Clinical Psychology 6 Flashcards

Priority 3

1
Q

What are some negative stereotypes of elderly clients and what does research say about them?

A

stereotypes: physical and mental impairment, irritability, resistance to change
research: intellectual stability, active involvement in community, respond to therapy more slowly than, but nearly as effectively as younger adults

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2
Q

What are the percentages of overall population and MH services use among the aged?

A
  • US population: 11%
  • outpatient clinic population: 2%
  • community MHC population: 4%
  • inpatient population: 28%
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3
Q

What are some of the foci of therapy with older clients?

A
  • identity transitions
  • involvement in satisfying activities and relationships
  • treatment of depression
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4
Q

Describe Reminiscence Therapy.

A
  • facilitates acceptance of successes and shortcomings in life
  • stresses resolution of past conflicts, creation of future goals
  • commonly group setting
  • effective Tx for depression among elderly
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5
Q

Describe Cass’ six stage model of homosexual identity development.

A
  • identity awareness, consciousness of being different
  • identity comparison, acting heterosexual but feeling homosexual
  • identity tolerance, realization of homosexuality
  • identity acceptance, exploration of gay community
  • identity pride, becoming active in gay community
  • synthesis, full acceptance of self & others
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6
Q

Describe Troiden’s four age-based stages of homosexual identity development.

A
  • sensitization, pre-pubescent awareness of homosexual feelings without understanding
  • identity confusion (self-recognition), awareness of one’s homosexuality, age ~17 (males) or ~18 (females)
  • identity assumption, coming out, age ~19-21 (males) or ~21-23 (females)
  • identity commitment, adoption of homosexual lifestyle, age ~21-24 (males) or ~22-23 (females)
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7
Q

Describe some advantages of the term “sexual prejudice” over “homophobia” and “heterosexism.”

A
  • homophobia implies a pathological fear, rather than a socially reinforced prejudice
  • heterosexism is limited to biases against non-heterosexuals, but sexual prejudice addresses bias based on sexuality in any form
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8
Q

Describe the distal and proximal factors affecting mental health outcomes among LGBT clients, according to Meyer’s Minority Stress Model.

A
  • distal factors: external, objective events and conditions, such as discrimination and violence
  • proximal factors: internal, subjective appraisals of or responses to events and conditions, such as expectations of rejection, concealment of sexual orientation, and internalized homophobia
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9
Q

Discuss Eysenck’s research on psychotherapy outcomes.

A

His 1952 19-study comparative analysis indicated that 2/3 or neurotic patients recovered within two years, whether or not they received psychotherapy. Thirty years later (1985), he indicated that behavior therapy was superior to placebo or no treatment.

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10
Q

Discuss the results of Smith, Glass & Miller’s meta-analysis of psychotherapy outcomes.

A
  • 475 studies, 2500 patients, 78 treatment types, average of 16 sessions
  • psychotherapy is better on average than no treatment (d = .85)
    • average client better off than 80% of controls
    • 66% of clients improve (34% of controls improve)
  • more recent research indicates that effect size is as large as 1SD
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11
Q

List nine client variables that have been studied as predictors of psychotherapy outcome.

A
  • intelligence: generally positively related
  • openness/nondefensiveness: generally positively related
  • understanding of goals: generally positively related
  • personality characteristics: ego strength, suggestibility, anxiety tolerance are generally positively related
  • expectations: moderate expectations generally more successful than those with very high or very low expectations
  • motivation: early motivation appears unrelated, but motivation during therapy appears positively related
  • SES: negative relationship appears to be function of tendency for low SES patients to be referred to less-experienced treaters
  • gender: appears not to be related, although more women than men seek psychotherapy
  • age: appears not to be related
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12
Q

List nine therapist variables that have been studied as predictors of psychotherapy outcome.

A
  • competence: little studied, but appears to be positively related
  • expectations: some evidence that outcomes are enhanced when client expectations are effectively addressed early in treatment
  • emotional well-being: there is a clear, but modest positive relationship with therapy outcome
  • professional background & experience: paraprofessionals are as effective as those with advanced degrees, but clients view education level and an important factor; also experience is more important with challenging patients, complex treatments, and early assessment of outcome- ethnicity: not a factor in outcome, but may affect early termination/drop-out
    The following appear to have little to no effect on outcome:
  • age
  • gender
  • orientation
  • self-disclosure
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13
Q

List three treatment variables that have been studied as predictors of psychotherapy outcome.

A
  • therapeutic alliance: accounts for more than any other factor, including treatment type
  • treatment type: no consistent relationship, although some studies have found behavioral interventions to be more effective for specific disorders
  • duration/dosage: relationship is ambiguous, but generally time-limited treatments are favored over longer ones; some research finds a linear improvement up to about 26 sessions
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14
Q

Discuss treatment outcome research on children and adolescents.

A
  • little done overall
  • outcomes appear to be similar to those with adults
  • some evidence that teen girls respond best
  • overall effect size of d = .71, 76% are better than no treatment
  • most studies do not reflect clinical practice (1% meet Tx representativeness criteria)
  • low rate of self-referral (13%), high recruitment through others (77%)
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15
Q

Describe the three stages of Howard’s Phase Model of Psychotherapy Readiness.

A
  • remoralization: focus on and improvement in client’s feelings of hopelessness and desperation
  • remediation: focus on symptom relief; typically between sessions 5 and 15 (able to do this because of regaining hope in remoralization)- rehabilitation: gradual improvement in life functioning, e.g., work, relationships, etc.
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16
Q

Name the 10 clinical scales of the MMPI-2.

A
  1. Hypochondriasis (Hs) [somatocentrism]
  2. Depression (D)
  3. Hysteria (Hy) [physical problems with functional origin, conversion reactivity]
  4. Psychopathic Deviate (Pd) [psychopathy]
  5. Masculinity-Femininity (Mf)
  6. Paranoia (Pa)
  7. Psychasthenia (Pt) [neuroticism]
  8. Schizophrenia (Sc)
  9. Hypomania (Ma)
  10. Social Introversion (Si) [intro-/extroversion]
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17
Q

Name the five validity scales of the MMPI-2.

A
  • ? or “Cannot Say”: # unanswered/both-answered items; >30 uninterpretable; >10 interpret with caution; may indicate reading diff, overcaution, indecisiveness, paranoia, rebelliousness, intellectualization
  • L or “Lie”: high scores = unwillingness to admit minor shortcomings, bias toward favorable presentation, lack of self-insight; low scores = independence, bluntness, negative self-view
  • F or “Infrequency”: high scores (T=70-90) = psychopathy, malingering, eccentricity; >90 invalidate test; low scores = social conformity, lack of pathology
  • K or “Correction”: aka “defensiveness”, better indicator than L of positive bias; high scores = unwillingness to reveal problems/conflicts, desire to “fake good,” associated with poor Tx prognosis; low scores = poor self-image, frankness, self-criticism, poor self-defense; non-defensive, but high-education can score high (60-70)
  • TRIN, VRIN, Back Side (F[B]): item consistency scores
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18
Q

Describe the MMPI-2.

A
  • 338 T/F items (most recent version; previous version had 567 items)
  • MMPI originally developed using empirical criterion keying, second iteration (MMPI-2) used content analysis
  • designed for clinical populations
  • T-score scaling (M=50, SD=10), =>65 is pathological
  • relies on pattern analysis of two or three highest scores- 10 clinical scales
  • 5 validity scales
  • 15 content scales
  • supplemental scales
  • use of “cookbook” interpretation resources and services risks validity and applicability of MMPI-2 output
19
Q

Describe some score patterns commonly seen in the MMPI-2.

A
  • conversion V: 1(Hs) and 3(Hy) are high, with lower 2(D); somaticization, chronic pain, conversion or somatiform disorder
  • psychotic V (aka paranoid valley): 6(Pa) and 8(Sc) are high, with lower 7(Pt); paranoid schizophrenia and related behavior
  • passive-aggressive V: 4(Pd) and 6(Pa) are high, with lower 5(Mf); sociopathy and paranoia with passive traits
20
Q

Describe the Millon Clinical Multiaxial Inventory-III (MCMI-III).

A
  • based on Millon’s personality theory
  • 175 T/F items
  • 21 scales corresponding to DSM-III and -IV
  • adolescent version (MACI) is available for ages 13-19 with => 6th grade reading level
21
Q

Describe the Symptom Checklist 90 (SCL-90).

A
  • self-report inventory
  • general psychiatric symptoms
  • typically treatment outcome dependent measure
  • 90 items, 5 point scale, 0-4
22
Q

Describe the NEO-Personality Inventory-Revised (NEO-PI-R).

A
  • based on Big Five personality traits
  • includes six facets of each (e.g., neuroticism: anxiety, depression, hostility, self-consciousness, impulsiveness, vulnerability to stress)
23
Q

What is the projective hypothesis?

A

the expectation that an individual’s responses to vague or ambiguous stimuli will be revealing about his/her personality and underlying conflicts

24
Q

Describe the Rorschach Inkblot Test.

A
  • most frequently used projective test
  • used age 2 and older
  • 10 symmetrical inkblots, five black/grey, two black/grey/red, three pastel (final set published 1921)
  • most commonly used scoring system is Exner’s Comprehensive System (1986)
25
Q

What are the four steps in administering the Rorschach Inkblot Test?

A
  • introduction: allaying of anxiety
  • instruction: asking Pt to say all s/he sees, “What might this be?”
  • response: Pt freely associates with image and examiner records responses verbatim, including time on each card, time to first response, odd responses
  • inquiry: after all 10 cards are done, clarifying responses and collecting additional info
26
Q

What are some of the scoring categories of Exner’s Comprehensive System of Rorschach interpretation?

A
  • location: areas of inkblot; could be whole (W) or unusual detail (Dd); W responses may indicate intellectual organization; many Dd responses my indicate compulsiveness, avoidance
  • determinants: form, movement, shading, color; form (F) relates to perceived shape of blot features; form quality relates to how closely response resembles actual blot structure
  • content: human (H), animal (A); lack of H may indicate identity issues or detachment; A common in children
  • frequency/occurrance: populars (P) are most commonly seen; high P may reflect conformity, depression, low intellect; low P may reflect rebelliousness, disordered thought
27
Q

What are some of the special scores used on the Rorschach Inkblot Test and what do they indicate?

A
  • deviant verbalizations (DV): incorrect words, redundancies
  • contamination (CONTAM): two or more impressions fused together (“butterflower”)
  • inappropriate logic (ALOG): strained reasoning
  • all are indiciative of psychosis, but CONTAM and ALOG are more serious
28
Q

What is the Thematic Apperception Test useful for?

A

research suggests it is good for making diagnostic distinctions, but not for determining specific diagnoses

29
Q

Describe the Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory (SCII).

A
  • assesses a person’s personal interests relative to norms from people successful and satisfied in various occupations
  • more valid for predicting job satisfaction than success
  • three ways interests are reported:
    • General Occupational Themes (realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, conventional; derived from Holland)
    • Basic Interest Scales (GOTs are specified, e.g., realistic = agriculture, nature, adventure, military activities, mechanical activities)
    • Occupational Scales (124 empirical criterion-keyed scales comparing examinee scores to occupation-based criterion group norms)
30
Q

Describe the Newly Revised Strong Interest Inventory (NRSII) and how it is different from the Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory (SCII).

A
  • replaced general reference sample with general representative sample (1994)
  • comprised of five scales:
    • General Occupational Themes (GOTs), like SCII, six OTs but including computers and technology
    • Basic Interest Scales (BISs), more contemporary interests, such as Entrepreneurship, Protective Services, Research
    • Occupational Scales (OSs), expanded to 244 (from SCII 124), including technology and business-related items
    • Personal Styles Scales: work style, learning environment, leadership style, risk taking, team orientation
    • Administrative Indices: types and consistency of examinee responses
31
Q

Discuss the validity and application of the Strong scales (SCII and NRSII).

A
  • career choices consistent with SCII/NRSII results result in more success and satisfaction than those inconsistent
  • ~.30 predictive validity
  • NRSII is applicable for high school and college students, and adults.
32
Q

Describe the Kuder career tests.

A
  • iterations: 1) Kuder Vocational Preference Record (KVP-R), 2) Kuder Occupational Interest Survey (KOIS), 3) Kuder Career Search (KCS)
  • ipsative (forced-choice), based on content
  • validity, rather than norm-comparison (as with SCII/NRSII)
  • scores convey relative strengths per examinee
  • KCS includes Activity Preference Scale and Kuder Career Clusters scale, suggesting best/least suitable careers based on interest patterns
33
Q

List applications of neuropsychological assessment.

A
  • measuring deficits in neurological function and comparing them to known or suspected brain lesions
  • ID of post-brain-injury residual strengths
  • differentiating between cases with/without brain dysfunction
  • evaluating impact of deficits
  • making rehabilitative recommendations
  • localizing brain lesions (less common with the advent of advanced imaging)
34
Q

Describe the Halstead-Reitan (H-R) neuropsychological test battery.

A
  • measures various psychomotor, perceptual, reasoning, and attentional processes
  • 11 subtests
  • 4-5 hours for administration
  • Impairment Index score => .60 suggests pathology
  • usually supplemented with WAIS and MMPI
35
Q

Describe the Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery (LNNB).

A
  • 169 items, 11 scales
  • assesses various psychomotor, perceptual, reasoning, and attentional processes, plus severity, acuteness, and localization
  • scaled score 0-2 (high = brain injury)
  • faster, more standard, and more thorough than Halstead-Reitan.
36
Q

Describe three visual-motor skills neuropsychological tests.

A
  • Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test, 2nd Ed (Bender-Gestalt II): geometric designs are copied and recalled; indicates LDs and school performance, brain damage, and emotional problems in persons age 3 and older; usually used with other assessments; not useful for psychiatric diagnoses
  • Benton Visual Retention Test (BVRT): reproduction from memory simple geometric figures; more errors indicates more likely brain damage in persons age 8 and older; tables for accounting for IQ level and age included in scoring
  • Beery Developmental Test of Visual-Motor Integration (Beery-VMI): copying geometric figures; learning and behavior issues in persons ages 3 to 18
37
Q

Describe the Illinois Test of Psycholinguistic Abilities (ITPA).

A
  • based on Osgood’s theory of communication process
  • assesses auditory-vocal and visual-motor channels, and processes and levels of function
  • children 2 to 10
38
Q

Describe the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST).

A
  • measures ability to shift cognitive strategies in response to feedback
  • ages 6.5 to 80 years
  • examinee must determine card sorting strategy, which changes as test continues, based on examiner’s binary feedback
  • sensitive to frontal lobe damage
  • poor performance associated with autism, malingering, schizophrenia, depression, alcoholism
39
Q

Describe the Stroop Color-Word Test.

A
  • measure of cognitive flexibility and selective attention
  • examinee states color of printed word, rather than reading word (which is a color name); requires frontal lobe activation to suppress reading
  • poor performance associated with depression, ADHD, mania, schizophrenia
40
Q

Describe the Tower of London test.

A
  • examinee moves disks on pegs to different configurations
  • tests executive functioning, implicit and procedural memory
  • poor performance related to frontal lobe damage, ADHD, autism, depression
41
Q

Describe the Mini Mental Status Exam (or Mini Mental State Exam).

A
  • tests cognitive functioning in older adults
  • 11 questions on six areas: orientation, registration, attention/calculation, recall, language, visual construction
  • cutoff below 23/24 out of max score 30 indicates impairment
  • affected by visual or hearing impairments, language limitations, education
42
Q

Describe the Glasgow Coma Scale.

A
  • assesses post-brain-trauma consciousness
  • three responses: eye opening, best motor response, best verbal response
  • score 3-15, lower = more severe injury
43
Q

Describe the Rancho Scale of Cognitive Functioning.

A
  • measure of cognitive recovery from head injury in first weeks and months
  • 10 levels: 1 = no response, 8-10 purposeful-appropriate (three levels)