106 questions Flashcards

1
Q

telangiectasia

A

spider viens
associated dx processes: rosacea, liver dz, scleroderma, lupus, corticosteroid use, raynauds

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2
Q

type 1 error

A

false postive
incorrectly rejecting the true null hypothesis

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3
Q

type 2 error

A

false negative
failing to reject a false null hypothesis

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4
Q

national mandate for VAP

A

HOB elevated

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5
Q

who is over licensure of APRN

A

BON

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6
Q

sensitivity

A

ability of test to correctly identify those with the disease
those that are postive

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7
Q

specificity

A

ability of test to correctly identify those with out the disease
those that are negative

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8
Q

p< 0.05

A

rejects null

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9
Q

p >0.05

A

fails to reject null

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10
Q

VAP management

A

Vanco
zosyn OR cefepime OR meropenem OR aztreonam
levofloxacin/cipro

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11
Q

tx for cardiac tamponade

A

pericardiocentesis

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12
Q

NP scope of practice

A

based on legal allowances in each State - according to practice acts

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13
Q

vaccines post splenectomy

A

meningococcal and PNU most important

also HIV, Flu, trap, zoster HPV MMR varicella

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14
Q

plasma cortisol of addisons dx

A

<5 at 0800

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15
Q

mtg of hypotension in addisons

A

administer D5NS

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16
Q

steps of research

A

formulate the problem
review literature
formulate hypothesis
select design
identify population
method of data collection
designing the study
conduct the study
analyze data
interpret result
communicate finding

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17
Q

normal urine specific gravity

A

1.010-1.030

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18
Q

arcus senilis

A

blue/grey corneal ring in elderly due to hyperlipidemia - permanent color change, no effect on vision

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19
Q

Changes to vent if a pt goes into ARDS

A

decrease tidal volume to prevent ALI - 4-6ml/kg

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20
Q

changes to vent if pt pulmonary shunting

A

increase PEEP

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21
Q

lab to assess if enteral feeding is beneficial

A

pre-albumin

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22
Q

complication of enteral feeding when someone hasn’t eaten in a while

A

refeeding syndrome
hypophosphatemia
hypokalemia
hypomagnesemia
hypocalcemia
thiamine deficiency

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23
Q

complications of synthorid that causes low compliance

A

alopecia

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24
Q

which patient most likely to have angioedema with ACE

A

African american

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25
Q

fidelity

A

faithful

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26
Q

veracity

A

truthfulness

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27
Q

labs associated to ASA OD

A

hyperkalemia
elevated LFTs
metabolic acidosis

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28
Q

what do you monitor with pt with cancer and bone mets

A

hypercalcemia

29
Q

tx for antifreeze ingestion

A

fomepizole

30
Q

GCS for TBI

A

mild- 13-15
moderate -9-12
severe- 3-8

31
Q

initial tx for stridor secondary to anaphylaxis

A

subs epi

32
Q

causes of pre-renal failure

A

impaired renal perfusion
- shock , dehydration, cardiac failure, burns diarrhea, vasodilation/sepsis

33
Q

causes of intra-renal failure

A

nephrotoxic agents (aminogylcosides) allergic disorders, mismatched blood transfusion, damage to tubular portion of nephron (ATN)

34
Q

s/s of meth OD

A

mydriasis (dilated pupils)
hyperthermia
hallucinations

35
Q

mainstay tx of COPD

A

ipratropium bromide or sympathomimetics

36
Q

when to administer thrombolytics for MI

A

uncontrolled CP > 30 minutes and < 6 hours PLUS ST elevation; contraindicated in severe uncontrolled HTN >= 185/110

37
Q

genetic trait r/t sickle cell

A

inherited autosomal recessive, sickle cell trait

38
Q

most preventable death

A

tobacco use

39
Q

highest mortality rate in US following heart dx

A

cancer

40
Q

IABP contraindication

A

aortic valve insufficiency

41
Q

asthmatic treatment ladder

A

1.-SABA (albuterol)
2.-low dose ICS -budesonide,fluticasone, triamcinolone
3.-low dose ICS + LABA (salmeterol,formoterol) (combo drugs: fluticasone+salmeterol=Advair, Symbicort)
4.-medium dose ICS + LABA
5. high dose ICS + LABA

42
Q

UC tx

A

mesalamine and hydrocortisone suppositories and/or enemas

43
Q

diverticulitis tx

A

NPO
IVF
abx - cipro +flagly, levo +flagyl

44
Q

tx for pericarditis

A

NSAIDS
echo
monitor for tamponade

45
Q

pt presents with dysphagia, drooling and expiratory stridor - what do you suspect

A

epiglottitis

46
Q

who do you test for HIV

A

IV Drug user
unprotected nail sex
unprotected vaginal sex

47
Q

tx for pleural effusion with s/s

A

thoracentesis

48
Q

who do you screen for AAA

A

65-75 who have ever smoked - selectively screen if never smoked - one time

49
Q

who do you screen for colorectal ca

A

age 45*75 - stool based test q 3 years, colonoscopy q 10 years, flex sig q 5 ters

50
Q

when do you screen PSA/DRE

A

annually starting at 40 y/o for men with family hx of prostate ca or AA; annually for all males 50+

51
Q

what age do PAP start

A

21
with cytology q 3 years 21-65 y/o
cytology + HPV every 5 years 30-65 y/o

52
Q

HPV vaccine

A

age 9-14 series of two 6 months apart
15+45 series of three of 0,2, 6 months

53
Q

metabolic alkalosis is at risk for what

A

hypokalemia

54
Q

research highest rated to lowest level

A

meta-analysis
systematic review of RCT
RCT
Quasi-experimental
qualitative cohort
case-controlled studies
expert opinion

55
Q

CQI

A

quality improvement
systematic process of identifying and analyzing problems and then testing, implementing, learning from and revising solutions

56
Q

tx for breakthrough cancer pain

A

transdermal fentanyl

57
Q

tx for bone pain r/t cancer mets

A

biophosphonates

58
Q

what do you administer pre-op to heochromocytoma

A

phentolamine IV then PO phenoxybenazmine after

59
Q

tx for serotonin syndrome

A

dantrolen sodium

60
Q

who gets pneumonia vaccine

A

65 and older
19-64 uf smoke or asthma

61
Q

homonymous hemianopia

A

half vision

62
Q

who developed standards of practice

A

ANA provides guidelines for nursing perforation - rules or definitions of what it means to provide competent care

63
Q

purpose of managed care

A

focus on prevention and care management to produce better patient outcomes and help control healthcare costs

64
Q

what diagnostic test order for pt with diverticultis

A

Plain abdominal film to look for pneumoperitoneium

65
Q

gold standard test for cholecystitis

A

ultrasound

66
Q

more useful test for acute pancreatitis

A

CT over US

67
Q

dx of appendicits

A

ultrasound or CT

68
Q

Iowa model

A

developed at university of Iowa hospitals and clinics in 1990 to serve as a guide for nurses to use research findings to help improve patient care
model was developed as pathway to EBP- a method to guide steep to help identify issues, research solution and implement changes