUTE CONTRAINDICATIONS CONTRAINDICATIONS FOR ANY VACCINES:

A

CONTENT: Live attenuated bacteria
GIVEN WHEN: at birth
DOSAGE: 0.05 mL
NUMBER OF DOSES: 1
ROUTE: ID
OLD SCHEDULE: at birth
NEW SCHEDULE: at birth

SIDE EFFECTS: permanent scar, fever, local soreness

ABSOLUTE CONTRAINDICATIONS:
HIV/ AIDS, immunocompromised, cough

CONTRAINDICATIONS FOR ANY VACCINES:
chemotherapy, corticosteroid therapy, fever of 38.5 and above

160
Q

BCG: DILUENT, SYRINGE, DISCHARGE

A

2-3mL, 5mL, after 4hours

161
Q

new PTB with extensive parenchymal lesions on CXR/ seriously-ill

162
Q

RELAPSE; TX failure, return after default, other

163
Q

NEW WITH LESS SEVERE/minimal parenchymal lesions on CXR

164
Q

CHRONIC/ CHRONIC/STILL (+) smear AFTER SUPERVISED RE- TREATMENT

165
Q

C3 Tx

A

2HRZ and 4HR

166
Q

C2 Tx

A

2HRZES and 5 HRE

167
Q

C1 Tx

A

2HRZE and 4HR

168
Q

new PTB with extensive parenchymal lesions on CXR/ seriously-ill

A

2HRZE and 4HR

169
Q

NEW WITH LESS SEVERE/minimal parenchymal lesions on CXR

A

2HRZ And 4HR

170
Q

RELAPSE

A

2HRZES and 5 HRE

171
Q

TREATMENT FAILURE

A

2HRZES and 5 HRE

172
Q

RETURN AFTER DEFAULT

A

2HRZES and 5 HRE

173
Q

HEPATITIS B: causative agent?

A

Hepatitis B virus

174
Q

HEPATITIS B
❑INCUBATION PERIOD: ________ DAYS; range: _________DAYS

A

❑INCUBATION PERIOD: 90days DAYS; range: 60- 150 DAYS

175
Q

heap b mode of transmission

A

Sexual Intercourse
Needle stick injury
Perinatal transmission
Blood transfusion
Common among drug addicts who use the same needles
Use of shared/ common utensils like razors

176
Q

s/SX of hepatitis b

A

Jaundice
Fever
Anorexia
Dark Urine
Clay-colored stool/ Acholic stool
Steatorrhea

177
Q

other signs of hepatitis b

A

N/ V
Fatigue/ malaise
Joint Pain/ Arthralgia
Abdominal Pain- Right Upper Quadrant pain

178
Q

management for hepatitis b

A

❑Isolation for 3-4 weeks
❑Proper hygiene- strict hand washing
❑Personal items should not be shared
❑Encourage bed rest
❑Encourage small frequent meals
❑Avoid alcohol intake

179
Q

Hepa B Prevention
CONTENT:
DOSAGE:
NUMBER OF DOSES:
ROUTE:
OLD SCHEDULE
NEW SCHEDULE:
SIDE EFFECTS: NO F____
ABSOLUTE CONTRAINDICATIONS CONTRAINDICATIONS FOR ANY VACCINES

A

CONTENT: Plasma Derivative
DOSAGE: 0.5mL
NUMBER OF DOSES: 3
ROUTE: IM
OLD SCHEDULE: Birth, 6wks, 14wks
NEW SCHEDULE: Penta 1(6wks), Penta 2 (10wks), Penta 3 (14wks)
SIDE EFFECTS: NO Fever, local soreness

ABSOLUTE CONTRAINDICATIONS :
neurologic d/o- spina bifida, meningitis, hydrocephalus

CONTRAINDICATIONS FOR ANY VACCINES:
chemotherapy, corticoid therapy, fever with more than 38.5

180
Q

Acute febrile infection of the tonsil, throat, nose, larynx

181
Q

DIPTHERIA causative agent and classification

A

Corynebacterium diphteriae
Klebs loffer bacillus

classification: gram positive bacteria w/ thick peptidoglycan wall
purple under microscope

182
Q

incubation period of diphteria

182
Q

pathognomonic sign of diptheria

A

pseudomembrane (whitish, grayish membrane)

183
Q

period of communicability

184
Q

The incubation period of diphtheria is

A

2 to 5 days

185
Q

Mode of Transmission of diphteria

A

A. Droplet
B. Airborne
C. Milk vehicle (unpasteurized milk)

186
Q

Susceptible to diphtheria

A

Infants born to mothers who had DIPTHERIA are only immune for the 1st few months. Immunity disappears after 6 months

187
Q

s/sx of diphteria

A

pseudomembrane
bull neck

188
Q

types of DIPHTHERIA

A

Nasal DIPHTHERIA
Laryngeal DIPHTHERIA
Pharyngeal DIPHTHERIA

189
Q

s/sx of Nasal DIPHTHERIA

A

coryza “runny nose”
epistaxis
adenitis/ lymphadenitis

190
Q

s/sx of Laryngeal DIPHTHERIA

A

hoarseness of voice

191
Q

s/sx of pharyngeal DIPHTHERIA

A

sore throat
tonsilitis
bull neck appearance

192
Q

diagnostics tests for diphteria

A

schick’s test
Moloney test

193
Q

test for the immunity and susceptibility to diphteria

A

schick’s test (same procedure with PPD)

194
Q

test to determine hypersensitivity to diphteria

A

Moloney’s test (same procedure with PPD)

195
Q

NURSING MANAGEMENT/PREVENTION FOR DIPHTERIA

A

*PROPER DISPOSAL OF SECRETIONS ✓Strict isolation: 5-7 DAYS
*COUGHING ETIQUETTE
*PASTEURIZATION
*VACCINATION

196
Q

DIPHTERIA PHARMACOLOGIC Management
DOC

A

PENICILLIN
ERYTHROMYCIN

197
Q

DO FOR PENICILLIN

A

250 mg PO QID FOR 14 DAYS

198
Q

DO ERYTHROMYCIN

A

500 MG(10 MG/KG children) PO every 6 hours FOR 14 DAYS

199
Q

DPT CONTENT

A

D: weakened toxin
P: killed bacteria
T: weakened toxin

200
Q

PREVENTION/VACCINATION: DPT (OLD) / PENTA (NEW)
CONTENT:
GIVEN WHEN:
DOSAGE:
NUMBER OF DOSES:
ROUTE:
OLD SCHEDULE
NEW SCHEDULE:
SIDE EFFECTS:
ABSOLUTE CONTRAINDICATIONS (DPT1; DPT2/3) CONTRAINDICATIONS FOR ANY VACCINES

A

GIVEN WHEN:
OLD: 6, 10, 14
NEW: 6, 10, 14

DOSAGE: 0.5mL
NUMBER OF DOSES: 3
ROUTE: IM
OLD SCHEDULE: 6, 10, 14
NEW SCHEDULE: 6, 10, 14

SIDE EFFECTS:
Local soreness
Fever

ABSOLUTE CONTRAINDICATIONS:
DPT1: neurologic d/o
DPT2/3: seizure or convulsion, 72 hrs after DPT 1 adm.

CONTRAINDICATIONS FOR ANY VACCINES:
CCF

201
Q

acute infection of the respiratory tract with attacks of coughing with a crowing sound

A

WHOOPING COUGH/PERTUSSIS

202
Q

Etiologic Agent of WHOOPING COUGH/PERTUSSIS

A

Haemophilus Pertussis, Bordetella Pertussis, Berdot Gengou Bacillus

203
Q

classification of WHOOPING COUGH/PERTUSSIS

204
Q

pathognomonic sign

A

paroxysmal with crowing sound

205
Q

HOARSENESS OF VOICE

A

LARYNGEAL diphteria

206
Q

SORE THROAT

A

PHARYNGEAL diphteria

207
Q

BULL NECK

A

PHARYNGEAL diphteria

208
Q

coryza

A

nasal diphteria

209
Q

epistaxis

A

nasal diphteria

210
Q

TONSILLITIS

A

pharyngeal diphteria

211
Q

ADENITIS

A

nasal diphteria

212
Q

Whopping cough
Incubation period: _____ DAYS; but not exceeding ____days

A

Incubation period: 7-10 DAYS; but not exceeding 21 days

213
Q

Whopping cough
Mode of transmission:

A

Droplet
Contact- respiratory secretion

214
Q

The incubation period of WHOOPING COUGH is?

A

7 to 10 days

215
Q

WHOOPING COUGh
Period of communicability:

A

10 after exposure
to 3-4 weeks

216
Q

whooping cough
SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS under invasive or catarrhal stage

A

7-14 days
Fever
Dry cough
Coryza

217
Q

Spasmodic Stage S/SX UNDER whooping cough/ pertussis

A

4-12 WEEKS
paroxysmal with crowing sound
protrusion of the eye
lymphadenopathy/ dilated veins

218
Q

stages of whooping cough

A

A. Invasive or Catarrhal stage
B. Spasmodic Stage

219
Q

DOC for pertussis/ whooping cough

A

Erythromycin
Azithromycin
Clarithromycin

220
Q

Erythromycin DO for pertussis

A

40-50 MG/KG/DAY in 4 divided
doses

221
Q

Azithromycin DO

A

10 MG/KG DAY 1, THEN 5 MG/KG DAILY FOR 4 DAYS

222
Q

Clarithromycin DO

A

LIQUID 7.5 MG/KG/DOSE ORAL BID FOR 7 DAYS

223
Q

WHOOPING COUGH/ PERTUSSIS nsg MANAGEMENT

A

✓Droplet precaution;
✓Isolation for 3-4 weeks
✓Clothing contaminated with discharges should be boiled for 30 MINS minutes before laundering

224
Q

cOMPLICATIONS OF WHOOPING COUGH/ PERTUSSIS

A

Bronchopneumonia
Hernia
Hemorrhage

225
Q

The causative agent of whooping cough is

A

A.Hemophilus pertussis. B.Bordet gengou bacillus. C.Bordetella pertussis.

226
Q

CATARRHAL OR SPASMODIC
1. FEVER
2.DRY COUGH
3. CORYZA
4. PAROXYSMAL COUGH
5. PROTRUSION OF EYES
6. 7-14 DAYS
7. 4-12 WEEKS

A
  1. C
  2. C
  3. C
  4. S
  5. S
  6. C
  7. S
227
Q

What diagnostic test is used to determine susceptibility and immunity to diphtheria?

A

Schick test

228
Q

What diagnostic test is used to determine hypersentivity to diphtheria toxoid?

A

Moloney test

229
Q

The causative agent of diphtheria is

A

A.Corynbacterium
B.Klebs-loeffler.

230
Q

common pathognomonic sign of diphtheria

A

Coryza

pathognomonic sign: pseudomembrane

231
Q

Which of the following is not a sign during the catarrhal stage of pertussis?
A.Dry cough.
B.Fever and watery eyes.
C.Coryza.
D.Protrusion of eyeballs.

A

D.Protrusion of eyeballs.

232
Q

Which of the following is a sign during the spasmodic stage of pertussis?
A.Dry cough.
B.Swollen neck and veins.
C.Coryza.
D.PSEUDOMEMBRANE

A

B.Swollen neck and veins.

233
Q

Acute disease caused by toxin of tetanus

A

TETANUS NEONATORUM

234
Q

ETIOLOGIC AGENT of TETANUS NEONATORUM

A

clostridium tetani

235
Q

haemophilus pertussis is a gram ?

A

gram negative
thin peptidoglycan wall
red/ pink under microscope

236
Q

clostridium tetani classification

A

bacteria- gram negative

237
Q

TETANUS NEONATORUM
Incubation period: _____days;
Mode of transmission:

A

Incubation period: 3-21 days;
Mode of transmission: Contaminated scissors

238
Q

SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS of tetanus neonatrum

A

❑Stops sucking (between 3-21 DAYS AFTER BIRTH
❑Excessive crying

239
Q

other signs of tetanus in adult

A

❑Painful spasm and rigid neck muscles: TRISMUS
❑Difficulty swallowing: DYSPHAGIA

240
Q

DOC for tetanus neonatrum

A

Penicillin
Metronidazole

241
Q

DO for Penicillin

A

2-4 million units/IV
every 4-6 hours

242
Q

DO for Metronidazole

A

500 MG/IV every 6- 8 hours

243
Q

MANAGEMENT for tetanus neonatrum

A

❑NO STIMULI: dark and quiet
❑PREVENTION: SAME AS DIPTHERIA AND PERTUSSIS

244
Q

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE SIGNS OF TETANUS NEONATORUM EXCEPT?
A. STOPS BREAST FEEDING BETWEEN 3- 21 DAYS
B.EXCESIVE CRYING
C.INABILITY TO OPEN MOUTH OR JAW D.SUNKEN FONTANELS

A

D.SUNKEN FONTANELS

245
Q

causative agent of poliomyelitis

A

Legio Debilitans

246
Q

classification of the causative agent of poliomyelitis

247
Q

incubation period of poliomyelitis

A

2-10days | 6-10 days in other sources

248
Q

mode of transmission of poliomyelitis

A

Droplet
contaminated hands or eating utensils (fomites)

249
Q

The incubation period of POLIOMYELITIS is

A

2 to 10 days. (6-10)

250
Q

Manifestations of poliomyelitis

A

sore throat
fever
headache
N/V
❑Some DOB
❑Temporary stiffness of the neck, back, and/or legs.
thinning of the arms and legs
paralysis of the arms and legs

251
Q

PREVENTION/VACCINATION: OPV
CONTENT:
GIVEN WHEN:
DOSAGE:
NUMBER OF DOSES:
ROUTE:
storage?

A

CONTENT: Virus
GIVEN WHEN: 6, 10, 14 weeks
DOSAGE: 2-3 drops
NUMBER OF DOSES: 3
ROUTE: Oral / per orem
Freezer: -15 to -25 since it is heat sensitive (MMR and AMV also)

252
Q

OPV side effects?

253
Q

OPV
❖Withhold BF:

Possible Problems:
a. VOMITING:
b. DIARRHEA:

A

for 30 mins after OPV adm.

Possible Problems:
a. VOMITING: give same dose
b. DIARRHEA: give dose but instruct mother to come back after 1 week then give the same dose

254
Q

old and new schedule of opv?

255
Q

INACTIVATED POLIO VACCINE
❑FIRST DOSE: ___ WEEKS
❑SECOND DOSE: ____ WEEKS
❑THIRD DOSE: _____ WEEKS
❑BOOSTER DOSE: ____MONTHS ❑DOSAGE:
❑ROUTE:

A

❑FIRST DOSE: 6 WEEKS
❑SECOND DOSE: 10WEEKS
❑THIRD DOSE: 14 WEEKS
❑BOOSTER DOSE: 6 MONTHS
❑DOSAGE: 0.5 mL
❑ROUTE: SQ

256
Q

most sensitive to heat

INCO (6 decks)

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