Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Review > common problems acute care > Flashcards

common problems acute care Flashcards

1
Q

difference in chronic vs acute pain

A

chronic > 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

management of metastatic bone pain

A

bisphophonates - prevent development of cancer induced bone lesion as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

WHO ladder pain of management

A

3 step progressive ladder
start with ASA/ACE/NSAID
continues to build with heavier narcotics while maintain first step

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

pressure ulcers

A

stage 1: intact skin, doesn’t blanch
stage 2: partial-thickness loss with exposed dermis, blisters
Stage 3: full-thickness kin loss; adipose visible
Stage 4: full-thickeenss skin and tissue loss, exposed fascia, muscle, tendon, ligament, cartilage or bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

reliable factor for pressure ulcer development

A

hypoalbuminemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

initial treatment of post-op fever

A

hydration and measures to expand lung inflation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

dressing for ulcer that is weeping

A

hydrocolloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

WBC shift to the left

A

bandemia
appear first at site of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

complication of enteral support

A

enteral- directly to stomach NG/ND tube

refeeding syndrome
dehydrtation
aspiration
diarrhea
hypernatremia
emesis
GI bleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

refeeding syndrome

A

hypophosphatemia
hypokalemia
hypomagnesemia
hypocalcemia
thiamine deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ND tube

A

small bore duodenal tube - if at risk for aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

s/s salicylate OD

A

( ASA )
tinnitus
hyperthermia
metabolic acidosis
elevated LFTs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

s/s organophosphate OD

A

(insecticide)
blurred vsion
miosis (constriction)
bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

drug of choice for organophosphate OD

A

atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

serotonin syndrome mtg

A

dantrolene sodium
clonazepam for rigor
cooling blankets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

mtg of ethylene glycol OD

A

(antifreeze)
Fomepizole (Antizol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

tx of beta blocker OD

A

glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what indicates compartment syndrome an need for fasciotomy

A

intra-compartmental pressure > 30mmhg
measured with Stryker tonometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

delta pressure

A

perfusion pressure of a compartment
DBP -ICP ; delta <=30 indicates need for fasciotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

mtg of dog/cat/human bite

A

flush wound
3-7 day course of oral prophylactic antibiotic (augmentin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the pathogen found in acute otitis media

A

S.pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what infection is S. pneumoniae related to

A

acute otitis
sinusitis
bronchititis
meningitis
CAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

most effective anti-rejection regimen

A

Triple Therapy
1. cortciocosteriod :prednisone/methylprednisolone
2,. antimetabolite (azathioprine or mycophenolate)
3. calcineurin inhibitor : tacroliums or cyclosporine -OR- mTOR inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

tx if you feel pt is having acute rejection

A

immediate biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

s/s acute rejection of organ

A

immediate failure of that organ
flue like s/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

shingrix recommendations

A

all adults >= 50 y/o- two doses with 2nd dose given 2-6 months after initial dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how does shingles begin

A

pain along dermatomal distribution, usually on trunk
then grouped vesicle eruption of erythema and exudate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

firm irregular papules or nodules may be keratootic and scaly bleeding

A

squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

the most common skin cancer

A

basal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

waxy , pearly lesion with telangiectatic vessels

A

basal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

highest mortality rate of skin cancer

A

malignant melanoma

median age=40
may metastasize to any organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

criteria for brain death

A

no cranial nerve function
normal temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

to redue excessive secretions

A

scopolamine patches or sublingual atropine otic drops under tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

most common type of headache

A

tension headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

when would prophylactic therapy be appropriate for migraine

A

if they occur more than 2-3x /month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what test rules out spyhillis

A

VDRL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

types of prophylactic therapy for migrains

A

gabapentin
amitriptyline
botox
atenolol
topiramate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

headache mostly affecting middle aged men

A

cluster headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

headache unilateral that occurs at night and has rhinorrhea

A

cluster headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what helps distinguish renal from non-renal causes of hyponatremia

A

urine sodium - urine >20 suggests problem with kidney
ruine <10 usually problem other than kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

isotonic hyponatremia

A

serum osmolality 284-295 (high)
occurs with extreme hyperlipidemia or hyperproteinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

high osmolality is high or low concentration

A

high - thick like syrup

43
Q

hypotonic hyponatremia

A

serum osmolality <280 (diluted body fluid)

44
Q

causes of hypovolemia with urine Na <10

A

dehydration
diarrhea (c-diff)
vomiting (NGT suction)

45
Q

hypovolemic hyponatermia with urine NA >20

A

diuretic
ACE inhibitor
mineralcocortcoid deficiency

46
Q

hypervolemic hypotonic hyponatremia

A

need to restrict water- most common

edema state
CHF
liver disease
advance renal failure

47
Q

this electrolyte abnormality is usually from HHS

A

hypertoni hyponatremia with hyperglycemia
osmolality >290, Na <135

48
Q

tx for hyponatremia associated with hyperlipidemia

A

cut down fat

isotonic hyponatremia

49
Q

serum osmolality associated with isotonic hyponatremia

A

high - 284-295

50
Q

serum osmolality associated with hypotonic hyponatremia

A

low <280
water excess diluting fluid

51
Q

most common cause of serum osmolality >290 and hyperglycemia

A

HHS

52
Q

mtg of hyponatremia

A

NS if hypovolemic
hypervolemic- restrict water
if urine sodium >20 tx cause
if symptomatic give NS with loop diuretic
CNS s/s give 3% NS with loop diuretic

53
Q

how do you administer 3% saline

A

slow and calculated

54
Q

alkalosis is associated with what electrolyte imbalance

A

hypokalemia

55
Q

hyperkalemia is associated s/e of this medication

A

NSAID

56
Q

emergency tx of hyperkalemia

A

Insulin 10U with one amp D50

57
Q

EKG changes with hypokalemia

A

broad T wave
prominent U waves
PVCs

58
Q

when do you replace potassium with IV supplement

A

<2.5 or severe s/s presnt
may have 40mEq/L/hour IV
check Mg

59
Q

causes of hypocalcemia

A

hypoparathyroidism
hypomagnesemia
pancreatitis
renal failure
severe trauma
multiple blood transfusions

60
Q

s/s hypocalcemia

A

Trousseaus’s sign
Chvostek’s sign
prolonged QT interval
increased DTRs

61
Q

mt of acute hypocalcemia

A

IV calcium gluconate

62
Q

ventilator changes for respiratory acidosis

A

increase rate

63
Q

pt has low serum bicarbonate, what do you expect on ABG

A

metabolic acidosis

64
Q

reasons for increased anion gap

A

DKA
alcoholic ketoacidosis
lactic acidosis

65
Q

ionized calcium is affected how by albumin

A

it is not - does not vary with albumin (ionized calcium)

66
Q

emergency tx of hypercalcemia

A

calcitonin

67
Q

acid-base imbalance that results from decreased alveolar ventilation

A

respiratory acidosis

68
Q

ABG 7.46 and pC02 30, what is this

A

respiratory alkalosis

69
Q

first ABG abnormality when in distress

A

resp. alkalosis

70
Q

hallmark sign of metabolic acidosis

A

low serum bicarbonate

71
Q

s/s of resp. acidosis

A

somnolence and confusion
myoclonus with asterixis

72
Q

s/s respiratory alkalosis

A

paresthesia
stocking/glove tingling
tetany if very severe

73
Q

Anion Gap

A

[ (NA) + (K) ] - (HCO3 + CL ) normal 12-17

74
Q

normal anion gap metabolic acidosis

A

diarrhea
ileostomy
renal tubular acidosis

75
Q

acid-base imbalance characterized by high plasma HC03

A

metabolic alkalosis

76
Q

medication mtg for metabolic alkalosis

A

acetazolamide

77
Q

first degree burn

A

dry, red, no blisters , epidermis only

78
Q

second degree burn

A

partial thickenss
moist, blisters, beyond epidermis

79
Q

third degree burn

A

full thickenss
dry, leathery, black, epidermis to dermis to underlying tissue, fat, muscle

80
Q

rule of nines

A

each arm = 9
each leg = 18
thorax = 18 front, 18 back
head = 9
perineum/genitals = 1

81
Q

parkland formulat

A

4ml/kg x TBSA %

1/2 fluid in 8 hours, remaining over next 16 hours

82
Q

avulsion

A

bone fragments pulled off by attached ligaments and tendons

83
Q

assessment of eye- how do you know if artery or vein

A

arteries are brighter red and narrower than veins ; A:V ratio= 2:3 or 4:5

84
Q

burn center tx criteria

A

-2nd degree >10%
-burns on face, hands, feet, genitalia, perineum or major joints
- 3rd degree burns
-electircal burns
-chemical burns
-inhalation injury
-burn in pt with medical disorder sth could complicate recovery or affect mortality
-any pt with burn and trauma
-burned children in hospital without pedi
-burn injury in pt that requires special social, emotional or rehab intervention

85
Q

AV nicking is sign of what

A

chronic HTN

86
Q

what does intense pain in eye with redness and tearing from trauma possibly indicate

A

corneal abrasion

87
Q

difference in acute closed angle and open angle chronic glaucoma

A

closed angle has extreme pain

88
Q

normal IOP (intraocular pressure)

A

10-20

89
Q

pt has halo around lights, blurred vision and denies pain - what do you suspect

A

cataract

90
Q

tx of open angle chronic glaucoma

A

prostaglandin analogs (latanoPROST, bimatoPROST, travoPROST)

91
Q

most common surgery in 65 year olds

A

cataract sx

92
Q

glaucoma

A

increased IOP

93
Q

viral load should be what in AIDS

A

zero or undetectable

94
Q

testing for HIV

A

HIV1/2 antigent/antibody combo immunoassy ; if postive proceed to HIV-1HIV-2 antibody differentiation immunoassay

95
Q

testing to monitor HIV

A

CD4 count normal 500-1200

96
Q

heberdens nodes

A

in OA
distal IP joint

97
Q

bouchards nodes

A

in OA
proximal IP joint

98
Q

RA is worse when

A

in the morning, better as day progresses

99
Q

ulnar deviation

A

hand deviates outward in RA (toward ulnar bone)

100
Q

what do you monitor with pt on methotrexate

A

LFT

101
Q

pt presents with butterfly rash- what do you suspect

A

systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

typically woman of childbearing age

102
Q

dx for SLE (lupus)

A

ANA ( + in 95% )
antiphospholipid antibodies
anemia
leukopenia and thrombocytopenia

103
Q

rcopeniain which age group do you expect to see sarcopenia

A

decreased muscle mass and strength -lean muscle replace by fat

in elderly

Review (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions