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VETM 443 Clin Pharm Tox > Adrenergic and Cholinergic Receptors > Flashcards

Adrenergic and Cholinergic Receptors Flashcards

red info and some theory. complete

1
Q

3 visceral tissues (visceral targets) the ANS controls

A

smooth muscle; cardiac muscle; glands

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2
Q

pre-ganglionic fibres of the ANS (SNS and PNS) release this NT at the ganglia; the NT binds to this type of receptors

A

acetylcholine (ACh); nicotinic

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3
Q

post-ganglionic fibres of the SNS release this NT at the ganglia; the NT binds to this type of receptors

A

norepinephine (NE); adrenergic

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4
Q

post-ganglionic fibres of the PNS release this NT at the ganglia; the NT binds to this type of receptors

A

acetylcholine (ACh); muscarinic

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5
Q

SNS nucleus is located in _____; ganglion in ______ axon varicosities in _________

A

nucleus in spinal cord; ganglia bilaterally adjacent to vertebral column; axons in target tissue

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6
Q

PNS nucleus is located in _____; ganglion in ______ axon varicosities in _________

A

brainstem and medulla; ganglia in target tissue; axon in target tissue

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7
Q

are nicotinic receptors ligand-gated ion channels or GPCRs

A

ligand-gated ion channels

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8
Q

are adrenergic receptors ligand-gated ion channels or GPCRs

A

GPCRs

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9
Q

are muscarinic receptors ligand-gated ion channels or GPCRs

A

GPCRs

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10
Q

4 products of adrenal glands

A

mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, androgens, epinephrine and norepinephrine (remember salt, sugar, sex, stress)

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11
Q

epinephrine has high affinity for which receptors

A

alpha and beta adrenergic receptors

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12
Q

norepinephrine has high affinity for which receptors

A

alpha adrenergic receptors, weaker affinity for beta adrenergic receptors

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13
Q

name 5 target tissues of SNS

A

eye (+ smooth muscle around eye), salivary glands, arterioles, lungs, heart, stomach, GIT, kidney, bladder

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14
Q

name 5 target tissues of PNS

A

eye (+ lacrimal gland), salivary glands, lungs, heart, GIT, bladder, penis, prostate

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15
Q

does the PNS directly affect vascular smooth muscle

A

no

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16
Q

true or false: the heart has both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation

A

true

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17
Q

true or false: blood vessels have both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation

A

false, only has sympathetic innovation (except in erectile tissue)

18
Q

name a major function of alpha 1 adrenergic receptor activation on the cardiovascular system

A

vasoconstriction

19
Q

name a major function of alpha 2 adrenergic receptor activation on the cardiovascular system

A

direct blood vessel effect of vasoconstriction at first, then presynaptic effect of vasodilation

20
Q

name a major function of beta 1 adrenergic receptor activation on the cardiovascular system

A

increased cardiac output

21
Q

name a major function of beta 2 adrenergic receptor activation on the cardiovascular system

A

vasodilation of skeletal muscle and heart; bronchodilation

22
Q

name a major function of muscarinic adrenergic receptor M2 activation on the cardiovascular system

A

decreased cardiac output

23
Q

name 4 physiological effects of parasympathetic overstimulation

A

diarrhea, urination, mitosis, bronchorrhea, bradycardia, emesis, lacrimation, lethargy, salivation, sweating

24
Q

Horner’s syndrome results from the loss of what

A

loss of sympathetic supply to head and neck

25
Q

drugs that act similarly to endogenous catecholamines (norepinephrine, epinephrine) are called

A

sympathomimetics or adrenergic agonists

26
Q

drugs that act similarly to acetylcholine are called

A

parasympathomimetics or cholinergics or cholinoreceptors stimulants

27
Q

name 2 irreversible acetylcholinesterase (ACh) inhibitors

A

organophosphates and sarin nerve gas

28
Q

this drug is a reversible inhibitor of acetylcholinesterase, so results in increased breakdown of Achieving at synaptic cleft, and is used to increase gut motility and myasthenia gravis

A

neostigmine (cholinergic)

29
Q

these 2 drugs are competitive muscarinic antagonists, dose-dependent, and are used for emergency treatment of arrhythmias, bronchodilators, ophthalmic exams

A

atropine and glycopyrrolate (anticholinergics)

30
Q

which drug crosses BBB to lesser extent and so has fewer CNS effects: atropine or glycopyrrolate

A

glycopyrrolate does not cross BBB as much so has fewer CNS effects

31
Q

this drug is only used in horses in Canada, has similar effects to atropine, and is used for gas/spasmodic colic, acute equine asthma treatment, and as rectal exams

A

N-butylscopolammonium bromide / hyoscine butyl bromide (anticholinergic)

32
Q

do alpha 2 agonists increase or decrease cardiac output

A

decrease cardiac output (so they are good premeds for anesthesia and standing procedures, since they are sedatives and analgesics, but they are bad for CV compromised patients)

33
Q

how do alpha 2 agonists provide sedation? provide anesthesia?

A

sedation due to inhibition or norepinephrine release in brainstem; anesthesia due to reduced NT release and signal transmission in afferent pathways

34
Q

how do alpha 2 agonists reduce cardiac output

A

initial vasoconstriction effect causes reflex bradycardia then presynaptic effects lead to subsequent vasodilation

35
Q

this alpha 2 agonist is a sedative used in healthy horses and ruminants and has side effects of AV block, reduced GI motility, sweating, increased myometrial tone

A

xylazine

36
Q

this alpha 2 agonist is 50-100x more potent than xylazine and is used mostly in horses for standing surgery

A

detomidine

37
Q

this alpha 2 agonist is used in SA sedation, dosed based in body surface area, makes over 50% of cats vomit. what is the drug? what is ir reversed with?

A

dexmedetomidine; reverse with atipamezole

38
Q

this beta 1 agonist is a positive ionotrope that does not increase heart rate, is given as CRI, and can cause seizures in cats

A

dobutamine

39
Q

this beta 2 agonist is a bronchodilator sometimes used to treat equine asthma, inhibits uterine tone, and is banned in food animals

A

clenbuterol

40
Q

this non-selective adrenergic agonist is used for emergency treatment of anaphylaxis or for CPR; sometimes added to local anaesthetics to cause vasoconstriction, increases cardiac output and myocardial oxygen consumption

A

epinephrine

41
Q

this alpha 1 antagonist reduces blood pressure, is used to treat functional urethral obstruction, and is 97% protein bound

A

prazosin

42
Q

this alpha 2 antagonist acts as a competitive inhibitor to revise sedation, cardiovascular effects, and analgesia associated with alpha 2 agonist administration

A

atipamezole

VETM 443 Clin Pharm Tox (18 decks)

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