Clinical Science VII - X Flashcards

1
Q

solar urticaria type VI is associated with what condition?

A

Erythropoietic photoporphyria

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2
Q

hypocomplementemic urticarial vasculitis is associated with what cell type on skin biopsy?

A

Neutrophils

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3
Q

normocomplementemic urticarial vasculitis is associated with what cell type of skin biopsy?

A

Eosinophils

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4
Q

which autoantibody is always associated with hypocomplementemic occur urticarial vasculitis?

A

Anti C1q

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5
Q

where does C1 inhibitor act?

A

inhibits the classical pathway, MBL pathway, FXIa, FXIIa and kallikrein

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6
Q

which gene codes for C1 inhibitor?

A

SERPING1

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7
Q

what lab value distinguishes acquired angioedema from hereditary angioedema?

A

Low C1q

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8
Q

Inflammation in hypersensitivity pneumonitis occurs through what mechanism?

A

immune complex deposition; activated T cells

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9
Q

What cytokine is elevated in hypersensitivity pneumonitis?

A

IL17

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10
Q

What is characteristic in the BAL in hypersensitivity pneumonitis?

A

lymphocytosis with decreased CD4/CD8

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11
Q

What is characteristic in the BAL in sarcoidosis?

A

lymphocytosis with increased CD4/CD8

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12
Q

What is the major allergen in fire ant venom?

A

piperdines

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13
Q

Which stinging insect has the highest risk and the least effective VIT?

A

honeybee

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14
Q

which cytokines increase during immunotherapy?

A

IFN-gamma, IL-12

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15
Q

Which cell types increase during immunotherapy?

A

Tregs

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16
Q

Which cell types decrease during immunotherapy?

A

eosinophils, Th2

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17
Q

List the colors of IT vials from most concentrated to least.

A

Red, yellow, blue, green, silver

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18
Q

which cytokines are associated with hypotension in anaphylaxis?

A

IL-6, tryptase, histamine

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19
Q

What is the mutation associated with idiopathic anaphylaxis?

A

D816 - c-kit

20
Q

Gal-alpha-gal allergy cross reacts with which medication?

A

cetuximab

21
Q

What are the dominant muscarinic receptor subtypes in the lung?

A

M1, M2, M3

22
Q

Which muscarinic receptor is responsible for smooth muscle bronchoconstriction?

A

M3

23
Q

What does the M2 muscarinic receptor do?

A

inhibits acetylchoine release

24
Q

How can ipratropium cause worsening of asthma symptoms?

A

binds to M2 receptor, increasing Ach release leading to bronchoconstriction

25
Q

what cardiac effects can be associated with first generation antihistamines?

A

torsade de points; prolonged QT

26
Q

Chromolyn inhibits which phase of the allergic response?

A

early and late

27
Q

What rash is characterized by monomorphic, punched out erosions/ulcerations?

A

eczema herpticum

28
Q

Staph superantigen has been shown to induce which cytokine in eczema?

A

IL31

29
Q

What is the diagnosis in a person with rhinitis, eosinophils on nasal smear, and negative SPT?

A

NARES - non-allergic rhinitis with eosinophils

30
Q

Gustatory rhinitis is due to what?

A

stimulation of sensory C-fibers

31
Q

What are the indications for tympanostomy tubes?

A

otitis with structural damage; persistent otitis x >4 months; hearing loss

32
Q

give examples of direct and indirect bronchprovocation tests

A

Direct: histamine; methacholine
Indirect: manatol, exercise

33
Q

What is the best biomarker for detecting eosinophilic airway inflammation?

A

periostin followed by FeNO

34
Q

which is better at predicting a future asthma exacerbation, asthma severity or control?

A

control

35
Q

Which drugs increase theophylline levels?

A

alcohol, cimetidine, copro, clarithromycin, erythromycin, oral contraceptives, verapamil, zileuton

36
Q

Which drugs decrease theophylline levels?

A

aminoglutethamide, carbamazepine, isoproterenol, pnenobarbitol, phenytoin, rifampin

37
Q

Which ICS is pregnancy category B?

A

budesonide

38
Q

Which leukotriene modifier is category C?

A

zileuton

39
Q

What serum marker is not increased in food allergy related anaphylaxis, which is different from other forms of anaphylaxis?

A

tryptase

40
Q

What are the risk factors for fatal food anaphylaxis?

A

asthma, symptom denial, adolescent, increased platelet activating factor

41
Q

Which vaccines are contraindicated in a pt with hx of severe reactions to egg?

A

Yellow fever; rabies is use caution

42
Q

When does airflow obstruction begin in the early allergic asthmatic response?

A

5-10 minutes

43
Q

When does airflow obstruction peak in the early allergic asthmatic response?

A

20-30 minutes

44
Q

Which medication inhibits the early phase asthmatic response?

A

cromolyn - not ICS

45
Q

Which medications inhibit the late allergic asthmatic response?

A

Beta agonist, single dose ICS prior to or immediately after allergen exposure, cromolyn