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Micropara > Communicable Diseases > Flashcards

Communicable Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Communicable diseases, also known as

A

infectious diseases or transmissible diseases

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2
Q

illnesses that result from the infection, presence and growth of pathogenic (capable of causing disease) biologic agents in an individual human or other animal host

A

Communicable diseases

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3
Q

Leprosy
Synonym

A

Hansen’s disease

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4
Q

more formal name for leprosy;
sometimes used to avoid the dreaded name

A

Hansen’s disease

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5
Q

Leprosy Etiologic agent:

A

Mycobacterium leprae

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6
Q

Leprosy Reservoir:

A

Humans

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7
Q

Leprosy Transmission:

A

Aerosol spread of nasal secretions; cannot cross intact skin

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8
Q

Leprosy incubation period:

A

3 to 5 years (shorter for PL than ML)

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9
Q
  • roughly the same as ___________ leprosy (PL) in the WHO leprosy classification system.
  • characterized by discolored regions of the skin that have lost sensation
A

tuberculoid (neural) form

  • paucibacillary
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10
Q

characterized by one or a few hypopigmented or hyperpigmented skin macules that exhibit loss of sensation (anesthesia) due to infection of the peripheral nerves supplying the region.

A

Paucibacillary (PB), or tuberculoid

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11
Q
  • much the same as _____________ (ML) in the WHO system
  • skin cells are infected, and disfiguring nodules form all over the body.
A

lepromatous (progressive) form

  • multibacillary
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12
Q

Therapy for PL and ML leprosy

A

PL: Dapsone and Rifampicin for 6 months

ML: Dapsone, Rifampicin, and Clofazimine for 24 months

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13
Q

leprosy prevention

A

BCG vaccination: provides variable protection (34% to 80%)

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14
Q
  • the word is from the Latin for rage or madness
  • a disease that almost always results in fatal encephalitis.
A

Rabbies

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15
Q

Rabbies Reservoir:

A

Wild and domestic canines, skunks, raccoons, insectivorous bats

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16
Q

Rabbies Transmission:

A

Animal (dog) bite (rabies virus in saliva)

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17
Q

Incubation Period of Rabies:

A

average of 30 to 50 days; 6 years have been reported

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18
Q

Rabies virus enters a motor neuron and travels, at the rate of ________ mm/day, along peripheral nerves to the CNS, where it causes encephalitis.

A

15 to 100

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19
Q
  • begins with fever, nausea, vomiting, headache, fatigue, and other nonspecific symptoms (mild and varied, resembling several common infections.)
  • Some patients continue to experience pain, burning, prickling, or tingling sensations at the wound site.
A

The prodromal phase of rabbies

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20
Q
  • the first acute signs of neurological involvement are agitation, disorientation, seizures, and twitching.
A

The furious phase of rabies

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21
Q

patient is not hyperactive but paralyzed, disoriented, and stuporous.

A

The dumb (numb or paralytic) phase

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22
Q
  • detection of the viral antigen
  • nearly 100% sensitive and highly specific.
  • can be done on saliva samples, blood, CSF, and skin; post- mortem samples are
    usually taken from the brain.
A

direct fluorescent-antibody (DFA) test

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23
Q
  • requires only the use of an ordinary light microscope and has a sensitivity and specificity equivalent to the standard DFA test.
  • For less- developed parts of the world by CDC
A
  • rapid immunohistochemical test (RIT)
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24
Q

is one of the few infectious diseases for which a combination of passive and active postexposure immunization is indicated and successful.

A
  • Rabies
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25
Q
  • Throughout human history, including prehistoric times, __________ has been one of the greatest afflictions, in the same ranks as bubonic plague, influenza, and tuberculosis.
A

Malaria

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26
Q

Malaria Etiologic agent:

A

Plasmodia

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27
Q

Sexual cycle phase of malaria is called __________ because ____________ are produced. Occurs primarily in mosquitoes

A
  • Sporogony
  • sporozoites
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28
Q

Asexual cycle phase of malaria is called _______________ because __________ are made. Occurs in humans, the intermediate host

A

Schizogony

schizonts

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29
Q

important cause of the common cold, probably second only to ___________ in frequency.

A

Rhinoviruses.

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30
Q

In 2002, a new disease, an atypical pneumonia called _______________, emerged.

A

severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)

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31
Q

In 2012, another severe pneumonia called _______________ emerged.

A

Middle East respiratory syndrome

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32
Q

SARS originated in and spread rapidly to other countries.

As of 2016, there have been ______ cases and ________ deaths—a fatality rate of approximately 9%.

A

China in November 2002

8300 cases
785 deaths

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33
Q

a new human coronavirus that caused an outbreak of serious, often fatal pneumonia in Saudi Arabia and other countries in the region in 2012–2013.

A

Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS)

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34
Q

Close contact with _______ appears to be the mode of transmission of MERS to humans.

A

camels

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35
Q

the primary HIV found worldwide in humans

is genetically related to another Lentivirus, _____________

A

HIV- 1

  • simian immunodeficiency virus (SIV)
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36
Q

is carried by monkeys, mangabeys, and chimpanzees in central Africa

A

SIV

37
Q

Earliest known sample of HIV comes from

A

Kinshaa, Democratic Republic of the Congo, in 1920

38
Q

HIV spread through:

A
  • Transportation
  • High population of migrants
  • Sex trade in Kinshaa
39
Q

HIV spikes attach to ________________ on host cells

A

CD4 and corereceptors

40
Q

is transcribed to DNA by reverse transcriptase

A

Viral RNA

41
Q

becomes integrated into the host chromosome to direct synthesis of new viruses or to remain latent as a provirus

A

Viral DNA

42
Q

HIV evades the immune system:

A
  • In latency
  • In vacuoles
  • By using cell- cell fusion
  • By antigenic change
43
Q

HIV is categorized by clinical phases:
* About 2 months following initial infection, the population of HIV in the blood peaks at about 10 million per ml
* Population of CD4+ T cells plunges during acute phase of HIV infection, then recovers as immune response appears
* Seroconversion: detectable antibodies against HIV appear. Immune response causes rapid decline in HIV population
* HIV in blood stabilizes at steady rate of 1000 to 10,000 per ml.

A
  • Phase 1 (asymptomatic/ chronic lymphadenopathy)
44
Q

HIV is categorized by clinical phases:
* CD4+ T cell population declines steadily
* HIV replication continues but at a relatively low level, probably controlled by CD8+ T cells; occurs mainly in lymphatic tissue
* Few diseases/ conditions:
- Candida albicans (in the mouth, throat, or vagina)

A
  • Phase 2 (Symptomatic; early indications of immune failure)
45
Q
  • Three Stages of HIV:
    Begins 2 to 4 weeks after infection
  • Mononucleosis-like picture of fever, lethargy, sore throat, and generalized lymphadenopathy
  • Maculopapular rash on the trunk, arms, and legs (except palms and soles)
  • Leukopenia, but the number of CD4 cells is usually normal
A

Early, Acute stage

46
Q

What is the stage of this HIV?
- flu-like symptoms that occur days to week after contracting HIV

A

Acute HIV

47
Q

What is the stage of this HIV?
- also known as the latent or asymptomatic stage; can last for several years

A

Chronic HIV

48
Q

What is the stage of this HIV?
- occur when CD4 cell count falls below 200 cells/mm3; makes a person vulnerable to opportunistic infections and AIDS-defining conditions

A

AIDS

49
Q
  • Sexual contact
  • Heterosexual intercourse is the primary method of HIV transmission
  • Breast milk
  • Contaminated needles
  • Transplacental infection
  • Artificial insemination
  • Blood transfusion
A

HIV TRANSIMISSION

50
Q
  • Transmission can be reduced by biomedical, behavioral, and structural interventions Current therapeutic agents target cell entry and the virus enzymes, including reverse transcriptase, integrase, and protease
  • Vaccine development is difficult because there are different antigenic clades and the virus remains inside host cells.
A

Preventing and Treating Aids

51
Q

False negative results when testing is performed before the onset of detectable antibodies, a period called a __________

A

window

52
Q

DIAGNOSIS:
* Antibody Tests
* Presumptive test/ Initial screening
* 1% can be false- positive

A

Enzyme- linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

53
Q

DIAGNOSIS:
* Antibody Tests
* Confirmatory test / definitive test

A

Western blot (Immunoblot) analysis

54
Q

To rule out this possibility, persons who test negative but are at some risk for exposure should be tested a second time _____ months later.

A

3 to 6

55
Q

is caused by the Zika virus, or ZIKV, a member of the Flaviviridae.

A

Zika virus disease (ZVD)

56
Q

ZIKV was first discovered in _____ in rhesus monkeys and is named after the Zika forest in Uganda

A

1947

57
Q

ZIKV infection during pregnancy greatly increases the risk of fetuses and infants developing a condition called ________.

A

microcephaly

58
Q

The most common signs and symptoms of ZVD, which last about a week, affect about 20% of infected individuals. They are usually mild and include ______, ___________, ______ and _____________, ________, __________, and _____________ Because people usually do not become ill enough to require hospitalization, they may not even realize that they are infected.

A

fever, headache, muscle and
joint pain, malaise, skin
rash, and conjunctivitis.

59
Q

Diagnosis of ____ is confirmed by reverse transcriptase PCR, and treatment involves rest, intake of sufficient fluids, and pain and fever reduction with common medications.

A

ZVD

60
Q
  • DIAGNOSING INFECTIOUS DISEASES
  • Requirements:
A
  • Taking a complete patient history
  • conducting a thorough physical examination
  • evaluating the patient’s signs and symptoms
  • implementing the proper selection, collection, transport, and
    processing of appropriate clinical specimens
61
Q
  • Three Components of Specimen Quality
A
  • proper selection of the specimen
  • proper collection of the specimen
  • proper transport of the specimen to the laboratory
62
Q
  • Consequences of Improperly Collected Specimens
A
  • the etiologic agent may not be found or may be destroyed
  • overgrowth by indigenous microflora may mask the pathogen
  • contaminants may interfere with the identification of pathogens and the diagnosis of the infectious disease
63
Q
  • General Precautions in Collecting Clinical Specimens
A
  • The specimen must be properly selected
  • The specimen must be properly and carefully collected
  • The material should be collected from a site where the suspected pathogen is most likely to be found and where the least contamination is likely to occur
  • Specimens should be obtained before antimicrobial therapy has begun. If this is not possible, the laboratory should be informed as to which antimicrobial agent(s) the patient is receiving
64
Q

considered to be the only bacterium that grows in the peripheral nervous system.

A

Mycobacterium leprae

65
Q

recently discovered (in 2008) leprosy-causing bacterium _____________, which is found mostly in Mexico and the Caribbean.

A

M. lepromatosis

66
Q

first isolated and identified around 1870 by Gerhard A. Hansen of Norway;

A

Mycobacterium leprae

67
Q

2 forms of leprosy

A
  1. Tuberculoid (neural)
  2. Lepromatous (progressive)
68
Q

2 forms of leprosy

A
  1. Tuberculoid (neural)
  2. Lepromatous (progressive)
69
Q
  • Patients with this type of leprosy have had the least effective cell-mediated
    immune response, and the disease has progressed from the tuberculoid stage.
A

Lepromatous (progressive) form

70
Q

Mucous membranes of the nose tend to become affected, and a _______________ is associated with this type of leprosy.

A

lion-faced appearance

71
Q

• Deformation of the hand into a clawed form and considerable necrosis of tissue can also occur
• Progression of the disease is unpredictable, and remissions may alternate with rapid deterioration.

A

lepromatous (progressive) form of leprosy

72
Q
  • Hypopigmented or reddish skin lesion(s) with loss of sensation
  • Thickening of the peripheral nerves with loss of sensation
A

Leprosy

73
Q

M. Leprae remain viable for ______ in dried nasal secretions, and about ________ in moist soil

A

9 days
6 weeks

74
Q

rabies virus is a member of the genus ____________ having a characteristic _______ shape

A

Lyssavirus
bullet shape

75
Q

rabies virus is a member of the genus ____________ having a characteristic _______ shape

A

Lyssavirus
bullet shape

76
Q

are single-stranded RNA viruses with no proofread- ing capability, and mutant strains develop rapidly.

A

Lyssaviruses
(lyssa, from the Greek for frenzy)

77
Q

When the CNS becomes involved, the patient tends to alternate between periods of agitation and intervals of calm.

A

The prodromal phase of rabbies

78
Q
  • a frequent symptom is spasms of the muscles of the mouth and pharynx that occur when the patient feels air drafts or swallows’ liquids. In fact, even the mere sight or thought of water can set off the spasms
A

The furious phase of rabies

79
Q

Throughout this phase, the patient is fully coherent and alert.

A

furious phase of rabies

80
Q

The rabies wound is infused with ______________________ to impede the spread of the virus, and __________ is also injected intramuscularly to provide immediate systemic protection. A full course of vaccination is started simultaneously. The current vaccine of choice is the __________________.

A

human rabies immune globulin (HRIG)

globulin

human diploid cell vaccine (HDCV)

81
Q

The rabies wound is infused with ______________________ to impede the spread of the virus, and __________ is also injected intramuscularly to provide immediate systemic protection. A full course of vaccination is started simultaneously. The current vaccine of choice is the human diploid cell vaccine (HDCV).

A

human rabies immune globulin (HRIG)

82
Q

As the dominant protozoan disease, Malaria threatens ____ of the world’s population every year.

A

40%

83
Q

The origin name of Malaria is from the Italian words _____, ______, and ______, air

A

mal, bad, and aria, air.

84
Q

The superstitions of the Middle Ages explained that ______ or ________ and vapors arising from swamps caused malaria, because many victims came down with the disease after this sort of exposure.

A

evil spirits or mists

85
Q

more common Plasmodia

A

P. vivax
P. falciparum- causes more severe malaria
P. ovale
P. malariae
P. knowlesi- in Southeast Asia

86
Q

Human-to-human transmission occurs, and some patients with SARS are thought to be “___________.”

A

“super- spreaders”

87
Q

The __________________ appears to be the natural reservoir for CoV-SARS, with the ___________ serving as an intermediate host.

A

horseshoe bat

civet cat

88
Q

another name for MERS coronavirus (MERS-CoV)

A

human coronavirus- EMC (HCoV-EMC).

89
Q

is a retrovirus with single-stranded RNA, reverse transcriptase, and a phospholipid envelope with gp 120 spikes

A

HIV

Micropara (7 decks)

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