Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

INCO > Cardiac Medications > Flashcards

Cardiac Medications Flashcards

1
Q

common site for ABG

A

Radial Artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ABG type and size of syringe

A

10mL heparinized syringe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

why do they use heparinized syringe in ABG analysis?

A

anticoagulant to prevent bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is done to assess collateral circulation of the hand?

A

Allen’s Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Normal return to pinking color during ABG analysis?

A

6 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ABG: Where to place specimen?

A

container with ice to prevent hemolysis or breakdown of RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How to do an ABG analysis?

A
  1. Occlude radial and ulnar artery
  2. Close and open hand until blanch
  3. Release ulnar artery
  4. Wait for 6s for the return of pinkish color

*Less than 6seconds indicates decrease collateral circulation of the hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Interpret ABG
pH: 7.18
PaO2: 90
co2: 47
HCO3: 22

A

Respiratory Acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Interpret ABG
pH: 7.25
PaO2: 94
co2: 38
HCO3: 20

A

Metabolic Acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Interpret ABG
pH: 7.47
PaO2: 98
co2: 49
HCO3: 29

A

Partially Compensated Metabolic Alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Interpret ABG
pH: 7.48
PaO2: 93
co2: 21
HCO3: 20

A

Partially Compensated Respiratory Alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Primary Risk Factor of Respiratory Acidosis

A

COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Clinical Manifestations of Respiratory Acidosis

A

Headache
Hypercapnia
Warm and flush skin
Tachycardia
Blurry Vision
Irritability
Decrease level of consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Late sign of respiratory Acidosis

A

Disorientation and Confusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Management for Respiratory Acidosis

A

Maintain patent airway: 2-3 lpm (Venturi mask)
Give medications as prescribed
Administer o2 as ordered
Perform tracheal suctioning, postural drainage, coughing, and deep breathing
*Hyperoxygenate before and after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Interval for tracheal suctioning

A

15 minutes Max time
20-30 minutes before re-inserting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Chest physiotherapy nursing considerations

A

15 minutes
Upon awakening
Before meals
At bedtime
*After meals causes aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

most common cause of respiratory alkalosis

A

Panic Attack/ Anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Manifestations of respiratory alkalosis

A

Tachypnea
Anxiety
Restleness
Lightheadedness
Paresthesia
Increase deep tendon reflex
(+) Trousseau and Chvostek sign
Convulsion and seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

hyperventilation management

A

breathe into brown paper bag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

hypoventilation management

A

pursed lip breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

most common causes of metabolic acidosis

A

renal failure and diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

metabolic acidosis manifestations

A

breathing is rapid and deep (Kussmaul’s breathing)
SOB or dyspnea
Headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

metabolic acidosis ECG reading

A

peaked T wave
Prolonged PR Interval & QRS duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Initial signs of metabolic acidosis

A

paresthesia, high and fast > diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

late sign of metabolic acidosis’’

A

muscle weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Management for metabolic acidosis

A

Na HCO3 per IV (alkalinizing solution)- to reduce the effects of the acidosis on cardiac function. Flush it with NSS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Management for metabolic acidosis esp. for renal failure

A

Dialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Metabolic Alkalosis is caused by

A

loss of H production due to excessive vomiting
commonly associated with the use of diuretics because of hydrogen ion loss from kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

manifestations of metabolic alkalosis

A

electrolyte imbalance
disorientation/ confusion
muscle twitching
paresthesia
headache
nausea/ vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

metabolic alkalosis late sign

A

tremor and convulsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

management for metabolic alkalosis

A

Adm. 02 as ordered
Seizure precautions
Maintain patent IV
Adm. diluted K solution w/ am infusion pump
Monitor I and O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Metabolic alkalosis drug management use to increase excretion of HC03

A

Diamox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the IV solution for the management for metabolic alkalosis. This solution is infused no faster than 1L over 4hrs.

A

Ammonium Chloride
*Don’t adm. to patients with hepatic or renal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Arterial Disorder

A

Reynaud’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Venous Disorder

A

Deep Vein Thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Pain; intermittent claudication aggravated by activity and exercise

A

Reynaud’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Reynaud’s Disease Manifestations

A

Thin, shiny skin in the legs
Loss of hair on the affected leg
Skin is cold to touch
Ulcers occur in toes
Gangrene may develop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

DVT pathognomonic Manifestation

A

Homan’s sign > positive calf pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

DVT s/sx

A

pain is improved by activity and exercise
brown pigments around ankles
Redness of skin with edema
skin is warm to touch
ulcers occur in ankle
gangrene does not develop
*phlebitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what triad is the cause of DVT

A

Virchow’s triad
- vessel wall injury
- venous stasis
- hypercoagulability of the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

antidote for anticoagulant heparin

A

protamine sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

thrombolytics examples

A

streptokinase
urokinase
reteplase
tenecteplase
tissue plasminogen activator
anisolyted plasminogen streptokinase activater complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

thrombolytics adverse reactions

A

hypersensitivity reactions
bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

antidote for thrombolytic

A

Amicar/ aminocaproic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

examples of anticoagulant

A

enoxaprin (lovenox)
heparin
tinzaparin (innohep)
daleparin (fragmin)
certoparin (sancloparin)
nadroparin (flaxiparin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Route for anticoagulant

A

IV and SQ
*roate injection site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Anticoagulant can cause decrease in

A

platelet count causing pat prone to bleeding: reactal bleeding, gum bleeding, epistaxis, melena

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Side effects of anticoagulant

A

hemorrhage
itching
burning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

determine the effectivity of heparin

A

partial thromboplastin time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

normal result for ptt

A

60-70s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

more sensitive version of ptt

A

activated partial thromboplastin time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

aptt normal normal range

A

30-40s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

antidote for anticoagulant warfarin

A

vit k

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is the measurement for anticoagulant warfarin

A

Prothrombin Time
Internation Normal Ratio

55
Q

measures the time it takes for the blood clotting to occur

A

Prothrombin Time

56
Q

side effects of Coumadin

A

internal bleeding- petechiae
anorexia
diarrhea
rashes
n/ v
fever
abdominal cramps
stomatitis

57
Q

nursing management

A

bed rest for 5-7 days
elevate legs: improves venous return
apply compression support stockings: anti-embolic stockings
avoid prolonged standing
check pulse distal to the site of thrombosis
assess presence edema
monitor calf pain

58
Q

PT normal range

A

11-16s

59
Q

PT therapeutic range

A

1.5-2 * N

60
Q

aptt therapeutic range

A

therapeutic range: 2-2.5 * N

61
Q

INR normal range

A

0.8-1.2s

62
Q

INR therapeutic range

A

2-3s

63
Q

furosemide common side effects

A

orthostaticc hypotension
ototoxicity
rashes
photo sensitivity

64
Q

common electrolyte imbalance in furosemide

A

hypokalemia

65
Q

furosemide nursing considerations

A

monitor I and O
assess blood pressure
if given in IV, expect urinalysis output to increase in 15-20minutes
Adm. it slowly to prevent ototoxicity

66
Q

when to take furosemide

A

in the morning to prevent sleep pattern disturbances

67
Q

furosemide management

A

arise slowly to prevent orthostatic hypotension
if given per orem, give with four to prevent go upset

68
Q

magnesium normal range

A

1.5-2.5

69
Q

phosphorus normal range

A

1.5-4.5

70
Q

potassium normal range

A

3.5-4.5

71
Q

calcium normal range

A

8.5-10

72
Q

chloride normal range

A

98-110

73
Q

sodium normal range

A

135-145

74
Q

neutrophils normal level

A

2,500-6000

75
Q

mild neutropenia

A

1000-1500

76
Q

moderate neutropenia

A

500-1000

77
Q

severe neutropenia

A

< 500

77
Q

nephrotoxic drugs

A

acetaminophen
acyclovir
amino glycoside
amphotericin B
ciprofloxacin
rifampicin
sulfonamide
tetracycline
contrast medium

78
Q

hepatotoxic drugs

A

acetaminophen
erythromycin
iron overdose
isoniazid
rifampicin
sulfonamide

79
Q
A
80
Q

drugs causing staining

A

macrodantin
iron
lug’s solution
loop diuretic

81
Q

ototoxic drugs

A

aminoglycoside
aspirin
chloroquine
loop diuretic

82
Q

teratogenic

A

fluoriquinolone
aminoglycoside
tetracycline
ACE inhibitors
lithium
orał hypoglycemic agents

83
Q

not taken by 7years old and below

A

tetracycline

84
Q

not given to pregnant mother

A

ACE inhibitor

85
Q

anti-hypertensive drugs

A

ACE
ARBS
CCB
Cardiac glycoside

86
Q

ACE Inhobitors

A

lisinopril
enalapril

87
Q

ARBS

A

Losartan
telmisartan
irbesartan

88
Q

CCB

A

Verapamil
diltiazem
nifedipine
nicardipine

89
Q

side effects of ace

A

angioedema
dry cough

90
Q

side effects of arbs and ace

A

avoid in pregnant
elevated K

91
Q

increases heart contraction. thus decreasing BP and HR

A

CCB

92
Q

what does ccb blocks

A

L-type calcium channels

93
Q

cardiac myocyte function

A

Inc. contraction

94
Q

cardiac nodal tissue

A

Inc. HR

95
Q

Vascular smooth muscle

A

Narrows blood vessel
Inc BP

96
Q

CCB Is not taken with?

A

grapefruit

97
Q

most common side effect of ccb

A

headache

98
Q

makes the stronger heart contractions

A

positive inotropic

99
Q

increases heart rate

A

positive chronotropic

100
Q

(+) inotropic
(+) chronotropic

A

Cardiac glycoside

101
Q

digoxin toxicity

A

green halos
blurring of vision
n/v
dizziness

102
Q

digoxin normal range

A

0.5-2ng/ mL

103
Q

digoxin considerations in terms of apical pulse

A

< 60 (adult)
< 90 (children)

*do not adm.

104
Q

Warfarin route

A

Oral and IV

104
Q

heparin route

A

SQ and IV

105
Q

beta 1 acts on the following:

A

cardiac myocyte
cardiac nodal tissue
kidney

106
Q

beta 2 acts on the following:

A

GI system
vascular smooth muscle
skeletal muscle
ciliary body of the eye

107
Q

selective beta blockers

A

metoprolol
atenolol
esmolol

108
Q

nonselective beta blockers

A

propanolol
sotalol
tinolol

109
Q

non-selective beta-blocker effects

A

Dec. IOP
Bronchoconstriction
Hypo/ Hyperglycemia
Peripheral Vasoconstriction
Dec. HR

110
Q

Antilipidemics effects

A

Dec. LDL
HMG-Coa reductase inhibitors

111
Q

Examples of Antilipidemics

A

atorvastatin
simvastatin

112
Q

effects of atorvastatin

A

sore muscle

113
Q

bile acid sequestrants

A

colestipol (Colestid)
cholestyramine (Question)

114
Q

effects of antianginals

A

Dec. resistance, workload, and cardiac output

115
Q

antianginals 4Bs

A

Bradycardia
Bad for patients with respiratory problems
Blood sugar masking
Bad for patients with heart failure

116
Q

Nitrates effects

A

vasodilator BV
dilates
decrease BP
Decrease vascular resistance

117
Q

Nitrate drug examples:

A

nitroglycerin, nitroprusside, hydralazine, isosurbide, minoxidil, sildenafil

118
Q

Nitrates considerations:

A

No rinsing
Don’t eat/ drink after 5-10 minutes of adm.

119
Q

tranlingual nitrates considerations

A

direct to oral mucosa via spray
spray 5-8
hold breath 5-10s
avoid inhaling the spray

120
Q

sublingual nitrates considerations

A

offer sip of water
let med dissolve
under the tongue
don’t chew or swallow

121
Q

transdermal patch

A

hairless area
don’t shave
remove patch after 12-14hrs
allow 10-12 hrs patch free

122
Q

topical ointment

A

instruct patient to remove excess prior applying
rotate site of application

123
Q

transmucosal

A

between upper lip and gum or in buccal area
between the cheek and gum

124
Q

meds for hypotension and shock

A

adrenergic agonist
1. dopamine and dobutamine
2. Epinephrine

125
Q

class I

A

Sodium channel blockers

126
Q

Class II

A

Beta Blockers

127
Q

Class III

A

Conduction Delayers

128
Q

Class IV

A

Calcium Channel Blockers

129
Q

Class I Meds

A

Quinidine
Procainamide
LIdocaine
Flecainide

130
Q

Class II Meds

A

Acebutolol
Propranolol
Esmolol

131
Q

Class III Meds

A

Bretylium
Amiodarone

132
Q

Class IV Meds

A

Verapamil
Diltiazem
Nifedipine

INCO (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions