Clinical Science VII - X Flashcards

1
Q

solar urticaria type VI is associated with what condition?

A

Erythropoietic photoporphyria

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2
Q

hypocomplementemic urticarial vasculitis is associated with what cell type on skin biopsy?

A

Neutrophils

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3
Q

normocomplementemic urticarial vasculitis is associated with what cell type of skin biopsy?

A

Eosinophils

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4
Q

which autoantibody is always associated with hypocomplementemic occur urticarial vasculitis?

A

Anti C1q

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5
Q

where does C1 inhibitor act?

A

inhibits the classical pathway, MBL pathway, FXIa, FXIIa and kallikrein

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6
Q

which gene codes for C1 inhibitor?

A

SERPING1

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7
Q

what lab value distinguishes acquired angioedema from hereditary angioedema?

A

Low C1q

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8
Q

Inflammation in hypersensitivity pneumonitis occurs through what mechanism?

A

immune complex deposition; activated T cells

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9
Q

What cytokine is elevated in hypersensitivity pneumonitis?

A

IL17

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10
Q

What is characteristic in the BAL in hypersensitivity pneumonitis?

A

lymphocytosis with decreased CD4/CD8

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11
Q

What is characteristic in the BAL in sarcoidosis?

A

lymphocytosis with increased CD4/CD8

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12
Q

What is the major allergen in fire ant venom?

A

piperdines

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13
Q

Which stinging insect has the highest risk and the least effective VIT?

A

honeybee

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14
Q

which cytokines increase during immunotherapy?

A

IFN-gamma, IL-12

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15
Q

Which cell types increase during immunotherapy?

A

Tregs

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16
Q

Which cell types decrease during immunotherapy?

A

eosinophils, Th2

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17
Q

List the colors of IT vials from most concentrated to least.

A

Red, yellow, blue, green, silver

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18
Q

which cytokines are associated with hypotension in anaphylaxis?

A

IL-6, tryptase, histamine

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19
Q

What is the mutation associated with idiopathic anaphylaxis?

A

D816 - c-kit

20
Q

Gal-alpha-gal allergy cross reacts with which medication?

21
Q

What are the dominant muscarinic receptor subtypes in the lung?

A

M1, M2, M3

22
Q

Which muscarinic receptor is responsible for smooth muscle bronchoconstriction?

23
Q

What does the M2 muscarinic receptor do?

A

inhibits acetylchoine release

24
Q

How can ipratropium cause worsening of asthma symptoms?

A

binds to M2 receptor, increasing Ach release leading to bronchoconstriction

25
what cardiac effects can be associated with first generation antihistamines?
torsade de points; prolonged QT
26
Chromolyn inhibits which phase of the allergic response?
early and late
27
What rash is characterized by monomorphic, punched out erosions/ulcerations?
eczema herpticum
28
Staph superantigen has been shown to induce which cytokine in eczema?
IL31
29
What is the diagnosis in a person with rhinitis, eosinophils on nasal smear, and negative SPT?
NARES - non-allergic rhinitis with eosinophils
30
Gustatory rhinitis is due to what?
stimulation of sensory C-fibers
31
What are the indications for tympanostomy tubes?
otitis with structural damage; persistent otitis x >4 months; hearing loss
32
give examples of direct and indirect bronchprovocation tests
Direct: histamine; methacholine Indirect: manatol, exercise
33
What is the best biomarker for detecting eosinophilic airway inflammation?
periostin followed by FeNO
34
which is better at predicting a future asthma exacerbation, asthma severity or control?
control
35
Which drugs increase theophylline levels?
alcohol, cimetidine, copro, clarithromycin, erythromycin, oral contraceptives, verapamil, zileuton
36
Which drugs decrease theophylline levels?
aminoglutethamide, carbamazepine, isoproterenol, pnenobarbitol, phenytoin, rifampin
37
Which ICS is pregnancy category B?
budesonide
38
Which leukotriene modifier is category C?
zileuton
39
What serum marker is not increased in food allergy related anaphylaxis, which is different from other forms of anaphylaxis?
tryptase
40
What are the risk factors for fatal food anaphylaxis?
asthma, symptom denial, adolescent, increased platelet activating factor
41
Which vaccines are contraindicated in a pt with hx of severe reactions to egg?
Yellow fever; rabies is use caution
42
When does airflow obstruction begin in the early allergic asthmatic response?
5-10 minutes
43
When does airflow obstruction peak in the early allergic asthmatic response?
20-30 minutes
44
Which medication inhibits the early phase asthmatic response?
cromolyn - not ICS
45
Which medications inhibit the late allergic asthmatic response?
Beta agonist, single dose ICS prior to or immediately after allergen exposure, cromolyn