CNS Flashcards

contains material emphasized in class.

1
Q

what is primary type of action potential transmission in CNS, chemical or electrical transmission

A

chemical

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2
Q

influx of which ion into the presynaptic membrane stimulates NT exocytosis

A

calcium ion (Ca2+)

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3
Q

is changing the concentration of. NT OR up/downregulating a receptor a direct or indirect receptor interaction

A

indirect

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4
Q

are CNS drugs generally extremely selective for their target

A

no, they are RELATIVELY selective for their target

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5
Q

are both initial and delayed responses important for ultimate clinical effect

A

yes

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6
Q

the ability of a drug to penetrate the lipophilic BBB is critical to its activity in the CNS. what is often involved in the BBB penetration?

A

active metabolites (which may have a longer half-life than the parent drug)

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7
Q

what are the 5 classes of drugs that affect the CNS

A

anesthetics, analgesics, tranquilizers and sedatives, anti-depressants and anti-anxiety drugs, anti-epileptic drugs

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8
Q

what is the goal of anti-epileptic therapy

A

balance reduction of seizures with quality of life for patient

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9
Q

what is a major inhibitory NT in CNS

A

GABA

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10
Q

this first-line AED is moderately lipophilic (can cross BBB), has kinetics change in first few days, and there is considerable variation in serum concentration for any specific dose

A

phenobarbital

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11
Q

name 3 adverse effects of phenobarbital

A

behaviour changes (sedation or hyper excitability), immune mediated anemia/neutropenia, acute hepatotoxicity, polydipsia, polyphasic, hepatotoxicity, decreased serum T4 concentrations

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12
Q

what should you know about drugs that inhibit cytochrome P450 enzymes, eg. chloramphenicol, cimetidine, ketoconazole

A

can cause phenobarbital toxicity

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13
Q

what does the induction of cytochromeP450 enzymes by phenobarbital change

A

change the PK of some other drugs

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14
Q

why is therapeutic drug monitoring of phenobarbital important

A

serum concentrations at a given dose vary between individuals, so dose adjustments often needed

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15
Q

when should you monitor concentration of phenobarbital in patients

A

monitor concentration to first steady state concentration time point (2 weeks), again at first steady state clearance time point (6 weeks), monitor liver function every 6 months

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16
Q

this AED has an extremely long half life (15 days dog, 10 days cat) so is very slow to reach steady state, and no peak or trough. It is cleared really (no hepatic or protein binding) so patients with kidney disease may need dose reduction

A

KBr potassium bromide

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17
Q

when is steady state reached in KBr? when should serum drug concentrations be monitored?

A

3 months. monitor at 1 month, 3 months, annually (or sooner if evidence of toxicity or ineffectiveness)

18
Q

this AED is primarily an add-on treatment and has a short half-life

A

levetiracetam

19
Q

this benzodiazepine AED is used to treat acute seizures and status epileptics and impractical for long-term therapy in dogs due to short half-life, tolerance/dependance possibility, and abuse potential

A

diazepam

20
Q

dog is emergency seizuring! what is the preferred emergency seizure drug and why? what is route of administration?

A

diazepam, it is more lipophilic that other benzodiazepines. can give per rectum (owner can use this route), orally, or IV, but not IM

21
Q

this AED has a short half-life in dogs (2 hours) so no accumulation with typical chronic use, high therapeutic index, and no therapeutic monitoring is needed

A

imepitoin

22
Q

potential behavioural consequence of behaviour modifying drugs

A

aggression

23
Q

behaviour modifying drugs and antidepressants take how long to exert full effects?

A

several weeks

24
Q

is it necessary to taper behaviour modifying drugs after long-term administration

A

yes

25
Q

name 3 general clinical effects of benzodiazepines

A

anxiolytic, anterograde amnesia (good for pre-anesthetic), anticonvulsant; also sedative and hypnotic at higher effects, muscle relaxant, appetite stimulant

26
Q

different effects of different drugs in benzodiazepine class are due to what?

A

variations in the GABA receptor

27
Q

what are 3 PK and PD considerations about diazepines?

A

chronic administration can cause GABA receptor down-regulation, tolerance may occur, and gradual tapering is needed after chronic administration to prevent discontinuation syndrome

28
Q

there are many different subtypes of serotonin receptors; are they presynaptic or postsynaptic?

A

some are presynaptic and some are postsynaptic

29
Q

buspirone and SSRIs desensitize which receptor

A

5-HT1A

29
Q

buspirone and SSRIs desensitize which receptor

A

5-HT1A

30
Q

name 4 types of antidepressant drugs and an example drug from each type

A

SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors), eg. fluoxetine; tricyclic antidepressants, eg. clomipramine; MAOs (monoamine oxidase inhibitors), eg. selegiline HCl; atypical antidepressants, eg. trazodone

31
Q

you are starting a kittycat on antidepressants. should you start at the low or high end of a dose? how long should you expect to see a response?

A

low end of dose (in order to assess response to minimize adverse effects). at least 2 weeks, but potentially 4-6 weeks to see full response

32
Q

if you increase SSRI plasma concentrations, what change will you see in the clinical effect

A

there is no relationship between SSRU plasma concentrations and clinical effect

33
Q

this most commonly used SSRI requires great caution if combined with MAOIs due to the risk of serotonin syndrome

A

fluoxetine

34
Q

this fluoxetine drug (proprietary name) is specifically approved for treating separation anxiety

A

Reconcile

35
Q

what is the effect of tricyclic antidepressants on serotonin, norepinephrine, acetylcholine, and histamine

A

inhibit serotonin reuptake, inhibit norepinephrine reuptake, anticholinergic effects, antihistaminic effects

36
Q

there are multiple less common adverse effects of tricyclic antidepressants include constipation, diarrhea, ataxia, and mydriasis. these are often related to _____ effects

A

related to anticholinergic effects

37
Q

3 most common adverse effects of tricyclic antidepressants?

A

sedation, mitosis, urinary retention

38
Q

this tricyclic antidepressant is approved for use in dogs for OCD, dominance aggression, and separation anxiety

A

clomipramine

39
Q

this atypical antidepressant is a serotonin antagonist and reuptake inhibitor

A

trazodone