Colorectal Cancer Flashcards

1
Q

How common is colorectal?

A

2nd most common in men and women

9% of cancer dx

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2
Q

What is the medium age of dx?

A

68 men, 72 women

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3
Q

In which age group is incidence increasing?

A

Those <50

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4
Q

What is the percentage 5 year survival of stage 1 vs 4

A

98.6 vs 13.4

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5
Q

When is FOBT given?

A

Second yearly for those 50-74

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6
Q

What is the percentage of positive FOBT have cancer?

A

1:29

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7
Q

What are risk factors?

A
IBD
Previous abdominopelvic radiation 
Obesity
Diabetes and insulin resistance
Meat consumption 
Family history
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8
Q

Which IBD subgroup is highest risk?

A

USC with PSC

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9
Q

When should screening begin post abdopelvic radiation?

A

5 years after or at aged 30

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10
Q

What are the molecular subtypes?

A

CMS1 - MSI-immune
CMS2 - canonical
CMS3 - metabolic
CMS4 - Mesenchymal

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11
Q

What percentage of CRC are from genetic syndromes?

A

5%

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12
Q

What are the main genetic syndrome and what are the genes?

A

Polyposis syndrome inc FAP. APC gene

Lynch syndrome (Hereditary non-polyposis coli HNPCC). Loss of MLH1, MSH2, PMS2 or MSH6 - microsatellite instability

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13
Q

How do you differentiate familiar and sporadic lynch

A

Loss at normal tissue for loss of MLH1

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14
Q

What does deficiency in mismatch repair mean for outcomes

A

Better outcomes with deficient over proficient

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15
Q

Why are liver mets common in colon ca?

A

Colon is drained by portal vein

Cf to rectal cancer where lung mets are more common

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16
Q

How many LNs should be resected?

A

14

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17
Q

What is the rectum?

A

Below the peritoneal reflection

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18
Q

When do you get chemoradiotherapy in rectal?

A

Neoadjuvant

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19
Q

In which stages do you give adjuvant therapy in CRC?

A

Stage three and high risk stage 2

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20
Q

What is high risk stage 2 disease?

A

T4 (extending into peritoneum)
Presenting with obstruction or perforation
Inadequate node sampling
Presence of lymhovascular or perineural invasion

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21
Q

What are the T types?

A

Tx - cannot be assessed
T0 - no primary
Tis - carcinoma in situ, intraepithelial or invasion of lamina propria
T1 - invasion of submucosa
T2 - invasion of muscular propria
T3 - through muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues
T4a - penetrates surface of visceral peritoneum
T4b - in invades or adherent to other organs or structures

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22
Q

What are the N classes?

A
Nx - cannot be assessed
N0 - no LN mets 
N1 - Mets in 1-3 regional LNs 
N1a - mets in one regional LN
N1b - mets in 2-3 regional LN
N1c - tumour deposit in subserosa, mesentery, or nonperitonealised pericolic or perirectal tissues without region LN mets 
N2 - mets in 4 or more regional LNs 
N2a - mets in 4-6 regional LNs 
N2b - mets in 7 or more regional LNs
23
Q

What are the M classes?

A

M0 - no distant mets
M1 - distant mets
M1a - mets confined to one organ site (eg liver, lung, nonregional LN)
M1b - mets in more than one organ/site or the peritoneam

24
Q

What are the stages in relation to TNM?

A
0 - Tis 
I - T1/2
IIA/IIB/IIC - T3/T4a/T4b
III - T1-4 + N1-2b
IV - Any T, any N with M1a or 1b
25
What is the aim of adjuvant chemo?
Cure - mop up micro-metastasis
26
What adjuvant chemo is used?
Fluoropyrimidine (either 5FU or capecitabine) and oxaliplatin ie FOLFOX or CAPOX
27
How long do you give adjuvant chemo?
3 in lower risk (T1-3, N1), 6 in higher (T4 and/or N2)
28
What does the presence of post-op circulating tumour DNA mean?
Recurrence is inevitable
29
What percentage of CRC express CEA?
70%
30
How do you surveil post curative treatment?
No Australia guidelines - follow US: Full colonoscopy if not already had one then at 3 years then 5 yearly Exam w CEA 3monthly for three years then 6 monthly CT CAP annually for three years
31
What percentage of CRC presents with metastatic disease?
25%
32
When is mutational status important?
Metastatic disease
33
What are the implications of the different mutations?
RAS/RAF - predictive of response to EGFR directed therapy BRAF - poor responders, rapid development of chemotherapy resistance and nodal spread MMR status - MSI-H do poorly
34
Which agents are used with EGFR positive?
Cetuximab | Panitumimab
35
How is stage 4b managed?
Metastatic chemotherapy - FOLFOX and FOLIFIRI No surgery
36
Which vascular endothelial growth factor inhibitor is used?
Bevacizumab
37
When are targeted therapies used?
Metastatic disease | Not in adjuvant therapy
38
What is the 5 year survival of M1a disease?
as high as 40%
39
How long is neoadjuvant therapy given in M1a?
3 months
40
What side CRC is poorer prognosis?
Right
41
What met CRC benefits from anti-EGFR therapy?
Left-sided RAS wildtype | cetuximab & panitumimab
42
Which mutations are more common on which side?
BRAF - right side | RAS/RAF - left side
43
What is hte mechanism of fluoropyrimidines (5FU)
Inhibit thymidine synthesis - metaabolites incorportted into DNA - apoptosis
44
What is FOLFIRI?
5FU w irinotecan
45
What is FOLFOX?
5FU w oxaliplatin
46
What are the toxicities of fluoropyridines?
Mucocitis - oral to anus N/V Coronary artery vasospasm Myelosuppression
47
What is the variation in fluoropyrimidine metabolism?
Deficiency in enzyme dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase Present in 2-8% of population Presents with early myelosuppression and bad mucositis Antedote present
48
What is the toxicity of irinotecan?
Diarrhoea, myelosuppression and fatigue UAT181 enzyme metabolises SN-38 - deficiency in this (also in Gilbert's syndrome) can lead to fatal toxicity with myelosuppresion
49
What is the toxicity of oxaliplatin?
Peripheral neuropathy - cumulative effect, irreversible Cold dysaesthesia Fatigue Infusion reactions
50
What are the EGFR inhibitors?
Cetuximab and panitumimab
51
What are the the VEG-F inhibitors?
Bevacizumab only one available in Aus
52
When is bevacizumab used?
R sided RAS/RAF mCRC
53
What are some side effects of bevacizumab?
HTN, proteinuria, thromboembolism, wound breakdown