common problems acute care Flashcards

1
Q

difference in chronic vs acute pain

A

chronic > 6 months

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2
Q

management of metastatic bone pain

A

bisphophonates - prevent development of cancer induced bone lesion as well

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3
Q

WHO ladder pain of management

A

3 step progressive ladder
start with ASA/ACE/NSAID
continues to build with heavier narcotics while maintain first step

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4
Q

pressure ulcers

A

stage 1: intact skin, doesn’t blanch
stage 2: partial-thickness loss with exposed dermis, blisters
Stage 3: full-thickness kin loss; adipose visible
Stage 4: full-thickeenss skin and tissue loss, exposed fascia, muscle, tendon, ligament, cartilage or bone

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5
Q

reliable factor for pressure ulcer development

A

hypoalbuminemia

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6
Q

initial treatment of post-op fever

A

hydration and measures to expand lung inflation

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7
Q

dressing for ulcer that is weeping

A

hydrocolloid

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8
Q

WBC shift to the left

A

bandemia
appear first at site of infection

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9
Q

complication of enteral support

A

enteral- directly to stomach NG/ND tube

refeeding syndrome
dehydrtation
aspiration
diarrhea
hypernatremia
emesis
GI bleed

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10
Q

refeeding syndrome

A

hypophosphatemia
hypokalemia
hypomagnesemia
hypocalcemia
thiamine deficiency

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11
Q

ND tube

A

small bore duodenal tube - if at risk for aspiration

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12
Q

s/s salicylate OD

A

( ASA )
tinnitus
hyperthermia
metabolic acidosis
elevated LFTs

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13
Q

s/s organophosphate OD

A

(insecticide)
blurred vsion
miosis (constriction)
bradycardia

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14
Q

drug of choice for organophosphate OD

A

atropine

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15
Q

serotonin syndrome mtg

A

dantrolene sodium
clonazepam for rigor
cooling blankets

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16
Q

mtg of ethylene glycol OD

A

(antifreeze)
Fomepizole (Antizol)

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17
Q

tx of beta blocker OD

A

glucagon

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18
Q

what indicates compartment syndrome an need for fasciotomy

A

intra-compartmental pressure > 30mmhg
measured with Stryker tonometer

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19
Q

delta pressure

A

perfusion pressure of a compartment
DBP -ICP ; delta <=30 indicates need for fasciotomy

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20
Q

mtg of dog/cat/human bite

A

flush wound
3-7 day course of oral prophylactic antibiotic (augmentin)

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21
Q

what is the pathogen found in acute otitis media

A

S.pneumoniae

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22
Q

what infection is S. pneumoniae related to

A

acute otitis
sinusitis
bronchititis
meningitis
CAP

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23
Q

most effective anti-rejection regimen

A

Triple Therapy
1. cortciocosteriod :prednisone/methylprednisolone
2,. antimetabolite (azathioprine or mycophenolate)
3. calcineurin inhibitor : tacroliums or cyclosporine -OR- mTOR inhibitor

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24
Q

tx if you feel pt is having acute rejection

A

immediate biopsy

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25
s/s acute rejection of organ
immediate failure of that organ flue like s/s
26
shingrix recommendations
all adults >= 50 y/o- two doses with 2nd dose given 2-6 months after initial dose
27
how does shingles begin
pain along dermatomal distribution, usually on trunk then grouped vesicle eruption of erythema and exudate
28
firm irregular papules or nodules may be keratootic and scaly bleeding
squamous cell carcinoma
29
the most common skin cancer
basal cell carcinoma
30
waxy , pearly lesion with telangiectatic vessels
basal cell carcinoma
31
highest mortality rate of skin cancer
malignant melanoma median age=40 may metastasize to any organ
32
criteria for brain death
no cranial nerve function normal temp
33
to redue excessive secretions
scopolamine patches or sublingual atropine otic drops under tongue
34
most common type of headache
tension headache
35
when would prophylactic therapy be appropriate for migraine
if they occur more than 2-3x /month
36
what test rules out spyhillis
VDRL
37
types of prophylactic therapy for migrains
gabapentin amitriptyline botox atenolol topiramate
38
headache mostly affecting middle aged men
cluster headache
39
headache unilateral that occurs at night and has rhinorrhea
cluster headache
40
what helps distinguish renal from non-renal causes of hyponatremia
urine sodium - urine >20 suggests problem with kidney ruine <10 usually problem other than kidney
41
isotonic hyponatremia
serum osmolality 284-295 (high) occurs with extreme hyperlipidemia or hyperproteinemia
42
high osmolality is high or low concentration
high - thick like syrup
43
hypotonic hyponatremia
serum osmolality <280 (diluted body fluid)
44
causes of hypovolemia with urine Na <10
dehydration diarrhea (c-diff) vomiting (NGT suction)
45
hypovolemic hyponatermia with urine NA >20
diuretic ACE inhibitor mineralcocortcoid deficiency
46
hypervolemic hypotonic hyponatremia
need to restrict water- most common edema state CHF liver disease advance renal failure
47
this electrolyte abnormality is usually from HHS
hypertoni hyponatremia with hyperglycemia osmolality >290, Na <135
48
tx for hyponatremia associated with hyperlipidemia
cut down fat isotonic hyponatremia
49
serum osmolality associated with isotonic hyponatremia
high - 284-295
50
serum osmolality associated with hypotonic hyponatremia
low <280 water excess diluting fluid
51
most common cause of serum osmolality >290 and hyperglycemia
HHS
52
mtg of hyponatremia
NS if hypovolemic hypervolemic- restrict water if urine sodium >20 tx cause if symptomatic give NS with loop diuretic CNS s/s give 3% NS with loop diuretic
53
how do you administer 3% saline
slow and calculated
54
alkalosis is associated with what electrolyte imbalance
hypokalemia
55
hyperkalemia is associated s/e of this medication
NSAID
56
emergency tx of hyperkalemia
Insulin 10U with one amp D50
57
EKG changes with hypokalemia
broad T wave prominent U waves PVCs
58
when do you replace potassium with IV supplement
<2.5 or severe s/s presnt may have 40mEq/L/hour IV check Mg
59
causes of hypocalcemia
hypoparathyroidism hypomagnesemia pancreatitis renal failure severe trauma multiple blood transfusions
60
s/s hypocalcemia
Trousseaus's sign Chvostek's sign prolonged QT interval increased DTRs
61
mt of acute hypocalcemia
IV calcium gluconate
62
ventilator changes for respiratory acidosis
increase rate
63
pt has low serum bicarbonate, what do you expect on ABG
metabolic acidosis
64
reasons for increased anion gap
DKA alcoholic ketoacidosis lactic acidosis
65
ionized calcium is affected how by albumin
it is not - does not vary with albumin (ionized calcium)
66
emergency tx of hypercalcemia
calcitonin
67
acid-base imbalance that results from decreased alveolar ventilation
respiratory acidosis
68
ABG 7.46 and pC02 30, what is this
respiratory alkalosis
69
first ABG abnormality when in distress
resp. alkalosis
70
hallmark sign of metabolic acidosis
low serum bicarbonate
71
s/s of resp. acidosis
somnolence and confusion myoclonus with asterixis
72
s/s respiratory alkalosis
paresthesia stocking/glove tingling tetany if very severe
73
Anion Gap
[ (NA) + (K) ] - (HCO3 + CL ) normal 12-17
74
normal anion gap metabolic acidosis
diarrhea ileostomy renal tubular acidosis
75
acid-base imbalance characterized by high plasma HC03
metabolic alkalosis
76
medication mtg for metabolic alkalosis
acetazolamide
77
first degree burn
dry, red, no blisters , epidermis only
78
second degree burn
partial thickenss moist, blisters, beyond epidermis
79
third degree burn
full thickenss dry, leathery, black, epidermis to dermis to underlying tissue, fat, muscle
80
rule of nines
each arm = 9 each leg = 18 thorax = 18 front, 18 back head = 9 perineum/genitals = 1
81
parkland formulat
4ml/kg x TBSA % 1/2 fluid in 8 hours, remaining over next 16 hours
82
avulsion
bone fragments pulled off by attached ligaments and tendons
83
assessment of eye- how do you know if artery or vein
arteries are brighter red and narrower than veins ; A:V ratio= 2:3 or 4:5
84
burn center tx criteria
-2nd degree >10% -burns on face, hands, feet, genitalia, perineum or major joints - 3rd degree burns -electircal burns -chemical burns -inhalation injury -burn in pt with medical disorder sth could complicate recovery or affect mortality -any pt with burn and trauma -burned children in hospital without pedi -burn injury in pt that requires special social, emotional or rehab intervention
85
AV nicking is sign of what
chronic HTN
86
what does intense pain in eye with redness and tearing from trauma possibly indicate
corneal abrasion
87
difference in acute closed angle and open angle chronic glaucoma
closed angle has extreme pain
88
normal IOP (intraocular pressure)
10-20
89
pt has halo around lights, blurred vision and denies pain - what do you suspect
cataract
90
tx of open angle chronic glaucoma
prostaglandin analogs (latanoPROST, bimatoPROST, travoPROST)
91
most common surgery in 65 year olds
cataract sx
92
glaucoma
increased IOP
93
viral load should be what in AIDS
zero or undetectable
94
testing for HIV
HIV1/2 antigent/antibody combo immunoassy ; if postive proceed to HIV-1HIV-2 antibody differentiation immunoassay
95
testing to monitor HIV
CD4 count normal 500-1200
96
heberdens nodes
in OA distal IP joint
97
bouchards nodes
in OA proximal IP joint
98
RA is worse when
in the morning, better as day progresses
99
ulnar deviation
hand deviates outward in RA (toward ulnar bone)
100
what do you monitor with pt on methotrexate
LFT
101
pt presents with butterfly rash- what do you suspect
systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) typically woman of childbearing age
102
dx for SLE (lupus)
ANA ( + in 95% ) antiphospholipid antibodies anemia leukopenia and thrombocytopenia
103
rcopeniain which age group do you expect to see sarcopenia
decreased muscle mass and strength -lean muscle replace by fat in elderly